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Civil Aviation Staff Medical Check-Up, Medical Certificates, And Aero-Medical Centres Aero-Medical Expert Certification

Original Language Title: Civilās aviācijas personāla veselības pārbaudes veikšanas, veselības apliecības izsniegšanas, aviācijas medicīnas centru un aviācijas medicīnas ekspertu sertificēšanas kārtība

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Cabinet of Ministers Regulations No. 97 in Riga 2010 February 2 (Mon. 6. § 17) Civil Aviation staff medical check-up, medical certificates, and Aero-medical centres Aero-medical expert certification Issued in accordance with the law "on the air", article 18.7 second and third part i. General questions 1. determines the order in which: 1.1 certified aviation medical experts;
1.2. the Certified Aviation Medical Center;
1.3. the civil aviation staff medical check-up (health check);
1.4. medical certificates shall be issued by the civil aviation personnel (health certificate). 2. the aviation medical experts and aviation medical centres and health certified by a certificate issued by the national agency of Civil Aviation Agency "(hereinafter referred to as the Civil Aviation Agency). 3. Civil Aviation Agency decision related to the requirements of the rules may be challenged in the administrative process, the Ministry of transport regulatory laws. 4. Civil Aviation Agency referred to in these provisions for decision-making may invite experts, competent experts in the medical field. 5. the requirements of this regulation do not apply to health checks on persons shall be issued an aircraft maintenance licence. II. the aviation medical examiner certification 6. Aviation medical expert can be a person who has a certificate of specialist doctor and who work in medical institution. 7. The provisions referred to in paragraph 6 of the medical establishment in writing submitted to the Civil Aviation Agency aviation medical examiner application attestation (annex 1). 8. Medical institution, the person who wants to become an aviation medical examiner (hereinafter the applicant) must have the following equipment: 8.1 electrocardiograph (12-lead);
8.2. determination of Visual acuity tables;
8.3. the color of the tables (tables izohromatisk 24-Ishihara);
8.4. the perimeter (detection field);
8.5. otorinolaringoskop;
8.6. spirogrāf;
8.7. clinical examination laboratory equipment (asinsain, haemoglobin, urīnanalīž detection). 9. This provision of the equipment referred to in point 8.7. is not required if the medical establishment, the candidate, provides clinical laboratory examination for certified laboratory. 10. After receipt of the application to the Civil Aviation Agency assessed it and verify the compliance of treatment this provision in paragraph 8 and 9. 11. If the application contains incomplete information or treatment equipment does not comply with the provisions of paragraphs 8 and 9 of these requirements, the Civil Aviation Agency limits issue and make a request in writing to the authority of treatment a month to clarify the information provided, submit documents or to equip the hospital pursuant to this provision in paragraph 8 and 9. Question looking at the specified information and documents. 12. Civil Aviation Agency within one month of receipt of the application, shall take a decision on the authorisation to carry out health checks, issued by a medical institution to the candidate's assurance of aviation medical expert, or a refusal to allow the inspection of health treatment, failure to comply with this provision, paragraph 11. 13. the aviation medical examiner's certificate (annex 2) shall be issued for an unlimited duration. 14. The medical establishment ensure that worker aviation medical examiner: 14.1 at least 10 health inspections a year;
14.2. The Civil Aviation Agency submit a doctor's certificate if the certificate a copy of the changes during the period of validity of this document, it is published again, renewed or extended. 15. Civil Aviation Agency at least once a year check the hospital's workers in aviation and medical experts in compliance with the requirements of this regulation. 16. Civil Aviation Agency shall inform the medical establishment of the time limit within which the inevitable failures, if the medical establishment has provided these rules referred to in point 14 requirements or do not comply with this provision in paragraph 8 and 9. 17. Civil Aviation Agency within three working days, shall take a decision on the ban to conduct health inspections and revoke the medical institution in aviation employed medical expert evidence where: 17.1. Civil Aviation Agency has not been corrected within the period laid down by the provisions of paragraph 16 of the discrepancy;
17.2. the aviation medical examiner refuses from the aviation medical examiner's certificate, submitting a written application to the Civil Aviation Agency and informing the hospital, where he works. 18. Medical authority within three working days after the receipt of the notification of the aviation medical examiner, cancellation of proof it passes the Civil Aviation Agency. III. the aviation medical center certification 19. Aviation Medical Center may become the medical establishment, which is certified by the laws in the order, led by aviation medical expert and the following specialists: 19.1 internist;
19.2. the ophthalmologist;
19.3. otorinolaringolog;
19.4. the surgeon;
19.5. the neurologist. 20. The provisions referred to in paragraph 19 of the medical institution must have the following equipment: 20.1. electrocardiograph (12-lead);
20.2. veloergometr (with the option to continuously increase the load gradually, the 12 lead ECG tracings and blood pressure control);
20.3. the 24-hour portable monitoring equipment haemodynamic;
20.4. the 24-hour Holter monitor;
20.5. tables for the determination of Visual acuity;
20.6. direct oftalmaskop;
20.7. slit lamp-microscope;
12.9. steriometr-Medoks Prism;
20.9. color see table (izohromatisk 24 tables-Ishihara);
20.10. anomaloskop or Lantern lamps;
20.11. perimeter (detection field);
20.12. autorefraktometr;
20.13. otoskop;
20.14. laringoskop;
20.15. rinoskop;
20.16. timpanometr;
20.17. balance check rotation of the Chair;
20.18. clean tone audiometr;
20.19. spirometr (registration with the volume-time spirogrāf);
20.20. the clinical examination laboratory equipment (asinsain, haemoglobin, biochemistry, urīnanalīž detection). 21. This provision of the equipment referred to in paragraph 20.20. is not required if the medical establishment provides clinical laboratory examination for certified laboratory. 22. The medical establishment that wants to receive aviation certificate, the Medical Center shall submit in writing to the Civil Aviation Agency submission (annex 3). 23. After receipt of the application to the Civil Aviation Agency assessed it and check the hospital's compliance with the requirements of this regulation. 24. If the application does not have sufficient information or the information provided or the medical establishment does not meet the requirements of these provisions, the Civil Aviation Agency postponed consideration of the issue and make a request in writing to the authority within a particular period of treatment in to clarify the information provided, submit documents or to equip the hospital pursuant to paragraph 20 of these regulations. Question looking at the specified information and documents. 25. Civil Aviation Agency within one month of receipt of the application, shall take a decision on the aviation medical center for treatment of issue of the certificate authority or on the refusal to issue a medical certificate of the aviation centre, failure to comply with the provisions of paragraph 24 of the above requirements. 26. the aviation medical centre certificate (annex 4) shall be issued for an unlimited duration. 27. Civil Aviation Agency at least once a year check the aviation medical center's compliance with the requirements of this regulation. 28. the aviation medical center within seven days notify the Civil Aviation Agency for: 28.1. changes in the aviation medical examiner or the provisions referred to in paragraph 19 of the doctor;
28.2. other changes according to the requirements of these provisions could significantly affect aviation medical center. 29. If, during a check found that the aviation medical center has not submitted information on this provision in paragraph 28 above changes or found other inconsistencies in the requirements of these provisions, the Civil Aviation Agency in writing inform the aviation medical center on the need for a month to prevent the identified gaps. 30. Civil Aviation Agency takes a decision to render void an aviation medical certificate, if the Centre of the aviation medical center have not eliminated the rule referred to in paragraph 29 or aviation medical center the certificate. IV. Health check and certificate issue 31. for health certificate health certificate the applicant (hereinafter the applicant), arriving on a health check: 31.1. presented identity documents;
31.2. submit application (5 or 6);
31.3. submit to the opinion of the psychiatrist about the State of health;
19.5. the narkolog submit an opinion on the State of health;

31.5. submit family doctor's opinion about the State of health of the medical facts concerning personal and inherited history. 32. This provision, 19.5 and 31.3 31.5. the opinions referred to in paragraph shall submit, upon arriving to the first health check. 33. following the provisions referred to in paragraph 31, the application of the aviation medical examiner the applicant 30 days of full health check. This time limit may be extended if, in accordance with the aviation medical examiner, aviation medical center or the Civil Aviation Agency assignment you need to perform an additional health checks. 34. the following health attestation: 34.1. first class medical certificates shall be issued by: 34.1.1. commercial;
34.1.2. airline transport pilots (pilots the plane or helicopter);
34.1.3. daudzpilot command pilots;
21.3. the second class medical certificate shall be issued: 34.2.1. privâtpilotu;
34.2.2. glider pilots;
34.2.3. balloon pilots;
34.2.4. for recreational pilots in aircraft (aircraft, helicopters or žiroplān) maximum take-off mass of more than 495 kilograms;
34.2.5. for recreational pilots: 34.2.5.1. hang gliding;
34.2.5.2. motodeltaplān;
34.2.5.3. paraplān;
34.2.5.4. motoparaplān;
34.2.5.5. aircraft with the maximum take-off mass not exceeding 495 kilograms;
34.2.6. studentpilot;
34.2.7.-radio telephone operator pilots;
34.2.8.-freight operators pilots;
34.2.9. pilots – observers;
34.2.10. pilots-navigators;
34.2.11. flight-engineers;
34.2.12. parachute (instructors);
34.2.13. the aircraft cabin crew members;
3. a third class medical certificates issued to air traffic controllers. 35. Aviation medical examiner, according to the regulations on treatment person's competence and that rule 7. requirements of annex assesses the State of health of the applicant or, if necessary, appoint the applicant to a specialist. 36. If the State of health of the applicant does not comply with the provisions of part 7. those requirements, but it is permissible for the relevant class medical certificates issued by these rules referred to in annex 8, the suitability of the applicant, the constraints assess the Civil Aviation Agency, taking into account the safety risk. 37. the first health check out: 37.1. first and third class medical certificate retrieval – aviation medical center;
37.2. the second class to obtain a medical certificate – aviation medical center or the aviation medical examiner. 38. health check first, second and third class medical certificate made for obtaining aviation medical center or the aviation medical examiner. 39. After the health examination in the aviation medical examiner that rule 37.2 in and 38 in the case referred to in paragraph or medical center supervisor in paragraph 37.1. This provision and paragraph 38 in the case sent to the Civil Aviation Agency health inspection report (annex 9) and the applicable restrictions (annex 8). 40. the health certificate shall include the following information: 24.9. health certificate number;
40.2. the health certificate of the class;
40.3. the first name and last name;
25.1. date of birth;
25.2. citizenship;
40.6. health certificate validity period;
40.7. previous health certificate validity period;
25.4. the last date recorded in the elektrokardiogrāfisk;
25.4. date of last audiometrij;
40.10. last of the ophthalmological examination date;
40.11. restrictions apply (annex 8);
34.64. Civil Aviation Agency's aviation medical Manager's name and signature;
40.13. health check the date;
40.14. health certificate holder's signature. 41. in addition to the rules prescribed in paragraph 327. expiry date of first class medical certificate stating: 25.5. vienpilot of a validity of air transport;
41.2. the validity of another commercial. 42. Health certificate validity period are as follows: 42.1. a first class medical certificate is valid for 12 months, except where the applicant: 42.1.1. has reached 40 years of age and is involved in the vienpilot air transportation, transport of passengers;
42.1.2. has reached 60 years of age;
26.2. the second class medical certificate is valid: 42.2.1.60 months before 40 years of age. If the medical certificate at the time of receipt of the applicant's 38 years old and older, health certificate validity period is calculated to be valid until the age of 42;
42.2.2.24 months before reaching the age of 50;
42.2.3.12 months, if the applicant is older than 50 years;
26.3. third-class medical certificate is valid: 42.3.1.24 months before reaching the age of 40;
42.3.2.12 months after 40 years of age. 43. This provision: 43.1.42.1.1. and 42.1.2. in the case referred to in subparagraph health certificate shall be valid for a period of six months;
43.2.26.2. subparagraph shall not apply to the aircraft cabin crew members whose medical certificates expire within 24 months before reaching the age of 40 and 12 months after 40 years of age. 44. the health certificate validity period can be reduced according to the results of the inspections if they show that the State of health of the applicant's health certificate validity period would deteriorate. The need to reduce this period to evaluate the Civil Aviation Agency. 45. If the health check carried out not earlier than 45 days before the health certificate expiration date, the next health certificate validity period is calculated by adding the respective period of the previous term of validity of the certificate. 46. The health certificate validity period ended more than five years ago, requires the first health check. 47. If the aviation medical expert or specialist carried out test results are not sufficient to evaluate the applicant's State of health, Civil Aviation, the Aviation Agency medical center or the aviation medical examiner, justified, may require additional health screening and examination. 48. If it is found that an applicant that rule 31.2. the application referred to in subparagraph provided misleading or false statements, the Civil Aviation Agency takes a decision to send the applicant to carry out an in-depth health screening and examination. 49. the health certificate holder shall immediately consult with the Civil Aviation Agency, aviation medical center or the aviation medical examiner in the following cases: 30.5. If he is hospitalized, he needs hospitalization or medical institution, more than 12 hours;
30.6. required surgery or invasive procedure;
30.6. the need to regularly use the medication;
49. the need to wear a permanent vision correction lenses;
30.8. have any significant traumatic lesions;
30.8. found sick, which include the inability to fulfil the aircraft crew on duty at least a period of 14 days;
49.7. are pregnant. 50. the health certificate holder certain time prohibited the use of health certificate and in accordance with the rights granted: 50.1. if carried out procedures that require anesthesia General or spinal,-48 hours;
50.2. if carried out procedures that require a local or regional anesthesia, 12 hours;
50.3. the health certificate holder has used alcohol (provided that the amount of blood alcohol eight hours after its use is not more than 0.2 per mille), eight hours;
50.4. If he is alcoholic, narcotic, psychotropic or other intoxicating substances. Prime Minister v. dombrovsky traffic Minister k. Gerhard annex 1: Cabinet of Ministers of 2 February 2010. the Regulation No. 97 application to aviation medical examiner's certificate to receive traffic Minister k. Gerhard annex 2 Cabinet 2 February 2010. the Regulation No. 97 receipt sample (A4 size) traffic Minister k. Gerhard annex 3 of the Cabinet of Ministers of 2 February 2010. the Regulation No. 97 application to aviation medical centre certificate traffic Minister k. Gerhard annex 4 of the Cabinet of Ministers of 2 February 2010. the Regulation No. 97 certificate (A4 format page) traffic Minister k. Gerhard annex 5 of the Cabinet of Ministers of 2 February 2010. the Regulation No. 97 application class 1 medical certificates and a class 2 medical certificate to the application relates to a class 1 medical certificate holders and applicants, and a class 2 medical certificate holders and applicants (except aircraft cabin crew members) traffic Minister k. Gerhard annex 6 of the Cabinet of Ministers of 2 February 2010. the Regulation No. 97 application class 2 medical certificates and the class 3 health certificate application relates to 3. class medical certificate holders and applicants, and a class 2 medical certificate holders and applicants-the aircraft cabin crew traffic Minister k. Gerhard annex 7 of the Cabinet of Ministers of 2 February 2010. the Regulation No. 97 medical requirements to obtain a medical certificate 1. Cardiovascular System requirements additional requirements


1.1. Initial health check out the standard 12 lead ECG recording rest position. Each health check ECG is done in accordance with 1.1.1. First repeated health check 1 and class 3 medical certificate holder shall be carried out after reaching the age of 65 Aerospace Medical Center. You can make a cardiologist, if this is allowed by the main aviation medical examiner. Physical tests with elektrokardiogrāfisk the controls in accordance with 1.1.2. section are required only if there is clinical indications. The level of serum lipids, including cholesterol, down to facilitate risk assessment, checking the health condition before the issue of a health certificate and do the first health check after 40 years of age, as well as if there are clinical indications referred to in subparagraph 1.1.1.1.1.3. a) a class 1 medical certificate holder or applicant every five years up to 30 years of age, every two years up to 40 years of age every year until the age of 50 and each health check at the age of 50, as well as if there are clinical indications; (b)) a class 2 medical certificate holder or applicant, making every subsequent medical examination; c) class 3 medical certificate holder or applicant every four years to 30 years of age, every two years after reaching the age of 30, and each time the health check after 40 years of age, as well as if there are clinical indications 1.1.2. a) signs or symptoms, which leads to the suspicion of the heart-vascular diseases; (b) changes in the ECG of peace); c) 1 and class 3 medical certificate holders, reaching 65 years of age every four years To an applicant subject to 1.1.3. multiple risk factors (such as smoking, health history, the inherited lipid level anomalies, hypertension), aviation medical center or medical examiner performs cardiovascular assessment, informing the main aviation medical experts 1.2. health checks Each time measured blood pressure, using 1.2.1. the method specified in point. If your systolic pressure is constant during a health check in more than 160 mm Hg st. and (or) diastolic pressure exceeds 95 mm Hg st. regardless of whether or not the applicant is undergoing treatment, the applicant has been recognised as inappropriate. Arterial blood pressure normalizējoš therapy should not interfere with the rights granted by the licence and must comply with the 1.2.2 and 1.2.3.. The applicant, which is symptomatic of the arterial hypotension, recognised as inappropriate 1.2.1. If diagnosed with hypertension, you need to check the other potential vascular risk factors. Systolic pressure recorded at the time when the tones of Korotkov (phase 1), diastolic pressure down the moment they disappear (phase 5). Blood pressure is measured twice. If the blood pressure is elevated and/or heart rate at rest is raised, during a check carried out further studies in Anti-hypertensive treatment 1.2.2 is matched with the main aviation medical examiner, treatment may be used: (a)), diuretics (loop not diurētiķ); (b)) but the blockers (mainly hidrofīl); c) angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors; d) Angiotensin II receptor blockers in the first type (sartān); e) slow calcium channel blockers 1.2.3. Hypertension, if treated with medication, apply the second pilot ("class 1" OML) for a class 1 medical certificate holders or repeating pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation of a class 2 medical certificate holders 1.3. suspicion of myocardial ischemia, the Tenderer shall take additional examinations. The applicant, who has a small asymptomatic coronary artery disease, it is not necessary to treat the main aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable, if specified in paragraph 1.3.1. study, obtained satisfactory results. If 1.3.1. referred to investigation indicates a myocardial ischemia or significant coronary artery stenosis, the applicant has been recognised as inappropriate. Applicants who have symptomatic coronary artery disease or cardiac symptoms, which are controlled by medication, recognised as inappropriate. 1. and a class 3 licence to health, which is a history of ischaemic cardiac events (myocardial infarction, stenocardia, arrhythmia or ischemia induced heart failure or myocardial revaskularizācij of any kind), recognised as inappropriate. Pursuant to paragraph 1.3.2., Chief aviation medical examiner, the applicant can be approved as suitable for the health certificate is issued repeatedly 1.3.1. If there is a suspicion of asymptomatic coronary artery disease or peripheral artery disease, perform physical tests with elektrokardiogrāfisk control under 1.3.2. section and, if necessary, additional tests (myocardial perfusion scintigraphy, stress ehokardiogrāfij, coronary artery angiography or equivalent) 1.3.2. After ischaemic cardiac event, including revaskularizācij or peripheral artery disease, the applicant who does not have a pronounced symptoms, limiting any vascular risk factors. The use of medication to control the symptoms of cardiac. All applicants take a secondary disease prevention therapy. One of the major arteries, in none of the venous or arterial shunt and not one from a previous angioplasty or stents implanted in a place other than a vessel, which was the reason he had a myocardial infarction, may not be a coronary artery stenoses that exceed 50% of the diameter of the blood vessels. It is not permissible in cases in which the coronary tree is more than two, the stenosis is 30% to 50% of the diameter of the blood vessels. A cardiologist can recognize all the coronary tree as satisfactory by addressing multiple stenosis and (or) for multiple-revaskularizācij. The left coronary artery or proximal common trunk in left descending coronary artery part may not be treated for stenosis, which exceeds 30% of the diameter of the blood vessels. At least six months from the ischaemic cardiac event, including revaskularizācij, the following studies: a) the physical load tests with ECG monitoring (symptoms determined by the Bruce Protocol stage or 4 equivalent) that may not be a sign of myocardial ischemia or heart rhythm disorders; (b)) an Echocardiogram (or equivalent tests), showing satisfactory left ventricular function for myocardial motion without significant interference (diskinēzij, akinēzij) and left ventricular ejection fraction of at least 50% and more; c) if previously made angioplasty or stent implanted, myocardial perfusion scintigraphy carried out or stress ehokardiogrāfij (or equivalent examination), the results of which may not be a sign of transient myocardial ischemia. Perfusion scintigraphy carried out also in other cases (myocardial infarction or after the shunt aortokoronār position), if there is suspicion of myocardial perfusion; (d) additional examinations required) to assess any significant rhythm disturbance. The following checks must be carried out once a year (or more often if so determined by the Chief of the aviation medical examiner), to ensure that the cardiovascular system condition does not worsen. They include specialist inspections, physical exertion tests with ECG monitoring and cardiovascular risk assessment. Based on the main aviation medical expert opinion, can identify additional studies. If after coronary artery vein shunt are the indications, must take the myocardial perfusion scintigraphy (or equivalent tests). In all other cases, the following checks must be carried out within five years after the procedure. If any signs or symptoms, non-invasive study results indicate myocardial ischemia, coronary artery angiography should be considered or equivalent inspection. If after six months for test successfully, the applicant a class 1 licence to the main aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable for applying the second pilot ("OML") limitation. The applicant a class 2 medical certificate, which shall conform to the requirements of this subparagraph, may operate flights without repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation, but the main aviation medical examiner, prior to authorizing the applicant to carry out vienpilot flights in assessing cardiovascular risk can be determined at the time the backup pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation. Applicants for a class 2 licence for the issue or renewal of a repeating, which only made the physical load tests with the ECG control under 1.3.2. "a" requirements referred to in subparagraph, in accordance with the main aviation medical examiner's instructions can take flights with a backup pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation


1.4. The tenderer that has a distinctly supraventrikulār rhythm disorders including intermittent or persistent sinus node syndrome, weakness is recognised as inappropriate (see 1.4.1.). Applicants who are asymptomatic sinus bradycardia or sinus tachycardia may be recognised as eligible if it has no any other pamatsaslimšan. Applicants who are asymptomatic individual or ventricular supraventrikulār of the monoform ekstrasistol, considers appropriate. Frequent or complex forms is then made complete cardiac evaluation under 1.4.1. The applicant, which is a part of the amalgamated His stand for a blockade or stable heart electric axis deviation to the left may be recognised as eligible if it has no other pathology. Health tests you need to perform a cardiac assessment, the applicant if it has the full right of amalgamated His legs blockade (see 1.4.1. " (c) "). The applicant, which is full of His left legs of amalgamated blockade, recognised as inappropriate (see 1.4.1. " (d) "). The applicant, who has a first degree in the blockade and Mobic atrioventrikulār type 1 atrioventrikulār of the blockade, could become appropriate if no other pamatsaslimšan. The applicant, which is a type 2 or Mobic full atrioventrikulār the blockade is considered inappropriate (see 1.4.1.). The applicant, which is wide and (or) a narrow QRS complex tachycardia is considered inappropriate (see 1.4.1.). A tenderer who has ventricular preeksitācij syndrome, recognised as inappropriate (see 1.4.1. " (e) "). The applicant that the pacemaker implanted in endokardiāl, recognized as appropriate (see 1.4.1.). Applicants who underwent ablation therapy is considered inappropriate (see 1.4.1.).
1.4.1. any significant heart rhythm or conduction disturbance valued cardiologist and where the applicant is deemed to be appropriate, appropriate follow-up observations: (a) the assessment shall include the following: 1)) physical load tests with the ECG control according to the Bruce Protocol or an equivalent protocol. The examination must be of the maximum load or symptom limited. The indicators must satisfy the Bruce Protocol 4. stage, and they may not produce any significant heart rhythm or conduction abnormalities or any signs of myocardial ischemia. The main aviation medical expert can determine the necessary medication before the test, which affects the cardiovascular system; 2) 24-hour ambulatory ECG, the results of which may not produce significant heart rhythm or conduction disturbances; two-dimensional Doppler Echocardiogram in 3), the results of which may not be able to produce a significant increase in the individual heart cavities or significant organic or functional anomalies. Left ventricular ejection fraction must be at least 50%; (b)) may be included in the supplementary estimates: 1) repeated 24-hour ECG recording; 2) elektrofizioloģisk study; 3) myocardial perfusion scintigraphy or equivalent; 4) cardiac magnetic resonance examination or equivalent; 5) coronary artery angiogramm or equivalent test (see 1.3.2); c) atrial fibrillation/flutter when the event first health check, 1 and class 3 medical certificates that applicants had only one arrhythmia that cannot be repeated, the main aviation medical examiner considers appropriate.

The main aviation medical examiner of applicants. class 1 and 3 medical certificate to be recognised as appropriate, if the applicant is under the age of 40 years or if the applicant is older than 40 years and the stability of the situation in the 12-month period, and repeating may be recognised as suitable for picking without the second pilot ("OML") limitation if the applicant is under the age of 40 years. The pilot, who is older than 40 years, the second pilot ("OML" 1. class) for a period of 12 months;
d) applicant older than 40 years, performed coronary artery examination: 1.3.1) and the class health licence recognised as fit and apply the second pilot ("OML") limitation if the condition of stability is observed for at least a period of three years; 2) 1 and class 3 medical certificate holders after a three-year period, which was applied to the second pilot ("OML" class 1), the Chief of aviation medical examiner, you can cancel the second pilot ("OML" 1. class);

(e)) 1) class 1 medical certificates, which the applicant is asymptomatic, preeksitācij syndrome, the main aviation medical examiner may apply if the elektrofizioloģisk study, including adequate drug autonomous nervous system stimulation, agitation of not found inducējam circulation type (re-entry) tachycardia and turned off several additional driving path existence, 2) a class 1 medical certificate holder who is asymptomatic, preeksitācij syndrome, the main aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable for application of the second pilot ("OML" 1. class);

f) may be recognised as suitable candidates for at least three months after surgery, if: 1) there are no other diskvalificējoš conditions; 2) electrode system is bipolar; 3) applicant is not dependent on the pacemaker; 4) to regular checking again, including a pacemaker check; 5) under 1.4.1. " (a) subparagraph must perform cardiac assessment of the applicant; 6) reissue of a class 1 medical certificate, the applicant may be recognised as suitable for applying the second pilot ("OML" 1. class);

g) 1 and class 3 medical certificate holder or applicant who successfully underwent treatment and elektrofizioloģisk in the katetrablācij study carried out at least two months after the ablation, obtained satisfactory results may be recognised as suitable for applying the second pilot ("OML") limitation for one year. If invasive or non-invasive examination of the way it is not possible to determine the result in the long run, the main aviation medical examiner, the applicant applied to the second pilot ("OML") limitation and/or additional studies;
h) assessing the health of a class 2 licence, a class 1 assessment procedures and is considering repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") or only valid for flights without passengers ("OPL") for 1.5. applicants who have peripheral artery disease (before or after surgery), recognised as inappropriate. If no significant functional impairment, the applicant can be approved as a suitable subject to 1.3.1. and 1.3.2. A tenderer who has thoracic or abdominal aortic aneurysm (before or after surgery), recognised as inappropriate. During repeated health examination (see section 1.5.1). The applicant, which is essential for heart valve abnormality is considered inappropriate. The applicant, who has a small heart valve abnormality may be recognised as suitable for under 1.5.2. section. Applicants who underwent heart valve replacement/valvuloplastik, recognised as inappropriate. The applicant can be approved as appropriate under 1.5.3. section. The applicant, which is carried out for systemic anticoagulant therapy is considered inappropriate. The applicant can be approved as a suitable anticoagulant therapy after completion according to paragraph 1.5.4. Where the applicant has the pericardial or myocardial endokard, a pathology that is not mentioned in this annex shall be recognised as inappropriate. The applicant has been recognised as a suitable and complete cure of cardiac assessment (see 1.5.5). The applicant, who has a congenital heart anomaly (before or after corrective surgery), recognised as inappropriate. At the heart of the study on the application of the applicant may be recognized, who has a small heart anomaly (see 1.5.6). The applicant, who performed the heart or heart/lung transplantation is considered inappropriate. Applicants who have had a history of repeated vazovagāl of the sinkop recognised as inappropriate. Suitable candidates may be recognised by a complete evaluation in accordance with point 1.5.1 to 1.5.7. Main aviation medical expert could become suitable candidates, which has an aneurysm in the aorta surgery below the renal arteries leaves the site, applying a class 1 medical certificates to the applicant the second pilot ("OML" 1. class) or a class 2 medical certificate applicant repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation. If necessary, determine further studies. If, after the aneurysm in the aorta below the renal arteries departure location is izoperēt, no complications and cardiovascular assessment, applicants may be recognised as suitable for a class 1 medical certificate, the application of the second pilot (class 1 "OML") limitation and further checks, applicants as suitable for a class 2 licence, applying backup pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation

  1.5.2. a) the tenderer that has a double valve aortāl may be recognised as eligible without a second pilot (class 1 "OML") or repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation if there is no other heart or aorta anomaly. If necessary, the main aviation medical examiner determines further verification of ehokardiogrāfisk; (b) applicants with) the aortic stenosis, health screening coordinated with the main aviation medical examiner. Left ventricular function must be intakt. The applicant, which is systemic embolism or thoracic aortic dilation history recognised as inappropriate. Applicants whose average pressure fluctuations is 20 mm Hg st. limits may be recognised as eligible. The applicant, that the average pressure fluctuations greater than 20 mm Hg st., but not more than 40 mm Hg st., may be recognised as suitable for class 2 and 3 to obtain a licence or a class 1 licence, by applying the second pilot ("OML") limitation. The mean pressure fluctuations up to 50 mm Hg st. levels, taking into account the main aviation medical expert opinion. The main aviation medical examiner may determine the future of two-dimensional Doppler ehokardiogrāfij examination; (c)), which has candidates in aortāl regurgitation may be recognised as eligible without a second pilot (class 1 "OML") or repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation only if it is insignificant. Two-dimensional Doppler ehokardiogrāfij must not show any abnormalities of the aortic ascendējoš. If necessary, the main aviation medical examiner may determine additional checks; (d)), which has candidates of rheumatic mitral valve disease, recognized as appropriate; e) mitral valve prolapse/mitral regurgitation. The tenderer that has isolated the asymptomatic mezosistolisk click, apply the second pilot (class 1 "OML") or repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation. class 1 licence to the applicant, which is a small regurgitation without complications, the second pilot ("OML") limitation. The main aviation medical examiner may determine additional periodic inspections and examinations; (f)), which found the applicant left ventricular volume overload, which shows increased left ventricular end-diastole, the size is recognised as inappropriate. The main aviation medical examiner may determine additional periodic inspections and examinations; (g)), which has the applicant previously undetected heart noises, assesses the cardiologist. If they are important, additional studies including at least two-dimensional Doppler applicant for 1.5.3. a ehokardiogrāfij) that implanted mechanical valves, recognised as inappropriate. The applicant for a class 3 licence to be recognised as a suitable anticoagulant therapy is already aligned with the cardiologist; (b) applicants with) heart valve, not the orthosis symptoms and at least six months after the operation has been carried out in the study, which found that of valvular and ventricular configuration and operation are normal, as suitable, taking into account the following criteria: 1) satisfactory physical load tests using the ECG control symptoms down the Bruce Protocol 4. stage or its equivalent, in accordance with the interpretation of the cardiologist shows no significant abnormalities. Myocardial scintigraphy/stress ehokardiogrāfij required if peace sign position, ECG anomalies are presented and found to coronary artery disease (see 1.3.1., 1.3.2. and 1.4.1.); 2) two-dimensional Doppler Echocardiogram did not show a significant increase of individual heart cavities, heart valve defects of structural bioprotēz is minimal, and doplerogrāfisk in a specific blood flow is normal, and is neither structural nor functional abnormality of the other heart valves. Left ventricular fractional shortening function to be normal; 3 not detected) coronary artery disease when satisfactory obtained revaskularizācij (see 1.4.1.); 4) do not need to use medications that affect the cardiovascular system; 5) if necessary, the main aviation medical examiner determined further physical tests with ECG monitoring and ehokardiogrāfij of two-dimensional Doppler tests. class 1 certificate must include the second pilot ("OML" 1. class), a class 2 licence permitted without repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation 1.5.4. applicants who have a venous thrombosis or pulmonary artery embolism, recognised as inappropriate to anticoagulant therapy is stopped. In the case of lung embolij need a complete health assessment. The applicant, which is carried out for systemic anticoagulant therapy of arterial trombembolij for possible medical treatment recognised as inappropriate. class 3 licence is recognised as suitable after full cure and cardiac assessment after satisfactory Cardiovascular assessment includes 1.5.5. two-dimensional Doppler ehokardiogrāfij, the physical exertion tests with ECG monitoring and (or) myocardial scintigraphy/stress ehokardiogrāfij and 24-hour ambulatory ECG and coronary artery angiography. The certificate shall include the second pilot (class 1 "OML") or repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation 1.5.6. the main aviation medical expert can declare the applicant suitable, if these States are functionally insignificant and the applicant is not required to use medication, is the heart of a satisfactory evaluation, which includes the two-dimensional Doppler ehokardiogrāfij, physical exertion tests with ECG monitoring and 24-hour ambulatory ECG. Apply the second pilot ("OML" 1st class) and the backup pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation, and the main aviation medical examiner determined the frequency of future health checks for 1.5.7. The tenderer shall carry out the following checks: 1) 12 lead ECG load condition where symptoms down the Bruce Protocol 4. stage or its equivalent, in accordance with the interpretation of the cardiologist shows no abnormalities. If the State of the peace sign in the ECG shows a deviation from the norm, you must complete a myocardial scintigraphy/stress ehokardiogrāfij; 2) two-dimensional Doppler Echocardiogram that show no significant increase in individual heart cavities, or structural or functional heart, valvular or myocardial abnormalities; 3) 24-hour ambulatory ECG that show no heart conduction disturbance, nor complex or chronic heart rhythm disturbance, or myocardial ischemia; 4) may include a sloping desk test according to the standard protocol that is in accordance with the interpretation of the cardiologist shows no signs of vazomotor instability; 5) need a neurologist. Applicants who meet the above requirements may be recognised as suitable for applying the second pilot (class 1 "OML) or repeating the pilot (class 2" OSL) limitation for a period not less than six months after the last loss of consciousness if it is not repeated. The restriction can be waived if the applicant over five years is not a long period of repeated seizures. Based on the main aviation medical expert opinion, it may set a shorter or longer period of examination of the respiratory system 2 Basic requirements 2.1. each health check out the chest x-ray of a posterior-anterior position (see 2.1.1). Pulmonary functional investigation conducted first during the health check and health check, if there is clinical indications (see 2.1.2). The applicant, which is relevant to lung disorders, recognised as inappropriate. The applicant, who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease recognised as inappropriate. Applicants that are not expressed in lung disorders may be recognised as eligible (see 2.1.3) chest x-ray of 2.1.1 posterior-anterior position take not more than once a year, if it is clinical or epidemiological grounds 2.1.2. Spirometrisk investigations required in health check first 1 and class 3 certificates. If the FEV1/FVC ratio is less than 70%, the result should be evaluated for pulmonolog 2.1.3. After full recovery, and after satisfactory evaluation of respiratory 2.2. tenderers who have asthma and need the medicines, valued according to point 2.2.1. Applicants who have an active inflammatory disease of the respiratory system, recognised as inappropriate (see 2.2.2.). Applicants that are active, sarkoidoz recognised as inappropriate (see 2.2.3). An applicant who has a spontaneous pneimotoraks, recognized as appropriate until the situation is fully assessed according to 2.2.4. The tenderer that has active tuberculosis, recognized as appropriate until the situation is fully assessed under 2.2.5. class 3 the applicant, who has pulmonary emphysema, recognised as inappropriate. Applicants may apply if his health condition cannot affect the rights granted by the licence. Applicants who require chest surgery, recognised as inappropriate, at least until three months after the operation or until the effects of the operations you can no longer affect the rights granted by the licence (see 2.2.6). The applicant, which is not enough to treat sleep apnea syndrome is considered to be inappropriate

2.2.1. a) tenderers that observed in repeated asthma attack, recognized as appropriate; (b) the main applicant) aviation medical examiner as suitable for class 1 and 3 cards, if his condition pulmonary functional investigation considered stable and used drugs do not affect the rights of the certificate awarded (not used for systemic glucocorticosteroid); (c) applicants as suitable) for a class 2 licence, if his condition pulmonary functional investigation considered stable, used drugs do not affect the rights of the certificate awarded (not used for systemic glucocorticosteroid) 2.2.2 primary aviation medical examiner of applicants as suitable after full recovery, and after satisfactory evaluation of the respiratory system 2.2.3. main aviation medical examiner of applicants as suitable if: (a)), to exclude investigated systemic disease process; (b)), the hīl disease Lymphadenopathy, recognized as inactive, and the applicant does not require drug treatment a) applicant 2.2.4 completely to become healthier after one spontaneous pneimotoraks, he considers appropriate, make a complete assessment of the respiratory system, if passed one year after the event; (b)) having an approval or a renewal, a major aviation medical expert can declare the applicant suitable for applying the second pilot (class 1 "OML") or repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation if the applicant, within six weeks, quite well after one spontaneous pneimotoraks. Years after the event, performing a complete respiratory system assessment, the applicant considers appropriate without the second pilot (class 1 "OML") or repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation; (c)), which has the applicant repeated spontaneous pneimotoraks recognised as inappropriate. The applicant's main aviation medical examiner considers appropriate after performed surgery and convalescence is satisfactory 2.2.5. The applicant's main aviation medical examiner considers appropriate after successful drug treatment, and a full assessment of the respiratory system at ftiziatr the Applicant that 2.2.6 has been pneimonektomij, recognised as inappropriate. Applicants who made the chest surgery, Chief aviation medical examiner considers appropriate after satisfactory recovery, a complete assessment of the respiratory system and apply the second pilot (class 1 "OML") or repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation 3. Digestive system requirements additional requirements 3.1. A tenderer who is dispeptisk disease and need to use medications or with pancreatitis, recognised as inappropriate until the State fully assessed under paragraph 3.1.1. The applicant, who accidentally discovered asymptomatic gallstones are, evaluate the situation according to 3.1.2. The applicant, who diagnosed a chronic inflammatory bowel disease or a history of such a case is considered inappropriate (see 3.1.3.). An applicant who has a hernia that could interfere with the enforcement of the rights conferred by the certificate, recognised as inappropriate. The tenderer that has complications after the digestive tract or its suffix diseases or surgical operations, in particular with respect to the obstruction of the strictures or compression, which can interfere with the enforcement of the rights conferred by the certificate, recognised as inappropriate. The applicant, who has carried out the digestive tract or its suffix operations that includes complete or partial organ ekscīzij or stoma, recognised as inappropriate, at least up to three months or until such time as the effects of the operations you can no longer affect the rights granted by the licence (see 3.1.4.) 3.1.1. a) to the applicant who has repeatedly dispeptisk disorder and needs medical treatment, a physical examination; (b) the applicant having) pancreatitis, recognised as inappropriate. The main aviation medical examiner, applicants can be as suitable, if you've eliminated the causes of obstruction (for example, the use of medication, gallstones); (c)) where alcohol may be the cause of dyspepsia and pancreatitis, then conduct a complete abuse of this substance use/use of assessment to which the tenderer 3.1.2 is one of the great žultsakmen, the Chief of asymptomatic aviation medical expert could become appropriate. The tenderer that has multiple asymptomatic gallstones, Chief of the aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable for class 2 and 3 to obtain a licence or a class 1 licence to inspections related to the certificates of approval or renewal again, applying the second pilot ("OML" 1. class) for inflammatory bowel disease 3.1.3 is permissible, if found to be in remission and stabilisation and to control it, you do not need to use any of the tenderer 3.1.4 glucocorticosteroid systemic ones again for approval or renewal of major aviation medical examiner as suitable for When the recovery is complete, the applicant shall not express symptoms and there is minimal secondary complications or the repeated risk of disease, diet, Metabolism 4. endocrine system and Essential requirements 4.1 an applicant that has metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunctions, recognised as inappropriate (see 4.1.1). The applicant, who has diabetes, may be recognised as suitable, if the situation is fully assessed under 4.1.2 and 4.1.3.. The applicant, who has diabetes and takes insulin injections, recognised as inappropriate. A tenderer who has the disease, Adison recognised as inappropriate (see 4.1.4). Applicants whose body mass index is 35, may be recognised as eligible only if the overweight may not affect the rights granted by the licence, and the performance has been carried out cardiovascular risk assessment (see 9.1.1) 4.1.1. Tenderer's main aviation medical examiner considers appropriate, if the condition is asymptomatic, clinically compensated and stable, with or without replacement, and it regularly checks the medical specialist 4.1.2. Glikozūrij and glucose level anomalies in the blood to investigate. The applicant's main aviation medical examiner considers appropriate, if the normal glucose tolerance (low renal threshold) or if the reduced glucose tolerance without diabetic pathology is of fully controlled with diet and regular checks are carried out, which the applicant 4.1.3 treatment used in antidiabetic medication is considered inappropriate. In some cases, biguanīd or alfaglikozidāz inhibitors are to be permitted, the applicant's main aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable for class 1 licence for the second pilot ("OML" 1. class) or a class 2 licence for without repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation. Sulfanilurīnviel the use of derivatives, when assessing the suitability of the permitted a class 2 licence for the backup pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation of inspections related to the certificates of approval or renewal again 4.1.4. Tenderer's main aviation medical examiner as suitable, reaffirming or revert to class 1 and 2 certificates, provided that the exercise of the right of the certificate to the applicant at the time of is up containing cortisone medication and they are available for use. Applicants for the second pilot (class 1 "OML") or repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation 5. Hematology Essential requirements 5.1. each health check determines the level of haemoglobin. The applicant, who found in the hemoglobin level anomalies, further studies. The applicant, which the haematocrit is less than 32% is considered inappropriate (see 5.1.1). The applicant, who has sickle cell anemia, recognised as inappropriate (see 5.1.1). The applicant, who has a significant local or generalized lymph node enlargement and blood system diseases recognised as inappropriate (see 5.1.2). The applicant, who has acute and chronic leukemia, recognised as inappropriate (see 5.1.3). Applicants that are expressed in the increase of lean, recognised as inappropriate (see 5.1.4). The applicant, who has expressed policitēmij, recognized as appropriate (see 5.1.5). The applicant, which is a measure of blood clotting disorders, recognised as inappropriate (see 5.1.6) 5.1.1 anemia as indicated by reduced haemoglobin level, to investigate. The applicant, who has incurable anemia, recognised as inappropriate. The applicant's main aviation medical examiner considers appropriate if the primary cause of the disease are satisfactory treatment (such as iron or B12 deficiency) and haematocrit levels have stabilised above 32% or if diagnosed with minor Thalassemia or hemoglobinopātij without crisis history and the applicant shall present the full functional capability of the tenderer's main 5.1.2 aviation medical examiner as suitable for acute infectious process in the event that the applicant is fully healed Hodgkin Lymphoma, or and high malignancy in Hodgkin Lymphoma Not appropriate, which is treated and found to be in complete remission

5.1.3. The applicant's main aviation medical examiner considers appropriate, if the disease into remission, or chronic leukemia case, if there is no history of central nervous system involvement and the lasting side effects during treatment, which could affect flight safety. Hemoglobin and platelet levels shall be satisfactory. Requires regular inspection 5.1.4 further applicant main aviation medical examiner considers appropriate, if the increase is minimal lean, robust and not the pathology associated with it (for example, treat the chronic malaria) or, if the increase is minimal and is associated with some other acceptable situation (such as Hodgkins Lymphoma in remission) 5.1.5. Tenderer's main aviation medical examiner considers appropriate with the second pilot (class 1 "OML") or repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation If the condition is stable and not related pathology 5.1.6. Tenderer's main aviation medical examiner considers appropriate with the second pilot (class 1 "OML") or repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation if history had not been serious bleeding or blood clotting disorder cases 6. Urīnizvadsistēm essential requirements 6.1 the applicant for which any of the observed organic kidney disease symptoms, recognised as inappropriate. Each medical check-ups carried out at the time of the urine. The urine must not contain any abnormal elements that point to a pathology. Special attention should be paid to the disease, which affects the urīnizvadceļ and the genitals (see 6.1.1). The tenderer that has urīnizvadceļ stones, recognized as appropriate until the situation is fully assessed according to paragraph 6.1.2. The tenderer that has complications after kidney or urīnizvadceļ disease or surgical operations, in particular with respect to the obstruction, strictures or compression, which could make the applicant incapacitated, recognised as inappropriate. The tenderer that has offset the position after frektomij and not in the arterial hypertension or urēmij, may be recognised as eligible under subparagraph 6.1.3. Where the applicant has made or urīnizvadorgān of urinary surgery, which includes all or part of any organ or ekscīzij stoma, recognised as inappropriate, at least up to three months or until such time as the effects of the operations you can no longer affect the rights granted by the licence (see 6.1.3 and 6.1.4).
6.1.1. Abnormal urine analysis of found to investigate (e.g. proteinuria stratum prematurely disrupted, hematūrij and glukozūrij) for an applicant with asymptomatic 6.1.2. nierakmen, which has had a history of kidney stones or residue of kolik, Chief aviation medical examiner considers appropriate, if it relates to a licence or a renewal of approval again, applying the second pilot (class 1 "OML") or repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation until the applicant fully recovers 6.1.3. Tenderer that has made the uroloģisk operation, recognised as inappropriate for at least three months (see 6.1). The applicant's main aviation medical examiner considers appropriate, if the applicant does not have any symptoms and secondary complications or recurrent disease risk is minimal for a first-time applicant 6.1.4.1 and class 3 certificates, which performed renal transplantation or total cistektomij, recognised as inappropriate. Inspections related to the certificates of approval or renewal again, applicants, Chief aviation medical examiner as suitable in the following cases: (a) kidney transplant) is fully compensated, and the body accepts it, using the minimum of imūnsupresīv therapy after at least 12 months; (b) complete with functional cistektomij) in a satisfactory condition, not disease, infection or primary pathology. In both cases, the second pilot's apply ("OML" 1. class) or repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation 7. Sexually transmitted diseases and other infections Essential requirements 7.1 HIV blood tests tested first during a health check and checking again, where are the clinical indications (see 7.1.1 and 7.1.2). Blood tests will be carried out first test SED health testing and retesting, if there are clinical indications (see 7.1.3). Applicants that are observed or history of clinical symptoms that indicate immune system deficiency or infectious hepatitis, recognised as inappropriate (see section 7.1.4) 7.1.1. applicants who are HIV positive are recognised as inappropriate 7.1.2. Inspections related to the certificates of approval or renewal again, Chief aviation medical examiner as suitable for HIV positive people, the second pilot (class 1 "OML") or repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation and checks with the periodicity of three months the basic analysis, and also CD-4 T-cells, and with an interval of six months – the general health check at infektolog. AIDS or AIDS related complications appearance of applicants recognised as inappropriate 7.1.3. Applicants with acute syphilis is considered inappropriate. The applicant's main aviation medical examiner considers appropriate, if the full course of treatment is quite well from the primary and secondary stages 7.1.4. Tenderer's main aviation medical examiner considers appropriate after a full investigation and assessment of the situation of the obstetrics and gynaecology 8 Essential requirements 8.1. applicants whose history is hard, crippling the menstrual cycle disorders, recognised as inappropriate. Applicants who are approved for pregnancy is considered inappropriate (see 8.1.1). Applicants who underwent gynecological surgery, recognised as inappropriate for at least three months or until the effect of the operation may not affect the rights granted by the licence (see 8.1.2) 8.1.1. If according to the opinion of the gynecologist pregnancy progressing without pathology, Chief aviation medical expert can recognize class 1 and 2 or for the health certificate holder suitable for up to 26 weeks of pregnancy to the end, class 3 – up to 34. the end of the week. class 1 certificate holder shall apply to the second pilot ("OML") limitation. Licence renewed after confirmation that the holder has fully recovered after childbirth or pregnancy termination 8.1.2. Inspections related to the certificates of approval or again, applicants for renewal main aviation medical examiner considers appropriate if there are no symptoms, and if a secondary complication or recurrent disease risk is minimal 9. Skeletal-muscle system assessment requirements Essential requirements 9.1. applicants must have sufficient length to a limb and muscle force in order to implement the rights granted by the licence (see 9.1.1). The applicant, after which bone, joint, muscle or tendon disease or injury is incurred significant complications or who has a congenital bone, joint, muscle or tendon pathologies, evaluated according to 9.1.1 9.1.2 9.1.3., and section 9.1.1. If the applicant is a pathological structure, including constitutional obesity or muscle weakness, you need to perform the test flight, flight simulator testing or inspection work. Particular attention must be paid to emergency procedures and evacuation. The applicant's main aviation medical examiner, apply the second pilot ("class 1" OML), repeating in the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation or restriction-prohibited to drive a specific type of aircraft ("OAL") 9.1.2. If the applicant is missing some limbs, Chief aviation medical expert can declare the applicant suitable for a class 2 licence for a class 1 certificate or, associated with repeated approval or renewal, if successfully carried out a test flight, the flight simulator testing or checking the work bidders 9.1.3, which is inflammatory, infiltratīv, traumatic or degenerative skeletal muscle system-disease, Chief aviation medical examiner as suitable for If the disease is in remission and the applicant used the main aviation medical experts recommended medications, and, if required, has successfully conducted an inspection flight, flight simulator testing or inspection work, the second pilot ("class 1" OML), repeating in the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation or restriction-prohibited to drive a specific type of aircraft ("OAL") psychiatric assessment 10. Essential requirements requirements requirements


10.1. The applicant, who found šizotipisk or stop being so damned paranoid schizophrenia, a disorder considered inappropriate (see 10.1.1). The applicant, who diagnosed mood disorders, recognised as inappropriate (see 10.1.2). Applicants who found neurotic, stress-induced, somatoform, personality or organic damages, mental disorder, caused by the recognised as inappropriate (see 10.1.3). Applicants with mental or behavioural disorders due to alcohol or other substance use (with or without the addiction), recognised as inappropriate (see section 10.1.4).
10.1.1. Tenderer's main aviation medical examiner may apply if found that the initial diagnosis had been inadequate or incorrect, or where the applicant has been one case of delirium provided that no permanent damage incurred 10.1.2. Tenderer's main aviation medical expert can be declared following the case of a complete evaluation (depending on mood disorders nature and seriousness) and after a certain period of time has stopped all psychotropic medication use in 10.1.3 of the applicant that history has been one pašdestruktīv action or repeated intentional bodily harm himself recognised as inappropriate. The applicant's main aviation medical expert can be declared following the case of a complete evaluation, and may require the applicant to make a psychologist or psychiatrist neuropsychological assessment of principal Applicant 10.1.4 aviation medical examiner may be declared fit after a two-year period in which the documented sobriety or liberation from the use of the substance concerned. Inspections related to the certificates of approval or renewal again, you can declare the applicant suitable for and apply the second pilot (class 1 "OML") or repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation. Depending on the individual case and in accordance with the main aviation medical examiner's instructions for treatment and verification may include: a) few weeks long hospital treatment; (b)) a psychiatrist for inspection; c) further investigations, including blood test and specialist reports, and this is not a limited time 11. Neurological assessment requirements Essential requirements 11.1 the applicant with that disease, recognized as appropriate: 1) the progressive disease of the nervous system; 2) epilepsy and other reasons, caused disturbance of consciousness; 3) illness in a predisposed to brain dysfunction. (See 11.1.1.) Additional checks shall be carried out if the applicant has: 1) head injury; 2) spinal cord or peripheral nerve damage. (See 11.1.2.) If necessary, in the light of the applicant's medical or clinical signs, take the elektroencefalogrāfij (see 11.1.1 and 11.1.2.) 11.1.1. a) tenderers that have any progressive or progressive disease of the nervous system that has caused or could cause disability, recognised as inappropriate. After a full evaluation of the State of the main aviation medical expert can declare the applicant suitable if the functional incapacity are small and not connected with the progressive disease; (b)) if there has been a history of one or more disorders of consciousness, the cause of which is unclear, they are to be considered as a factor of diskvalificējoš. If you had only one such disturbance of consciousness that can adequately explain the applicant's main aviation medical examiner considers appropriate, but if it recurs, the inappropriate; (c)) in which the applicant found a paroksismāl epileptoform electroencephalogram activity and focal slow waves, recognised as inappropriate. Additional evaluation of such cases is carried out by the Civil Aviation Agency; (d) that the applicant) diagnosed with epilepsy, recognized as appropriate except if proved that it is a benign childhood epileptic syndrome associated with a very low risk of recurrence, and if more than 10 years had not been repeated seizures, and treatment is stopped for more than 10 years ago. Applicants who have had one or more instances of seizures after age 5, recognised as inappropriate. The applicant's main aviation medical examiner considers appropriate if, based on the opinion of a neurologist, has very low acute symptomatic seizure recurrence and risk; e) if the applicant has been one of epileptoform bezdrudž type, which is not repeated for at least 10 years, since the end of the treatment, and if not a prolonged epileptic symptoms, their predisposition may apply if further seizure risk minimal. In this case, apply the second pilot ("OML" class 1) limit 11.1.2. any head injury, which had been heavy enough to cause loss of consciousness or is associated with penetration of the brain damage should be assessed and the neurologist neurosurgeon. The applicant has been recognised as eligible only after full recovery and if the risk of epilepsy have low 11.1.3. If the applicant had a history of spinal cord or peripheral nerve damage, evaluate, in accordance with paragraph 9 of the ophthalmological assessment 12. Essential requirements requirements requirements 12.1. check first time applicants to the ophthalmological examination is carried out by ophthalmologist (see 12.1.1). Repeated health check carried out investigations of aviation ophthalmological medical examiner (see 12.1.2). All the cases outstanding or cases if detected anomalies, assesses the ophthalmologist. If 1 and class 3 medical certificate holder or applicant's vision of the function of standards (6/9 (0,7), 6/6 (1,0), N14, N5) meet only with corrective lenses and refractive disorders exceeds ± 3 diopters, the Tenderer shall submit the aviation medical expert ophthalmologist inspection report. If refraction disorder is from + 5 to-6 dioptres, this check must be carried out within the last 60 months preceding the general health checks. If the refractive disorders does not meet the following diopter, this check must be carried out within a period of 24 months before health checks (see section 12.1.3) 1 and class 3 medical certificate to an applicant after 40 years of age every two years to make tonometrij (the applicant may submit to the Chief of the aviation medical examiner proof of tonometrij's test carried out not earlier than 24 months before the health checks). If for some reason you need a specialist ophthalmological examinations, health certificate shall mark the "RX". The applicant after refractive surgical correction are recognised as inappropriate until the situation is fully assessed under 12.1.4.. Applicants who made cataract, retinal, glaucoma and other ophthalmological surgery, recognised as inappropriate. Inspections related to the certificates issued, the applicant again may be recognised as suitable for under 12.1.5.. The applicant, who has a keratokonus recognised as inappropriate until the situation is fully assessed pursuant to subparagraph 12.1.1.12.1.6. This examination must include: 1) history; 2) Visual acuity, near, middle and far vision-correcting, if necessary, using the best optical correction; 3) eyeball movement and binocular vision; 4) colour vision; 5) Visual field; 6) external eye, eye anatomy, eye, the front part (slit lamp) and fundoskopisk investigations; 7) 1 and class 3 the applicant must carry out: (a) objective refraction). Making cikloplēģij an applicant who has hiperopij and who is under 25 years old; (b) according to the clinical tonometrij) indications and after 40 years of age. in all medical examinations 12.1.2, associated with the licence or renewal approval again, you must include the certificate holder status assessment of vision: 1) history; 2) Visual acuity, near, middle and far vision, not corrected and, if necessary, using the best optical correction; 3) external eye, eye anatomy, eye, the front part (slit lamp) and fundoskopisk investigations; 4 additional examinations if) is a clinical indications (see section 12.1.3) 12.1.3 this examination must include: 1) history; 2) Visual acuity, near, middle and far vision: uncorrected; If necessary, using the best optical correction; 3) refraction; 4) eyeball movement and binocular vision; 5) Visual field; 6 tonometrij after 40 years of) age; 7) external eye, eye anatomy, eye, the front part (slit lamp) and fundoskopisk. The inspection report is sent to the main aviation medical examiner. If any abnormality and there is doubt as to the applicant's eye health, further ophthalmological examination (see section 12.1.4.)


12.1.4. main Applicant aviation medical examiner considers appropriate if: (a) the refraction before surgery) did not exceed + 5 or-6 dioptres for class 1 and 3 certificates and + 5 or-8 dioptres for class 2 licence acquisition; (b) satisfactory refractive) stability (24-hour change is less than 0.75 dioptres); (c)) eye study found no postoperative complications; d) sensitivity to the light within limits; (e)) is not disturbed mezopisk contrast sensitivity; f) carries out inspection according to opthalmologist main aviation medical examiner's instructions, the principal Applicant 12.1.5. aviation medical examiner considers appropriate: (a)) three months after the cataract operation class 1 and 2 certificates, but a class 3 licence to two months; (b)), six months after retinal surgery. The following checks carried out each year, ophthalmologist; (c)), six months after glaucoma surgery 2 and 3 classes to obtain a licence or repeating tests a class 1 licence. The following checks carried out an ophthalmologist every two years 12.1.6. If the applicant is diagnosed with keratokonus, the main applicant, aviation medical examiner as suitable for class 2 certificates and inspections related to the certificates of approval or renewal of repeated, 1st class to obtain a licence, provided that: (a) using the adjustment) lenses, vision of the applicant meets the requirements; (b)), which investigated ophthalmologist frequency determines the main aviation medical examiner 12.2. Visual acuity in the distance, watching with each eye separately (with or without correction) must be 6/9 (0.7) (class 2-6-12 (0.5)) or greater than it. Visual acuity, using both eyes must be 6/6 (1.0) or greater than (see 12.2.1). Restrictions do not apply to uncorrected Visual acuity. 1 or class 3 medical certificate holder or applicant may apply if: 1) first health check findings refraction disorder is from + 5 to-6 dioptres; 2) applicant's medical tests refraction disorders does not exceed + 5 diopters or expressed miopisk the refractive disorders more than 6 diopters and the situation is fully assessed pursuant to subparagraph 12.2.2.. a class 2 medical certificate holder or applicant may be recognised as eligible, if: 1) first health screening, refraction disorder is from-5 to-8 dioptres; 2) repeated health screening, refraction disorders exceeds _ 8 diopters and the situation is fully assessed pursuant to 12.2.3.. The tenderer who has refractive disorders must wear contact lenses or use of aspheric spectacle lenses. If 1 and class 3 medical certificate to an applicant first health check identified refractive disorders with astigmātism, astigmātism shall not exceed 2.0 dioptres, but, when claiming a class 2 medical certificate,-3.0 dioptres. For the issue of licence for repeated, candidates that have the refractive disorders with which exceeds 3.0 dioptres astigmātism, may be recognised as eligible if vision is evaluated according to 12.2.4.. If a class 2 applicant has amblyopia, ambliopisk eye must have a Visual acuity of 6/18 (0.3) or greater than it. Applicants may apply if the other eye, Visual acuity (with or without correction) is 6/6 (1.0) or more than it, and found no significant pathology. Making the first health check, 1 and class 3 medical certificate applicant of refraction disorders inherent difference in both eyes (anisometropij) shall not exceed 2.0 dioptres, but a class 2 medical certificate to an applicant-3.0 dioptres. Repeated inspection health certificate holder that the difference of the disturbance of the refractive in both eyes (anisometropij) exceeds 3.0 dioptres may be considered suitable if the situation is fully assessed under 12.2.5.. The development of Presbiopij check all medical examinations associated with the issuance of the certificate again. Applicants must be able to read N5 table (or its equivalent) in the 30-50 centimetres and N14 distance table (or its equivalent) 100 inches away, using the vision correction, if applicable (see 12.2.1). The applicant, which is expressed in a binocular visual defects of recognised as inappropriate (see 12.2.7). The applicant, who is recognised as the diplopia, inappropriate. 1. and a class 3 licence to health is considered inappropriate, if he has the eye muscle imbalance (heterophori) that exceed 2.0 dioptres: 1) in the case of Prism hiperforij, down from six meters; 2 diopter of Prism 10.0) in the case of ezoforij, down from six meters; 3 diopter of Prism eksoforij 8.0) necessary to determine a set of six metres; 4 diopters of Prism 1.0) in the case of hiperforij, down from the 33 inches away; 5 diopters of Prism 8.0) in the case of ezoforij, down from the 33 inches away; 6 diopters of Prism 12.0) in the case of eksoforij, down from the 33 inches away. If fūzij reserves are sufficient to prevent astenopij and diplopia, Chief aviation medical examiner, the applicant can be approved as suitable, subject to section 12.2.6.. A tenderer who has Visual field abnormality is considered inappropriate, if the situation is fully assessed under 12.2.7.. Applicants with recognised as unsuitable monokularitāt 1 and class 3 medical certificates (see section 12.2.8.) 12.2.1. a) if the applicant complies with the requirements, see only with vision correction, glasses or contact lenses must provide optimal Visual function, they must be well tolerated and suitable for use in aviation. If contact lenses are used, they must be monofokāl and the vision in the distance. The Ortokeratoloģisk contact lenses must not be used; (b) correction lenses when) they are used in aviation, the licence holder must comply with the requirements of the vision at all distances. To meet the vision requirements, you may use only one pair of glasses; c) contact lenses when they are used in aviation, to be monofokāl and not tinted; (d)) in implementing the rights granted in the license, the holder must make available spare, like a pair of corrective spectacle 12.2.2. a) not been severe pathology; (b) take into account the optimal) adjustment; c) ophthalmologist every two years, checks if miopisk exceeds the refraction-6 diopters; (d)) of the ophthalmologist once every five years, checks if the refractive disorders exceeds ± 3 diopters boundaries 12.2.3. a) not been severe pathology; (b) take into account the optimal) correction.) a not 12.2.4 severe pathology; (b) take into account the optimal) adjustment; c) once a year an inspection at the ophthalmologist 12.2.5.) has been a severe pathology; (b) take into account the optimal) adjustment; c) ophthalmologist is carried out every two years; (d) if anisometropij exceeds 3.0 dioptres), the tenderer must wear contact lenses 12.2.6. The applicant checks the ophthalmologist. Fūzij spare checks, for example, with Goldman's red/green binocular fusion test 12.2.7. a) applicants whose central vision in one eye is below the 12.2. the limits laid down in point may be appropriate, if the investigation establishes that the binocular Visual field is normal and pamatsaslimšan is permitted according to the ophthalmologist. In such cases, you need to perform the test flight and the second pilot's apply ("OML" 1. class); (b) the applicant having) Visual field defect may be appropriate if the binocular Visual field is normal and pamatsaslimšan confirmed the main aviation medical examiner 12.2.8. principal aviation medical expert can declare the applicant suitable for class 2 certificates or to obtain a class 1 and 3 certificates (if it is related to repeated approval or renewal) in the following cases: 1) is an monokularitāt after five years of age; 2) first during the health check, if: (a) blind eye) Visual acuity in the distance (without correction) is at least 6/6; (b) no Refractive Disorders); (c)) is not a history of refractive surgical correction; (d)) is not heavy pathology; 3) class 1 and 2 medical certificates the applicant successfully taken flight tests with a suitably qualified pilot who is aware of the potential difficulties associated with monokularitāt; 4) class 3 licence health chief aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable, if the investigation establishes that pamatsaslimšan is allowed in accordance with the assessment and if the ophthalmologist the Tenderer has successfully taken a functional test at work; 5) need to apply a second pilot ("OML" 1. class) or other operational constraints



12.3. The applicant's eyesight must have normal color perception or color safe. Take a health assessment, a first-time applicants to take test Ishihara (see 12.3.1). If the applicant does not meet the colour vision test, the Ishihara color vision can they be recognized as color safe, if he is successfully carried out a comprehensive examination of the major aviation medical examiner determined methods (color anomaloskopij or lamp-see section 12.3.2.). During repeated test, color vision test is required only if there is clinical indications. Applicant's vision that does not match the color perception tests, deemed unsafe, the colors and the applicant will be considered as inappropriate. a class 2 medical certificates where applicant is not color vision, be recognised as suitable to the limit-only flights during the day ("VCL") 12.3.1. Ishihara test (24 plate version) is considered to be successfully carried out if the applicant without errors, hesitation or delay (less than three seconds per plate) has identified 15 plates. Plates showing random bidders 12.3.2. that vision does not meet the test, the Ishihara test with one of the following methods: (a)) anomaloskopij (Nāgel or equivalent). This test shall be deemed to be carried out successfully, if the color match is trihromātisk and bonding strength does not exceed four scale units; (b) lamp tests.) This test shall be deemed to be carried out successfully, if the applicant is not mistaken inspection using the following lamps: Holmes Wright, beynes or Otorinolaringoloģisk evaluation 13 Spectrolux requirements Essential requirements 13.1. first health checks, do General otorinolaringoloģisk investigation. Repeated health check carried out investigations, if otorinolaringoloģisk is a clinical indications pursuant to section 13.1.1. Ear-nose-throat examination include health checks again (see section 13.1.2). The applicant is considered inappropriate, if there is any of the following disabilities: 1) acute or chronic active pathological process in middle or inner ear; 2 not cured of Eardrum perforation) or dysfunction (see 13.1.3); 3) vestibulār functions (see 13.1.3); 4) expressed respiratory disorders through the nose in one or the other side or sinus dysfunction; 5) oral or upper respiratory tract malformations or expressed their severe, acute or chronic infection; 6) expressed in speech or voice disorder 13.1.1. Making the first medical examination, the applicant shall undergo an extensive check of otorinolaringoloģisk aviation medical centre or otorinolaringolog. The test includes: 1) history; 2) clinical studies, including otoskopij, rinoskopij, as well as mouth and throat inspection; 3 timpanometrij or equivalent); 4) vestibulār clinical assessment system 13.1.2. If the health check found no anomalies-nose ear-neck area or ambiguous cases, sent to otorinolaringolog if the applicant a 13.1.3) is an infectious nature one ear pierced, which does not interfere with normal hearing, they can be approved as appropriate; (b)) or a spontaneous case of positional nistagm requires a complete assessment of the system vestibulār to the medical professional. In such cases may not be essential for their vestibulār response to deviations from the rules associated with the heat or rotary uztvertspēj. Again in primary health test the aviation medical examiner assessed the applicant's response of vestibulār anomalies to the clinical context 14. Hearing assessment requirements Essential requirements 14.1. The applicant correctly to understand normal speech (by checking each ear) while two meters from an aviation medical examiner, with the sides and back. Making the first medical examination, hearing test with pure tone audiometrij. Repeated tests and 40 years of age hearing test shall be carried out every five years (class 1 and 2 certificates holder) and once every four years (a class 3 licence holder). After 40 years of age hearing test shall be carried out every two years. (See 14.1.1.) 1 or a class 2 medical certificate applicants and class 3 medical certificate holders, checking each ear separately, hearing loss (HL) may not contain more than 35 dB at 500, 1 000 and 2 000 Hz, or more than 50 dB at 3000 Hz (see section 14.1.3.). When it comes to performance testing shows a satisfactory hearing, repeating tests the main aviation medical expert could become suitable candidates who has hearing loss, if the condition is evaluated according to paragraph 14.1.2. class 3 medical certificate to an applicant first health check, checking each ear separately, hearing loss (HL) may not contain more than 20 dB at 500, 1 000 and 2 000 Hz, or more than 35 dB at 3000 Hz (see section 14.1.3.). class 3 medical certificate the applicant for initial health check must not be used in hearing aids. Repeated health check of applicants recognised as inappropriate if it uses hearing aids in both ears 14.1.1. audiogramm of pure tone frequency must be 500 to 3000 Hz. Frequency limits are defined as follows: 500 Hz 1000 Hz 2000 Hz 3000 Hz 14.1.2. If the applicant's hearing the sound field is satisfactory, corresponding to the conditions of work on the flight deck in all phases of flight, they declared suitable 14.1.3. If class 3 the applicant notes that the hearing loss (HL) is 5 dB of the limit values in two or more test frequencies, then the pure tone audiometrij is carried out each year in the psychological assessment of 15 essential requirements requirements requirements 15.1 the health certificate holder or applicant must not be a psychological disorder that may affect the rights granted by the licence of a secure implementation. The main aviation medical examiner may require psychological assessment, if it is specified as part of the specialist conducted psychiatric or neurological examination or in addition to it (see 15.1.1) 15.1.1. If the main aviation medical examiner from an identifiable source get verifiable information that casts doubt on a particular individual's mental fitness or personality, must request a psychological assessment of the psychologist. The psychologist provides the key to aviation medical examiner written report, which details his views and recommendations. A psychological evaluation may include biographical data collection, professionalism and personality tests and psychological interview assignment 16. Dermatologic evaluation requirements Essential requirements 16.1. Special attention should be paid to such disturbances (see section 16.1.1.): 1) Eczema (exogenous or endogenous); 2) severe psoriasis (zvīņēd); 3) bacterial infections; 2) drug-induced rash; 5) bulloz rash; 6) hives; 7) malignant skin formations. Other skin disease: 1) acute or widespread chronic eczema, skin retikuloz, 2) 3) General aspects of dermatologic condition. Similar cases of the disease to be seen in the treatment and State of health.
16.1.1. a) any skin diseases that cause pain, discomfort, irritation or itching, can prevent the applicant from his duties and thereby affect the performance security; (b)) to any skin treatment using irradiation or Pharmacotherapy, is systemic effects that must be taken into account in the assessment of the adequacy of the provision before. In this case, apply the second pilot (class 1 "OML") or repeating the pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation; (c) where the applicant has) found a malignant melanoma, zvīņojoš cell, epiteliom Bowen disease (zvīņojoš the superficial cell carcinoma in situ) and Paget's disease, recognised as inappropriate. The applicant's main aviation medical examiner considers appropriate, if the skin lesions are totally izoperēt (if necessary) and further appropriate monitoring; (d) the basal cell of the epiteliom), Basal Cell Carcinoma, actinic keratoakantom or in the case of tenderers keratos main aviation medical examiner as suitable for treatment and (or) skin izoperēšan 17 in Oncologic evaluation requirements Essential requirements 17.1. malignancies treatment By the applicant can be approved as appropriate, if the situation is fully assessed pursuant to paragraph 17.1.1.17.1.1. a) the tenderer's main aviation medical examiner as suitable for If after treatment: 1) link to malignant diseases; 2) after treatment is the type of tumour has elapsed period; 3) risk that the flight could be incapacitated for a disease outbreak or metastases is minimal; 4) after treatment is not evidence of short-term or long-term complications. Special attention should be paid to the applicant that undergoing chemotherapy with anthracyclines group preparations; 5) with the main aviation medical experts agreed the following checks; b) Reaffirming or renewing a class 1 licence, suitable for the second pilot ("OML" 1. class), a class 2 licence to obtain a suitable backup of pilot (class 2 "OSL") limitation



Traffic Minister k. Gerhard Annex 8 of the Cabinet of Ministers of 2 February 2010. Regulations No 97 restrictions applicable name, opinion on the application of the restrictions on the health certificate the following limitation national agency of Civil Aviation Agency "apply to your medical certificate applied restriction (Restriction code wording) explanation date ___/___/____ ____ aviation medical examiner's signature * ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ aviation medical examiner's seal * note. the document properties "date", "signature" and "stamp" does not fill in, if an electronic document is drawn up according to the law on electronic document design.

Restrictions no restrictions apply to the BC Code Repeals 1. Certificate valid for TML … months/AeMC2/CAA3 AME1 CA 2. VDL Must wear corrective lenses, vision must be to spare the spectacle Kit AM/CA/CAA 3 AeMC. VML Must wear daudzfokāl glasses, must be to spare the spectacle Kit AM/CA/CAA 4 AeMC. VNL need glasses that adjust the Middle vision must be to spare the spectacle Kit AM/CA/CAA AeMC 5. CCL Must wear contact lenses must be to spare contact lens Kit AM/CA/CAA AeMC 6. Certificate valid only for VCL flights on the day 7 OML CAA4 CA valid as second pilot or in conjunction with a qualified second pilot CAA5 8. CAA5 OCL only valid as second pilot 9 OSL CA CA only valid in conjunction with other pilots and flights by aircraft equipped with dual control CAA CAA OAL Prohibited to drive 10 specific aircraft type CAA CAA OPL valid only 11 flights without passengers CAA CAA

12. CIRCLE valid only by using the appropriate prosthesis CAA CAA 13. AHL valid only by using the appropriate manual for the CAA CAA 14. SSL special restrictions CAA CAA 15. SIC special instructions – contact the CAA CAA CAA 16. RX required visual check at a specialist AM/CA CA AeMC/notes. 1 aviation medical examiner. 2 Aviation Medical Center. 3 the national agency of Civil Aviation Agency ". 4 If a class 2 licence for Visual colour perception does not meet the requirements of these provisions, restrictions apply to the CAA, AeMC, AM. 5 If pregnant, this limit applies to the CA, AeMC, cancel/AM. 1. Limit explanation LIKE "licence valid ____ ___ months." Period of validity of the certificate as aviation medical experts. The validity period begins on the date of the health inspection. The person must comply with all aviation medical expert recommendations and specific date due to repeated health check. 2. Limit VDL "to wear corrective lenses, vision must be to a spare set of glasses". To meet the vision requirements, the person exercising the rights granted by the licence, should be wearing glasses or contact lenses which adjusted remote defective eyesight and you checked the aviation medical examiner. The person must have a spare set of corrective glasses. If the person uses contact lenses, to be up on a spare set of glasses, as defined by the aviation medical examiner. A person may not use contact lenses until it has allowed the aviation medical examiner. Using contact lenses must be also spare glasses. 3. Limitation of VML-"daudzfokāl glasses should be worn, to be a spare set of glasses". To meet the vision requirements, the person exercising the rights granted by the licence, you must wear the glasses, which corrects a defective medium and the distant, the Middle sees that the test is confirmed by the medical examiner. Should not carry the contact lenses or glasses with frame that adjusts only the Middle vision. The person must also carry spare spectacles. 4. Limit VNL – "need glasses that adjust the Middle vision, and to spare the spectacle Kit". To meet the vision requirements, implementing the rights granted by the licence, should be up to the glasses, which corrects defective vision and passing the test is specified and certified by aviation medical expert. Should not carry the contact lenses or glasses with frame that adjusts only the Middle vision. The person must also carry spare spectacles. 5. Limitation of CCL-"to wear contact lenses, be to spare contact lens Kit". To meet the vision requirements, the person exercising the rights granted by the licence, you must use the contact lenses that corrected a defective medium and the distant, the Middle sees that the test is confirmed by the medical examiner. The person must also carry a spare set of contact lenses. 6. Limitation of the VCL-"certificate only valid for flights a day. The restriction applies only to a class 2 medical certificate holders. This requires that the privâtpilotu that have varying degrees of color vision disorder in certain circumstances can take flight. 7. Limitation of OML-"valid as second pilot or with qualified second pilot". Limit applies to crew members whose medical condition does not meet the medical requirements, to perform the single pilot operation of an aircraft which is suitable for the operation of an aircraft of the daudzpilot team. 8. Limitation of ocl-"valid only as the second pilot". The limit is the limit of the OML addition. It is applied in case the health certificate holder for medical reasons is recognised as suitable for the second pilot, but not recognised as suitable for the aircraft captain's duty. 9. the limit Oslo: "valid only with the second pilot flights with the aircraft, equipped with a dual leadership." Backup pilot must be qualified as the class/type of aircraft captain, he must be a qualifying mark, which gives the right to take flight in appropriate circumstances. This pilot should be in control of the seat and must be informed of the type (s) (s), the person concerned may become incapacitated and should be ready to take over control of the aircraft during the flight. 10. Limit oal-"forbidden to drive a certain aircraft type." This limitation can be applied to the pilot, who is missing a limb or has some other anatomical deficiency that after checking the flight or flight simulator has been recognized as acceptable to the limit that this pilot may drive only on certain aircraft types. 11. Limitation opl ' valid only on flights without passengers ". Restrictions may apply if the pilot is a skeletal or muscular disease or there are other medical conditions that may increase the risk for flight safety to such an extent that carrying passengers, such risk is not acceptable. 12. the limit circle – "valid only by using the appropriate prosthesis". This restriction applies as in OPL, this would be the case if the pilot of the missing limbs. 13. Limitation ahl ' valid only with a proper manual ". 14. Limitation of the ssl-"special restrictions". This restriction applies in cases that are not clearly defined in the rules, but which the State Agency "Civil Aviation Agency" believes that the restriction is necessary. 15. Limitation of sic ' special instructions – contact the national agency of Civil Aviation Agency "". " The restriction that the aviation medical examiner before the commencement of the medical assessment, related to health renewal, contact the national agency of Civil Aviation Agency ". The limit is primarily linked to the history of the aviation medical examiner must be informed before the launch of the health check. 16. Limitation of rx-"need a vision test at a specialist". If any essential reason is necessary to carry out inspections at the ophthalmologist, medical certificates shall indicate this limitation.
Traffic Minister k. Gerhard Annex 9. Cabinet of Ministers of 2 February 2010. the Regulation No. 97 health inspection report fill out this form completely and in capital letters Otorinolaringoloģisk ziņojumsAizpild checks this form completely and print checks the ziņojumsAizpild ophthalmological form completely and print traffic Minister k. Gerhard