Cabinet of Ministers Regulations No. 1370 in 2013 (November 26. No 63 17. §) amendments to the Cabinet of Ministers of 2 February 2010 No. 97 "the provisions of the Civil Aviation staff medical check-up, medical certificates, and Aero-medical centres Aero-medical expert certification" Issued in accordance with the law "on the air", article 18.7 second and third do cabinet 2010 February 2, Regulation No 97 "Civil Aviation staff medical check-up, medical certificates, and Aero-medical centres Aero-medical expert certification" (Latvian journal 21. No, 2010.) the following amendments: 1. Replace the words "in the text of the provisions of the aviation medical examiner's certificate" (fold) with the words "aviation medical examiner's certificate" (fold). 2. Make a point 2 as follows: "2. the National Agency for Civil Aviation Agency" (hereinafter referred to as the Civil Aviation Agency) certified aviation medical experts and aviation medical centres, as well as issue: 2.1. this rule 34.1, 34.2, 21.4.. and 34.5. the health certificate referred to in Commission 3 November 2011 of Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 on the technical requirements and administrative procedures for civil aviation flight crew under the regulation of the European Parliament and of the Council (EC) No 216/2008 (hereinafter Regulation No 1178/2011) HONEY. A. 040 point "f" in the cases prescribed in paragraph; 2.2. this rule 21.3. referred to in the medical certificate. " 3. Supplement to chapter I, paragraph 5.1 by the following: "5.1 the European Aviation Safety Agency the documents developed by Regulation No 866/requirements for 2011 –" The means of compliance and guidance. HONEY "(hereinafter Regulation No 1178/2011 MED part guidelines)," relevant means of compliance and guidance. With the part "(hereinafter Regulation No 1178/2011 with part of the guidelines) and" means of compliance and guidance. Ora part "(hereinafter Regulation No 1178/2011 OR part of guidelines) – have been translated into Latvian and published the Civil Aviation Agency's homepage on the internet (URwww.caa.lv)." 4. Make the following point 12: ' 12. Civil Aviation Agency within one month of receipt of the application, shall take a decision on the authorisation to carry out health checks, issued by a medical institution to the candidate: 12.1. aviation medical examiner's certificate under Regulation No 866/2011 with part VII of annex VI requirements contained in the appendix to the Regulation No. 1178/2011 with. Med. 200 point "b" in subparagraph 12.1.1. deadline: second class, the LAPL and aircraft cabin crew licence health health checks, if this provision is complied with 8 and 9 the requirements referred to in paragraph 1, as well as Regulation No. 1178/2011 MED. D. point and Regulation No 010.1178/2011 part guidelines AMC1 HONEY HONEY. D. the requirements referred to in paragraph 010; 12.1.2. first class health licence health checks, if you comply with Regulation No 866/2011 MED. D. point and Regulation No 015.1178/2011 part guidelines AMC1 HONEY HONEY. D. 015 of the type referred to in paragraph 1; 12.2. the aviation medical examiner's certificate (annex 2) for an indefinite period third grade health licence health checks, if this provision is complied with articles 8 and 9 of the type referred to in paragraph 1. " 5. Delete paragraph 13. 6. To express the point 14 and 15 by the following: "14. Aviation medical examiner's certificate that rule 12.1. persons referred to in subparagraph repeatedly issued pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 1178/2011 MED. D. the requirements referred to in paragraph 448 if the medical establishment in which the work of the aviation medical examiner, ensure that the aviation medical examiner certificate transactions while attending further training measures of Regulation No 1630/2011 part guidelines GM1 HONEY HONEY. D. the extent set out in paragraph 448. 15. Civil Aviation Agency at least once a year check the medical authorities and aviation medical examiner with: these provisions 15.1 the 8 and 9 point, Regulation No 866/2011 and Regulation No 1178/2011 part guidelines GM1 HONEY HONEY. D. the requirements referred to in paragraph 1, 030, if aviation medical examiner received this rule 12.1. the certificate referred to in point a; 15.2. the provision in paragraph 8 and 9 of these requirements, if the aviation medical examiner received this rule 12.2. the certificate referred to in point; ". 7. To express 17 as follows: "17. Civil Aviation Agency within three working days following that rule 16. the period referred to in paragraph 1 shall adopt a decision to cancel the aviation medical examiner's certificate, if not prevent the provisions of paragraph 15 of the said inspection found shortcomings." 8. Make the introductory paragraph 19 by the following: "19. Aviation Medical Center may become the medical establishment, which comply with the regulations set out minimum requirements for medical institutions, led by aviation medical expert and works for the following professionals:". 9. Supplement with 20.21. subparagraph by the following: "20.21. abdominal cavity organs ultrasound diagnostic device." 10. Express 21 as follows: "21. This provision 20.20 and 20.21.. the equipment referred to in point is not required if the medical establishment ensure that the use of the equipment in collaboration with certified laboratories or other treatment." 11. Make 25 and 26 points by the following: "25. Civil Aviation Agency within one month of receipt of the application, shall take a decision on the aviation medical centre certificate, if the medical establishment comply with these regulations in point 20, Regulation No 1178/2011 OR part at the bottom and AeMC Regulation No 1178/2011 OR part of the requirements of the guidelines. 26. the aviation medical centre certificate shall be issued in accordance with Regulation No 866/2011 ora. AeMC. 135 points and with part V of annex VI requirements contained in the Appendix. " 12. Add to 27 after the word "compliance" with the words and figures "Regulation No. 1178/2011, Regulation No 866/2011 OR part guidelines and". 13. Add to 28.2. section behind the words "this provision" with the words and figures "and Regulation No 1178/2011". 14. Express 31 the following: "31. for health certificate health certificate the applicant (hereinafter the applicant), arriving on a health check: 31.1. first class, second class and health certificates of the LAPL, submit: application under regulation 31.1.1. No. 1178/2011 with parts of the guidelines with the AMC1. Med. 135 point "a" to the requirements of point; 31.1.2. Regulation No. 1178/2011 annex IV, HONEY. A. 035 point "b" referred to in the document; 31.1.3. the psychiatrist's opinion on the State of health; 31.1.4. narkolog's opinion about the State of health; 31.2. the third grade and the aircraft cabin crew members in the health certificate: 31.2.1. presented identity documents; 31.2.2. submit application (annex 6); 31.2.3. submit family doctor's opinion about the State of health of the medical facts concerning personal and inherited history; 31.2.4. psychiatrists opinion on the State of health; 31.2.5. narkolog's opinion about the State of health. " 15. Replace paragraph 32 in numbers and words ", 19.5 and 19.6 31.3..." in figures and in words, 31.1.3 31.1.4., and in 31.2.5 31.2.4. ". 16. Make the following paragraph 34: "34. the health certificate shall be issued by: 34.1. first class medical certificate: 34.1.1. commercial; 34.1.2. airline transport pilots (pilots the plane or helicopter); 34.1.3. daudzpilot command pilots; 21.3. the second class medical certificate: 34.2.1. privâtpilotu; 34.2.2. glider pilots; 34.2.3. balloon pilots; 34.2.4. studentpilot, which claim to be the flight crew licence, which requires a second class medical certificate; 34.2.5. aviators – the radiotelephony operators; 34.2.6.-freight operators pilots; 34.2.7. pilots – observers; 34.2.8. parachute (instructors); 34.2.9. pilots-navigators; 34.2.9. flight-engineers; 3. a third class medical certificate-air traffic controllers; 21.4. the health certificates, the LAPL and recreational studentpilot who lays claim to the flight crew licence, which requires the LAPL class medical certificate; 34.5. the aircraft cabin crew medical certificates, aircraft cabin crew. " 17. Add to 35 and 36 points behind the numbers and the word "in" Annex 7 with the words and figures "or (B) of annex IV to Regulation bottom in Chapter 2 and 3, the bottom section 2 (C) and Regulation No. 1178/2011 MED parts B and C of the guidelines". 18. Replace the words "paragraph 37.2. second class" with the words "the second class, the LAPL and aircraft cabin crew". 19. Amend paragraph 38, the words "first, second and third class". 20. Make the following paragraph 39:39. "After health inspection aviation medical examiner or aviation Medical Center Manager sends the Civil Aviation Agency for information about: 24.3. first class, second class and health licence LAPL health inspection results according to Regulation No 866/2011 MED. A. point 025 and Regulation No 1178/2011 with part guidelines AMC1 With. Med. 135 points "a" with., AMC1 Med. 135 point "b" and "c" and point with GM1. Med. 135 point "b" and "c" under these requirements. 24.4. the aircraft cabin crew and third grade health licence health inspection results (annex 9). " 21. Make the paragraph 40 the introductory paragraph as follows: "40. This rule 21.3. the health certificate referred to in subparagraph shall include the following information:". 22. Supplement with 24.9 points as follows: "24.9 health certificates in accordance with Regulation No 866/2011 requirements issued by: 24.9 1. this rule 34.1, 34.2 and 21.4.. the health certificate referred to in point holders pursuant to Regulation No. 1178/2011 with part VI of the annex VI requirements contained in the Appendix; 2. this rule 34.5 24.9. the health certificate referred to in the holder pursuant to Regulation No. 1178/2011 guidelines AMC1 HONEY HONEY. (C) requirements referred to in paragraph 1, 030. " 23. Delete paragraph 41. 24. Make 42 as follows: "42. Health certificate validity period are as follows: 42.1. this rule 34.1, 34.2 and 21.4.. the health certificate referred to shall be valid under Regulation No 866/2011 annex IV, HONEY. A. 045 article expiry date; 26.2. the provisions referred to in paragraph 21.3. certificate is valid according to the Commission's 10 august 2011 Regulation (EU) No 805/2011, laying down detailed rules for the air traffic controller licences and certificates laid down under the regulation of the European Parliament and of the Council (EC) No 216/2008, set out in article 16 expiry date; 26.3. this rule 34.5. the health certificate referred to in paragraph (a) is valid for not more than 24 months. " 25. Delete paragraph 43. 26. Add to 46 after the word "Where" with the words "third class and the aircraft cabin crew". 27. Replace rule 30.8 in figure "14" with the number "21". 28. To supplement the provisions of the following paragraph 51: "51.49 and 50 of these rules shall not apply to paragraph first, second class and health certificate holders LAPL, which in the case of illness or injury, which include the inability to fulfil the aircraft crew on duty for at least 21 days long period, in addition to the provisions of Regulation No 1630/2011 MED. A. the turning point 020 aviation medical center or at the aviation medical expert. " 29. Replace annex 1 name the word "receipt" with the word "certificate". 30. Make 11 Annex 1. the introductory part of paragraph by the following: "Certificate of training measures, the attendance for the last three years (copy)". 31. Replace annex 1, paragraph 11, the words "referred to in the duration of the training course" by "training" the duration of the measure. 32. Replace annex 2, the word "proof" (fold) with the word "certificate" (fold). 33. Deletion of annex 4. 34. Deletion of annex 5. 35. Express 6, 7, 8 and 9 of the annex by the following: "6. the annex to Cabinet of Ministers of 2 February 2010. the Regulation No. 97 logo the national agency" Civil Aviation Agency "of the Republic of Latvia submission health certificate application relates to the aircraft cabin crew and a third-class medical certificate holders and applicants By filling out the information on the card is medical confidential shaded area of the table does not need to be completed (1) that issued a pilot certificate (2) the required health certificates, class 1 class 2 class 3 class LAPL GKSU (3) (4) previous (s) name (s) (12): first Re (5) name (s) (6) date of birth ____/____/____ ____ (7) gender (13) health certificate number, Man. Wife. (8) place of birth and citizenship of the State (9), (14) the necessary licence type (10) the declared place of residence address country phone email (11) the actual residence address (if different) the country phone (15) occupation (main occupation) (16) (17) to the employer in the previous health check date ____/____/____ ____ place (18) current (-o) pilot certificate (s), type the number of the licence issuing ____ ____ ____ (19) health certificate restrictions: not marked are notes (20) If you are refused , postponed or withdrawn the issuing medical certificates? Do not Have date ____/____/_____ ___ national ___ ___ ___ ___ notes (21) total flying hours (22) Flying hours since the last health check (23) Operational aircraft (24) or the period since the previous health check you've been involved in the aviation accident or incident? No Yes date ____/____/_____ ___ national ___ ___ ___ ___ notes (25) For the type of flight (26) current flight Vienpilot of Daudzpilot type (27) do you use alcohol? No Yes, specify the quantity (28) or currently taking any medications? No Yes, specify the name, dosage, use, date, reason (29) do you smoke? Never, no, the date when you will stop smoking ____/____/____ ____ Yes, specify the type and amount of overall and disease history or if you have or ever had any of the following diseases or their signs? If Yes, describe the column "comments" (30). Yes No Yes No Yes No family health history (170-179 p.) Yes No 101 eye diseases or eye surgical treatment 112 nose, throat diseases or speech disorders Malaria or other tropical 123 diseases 171 170 heart disease high blood pressure 102 Worn glasses and/or contact lenses 113 head injury or concussion of 124 positive HIV test 125 sexually transmitted disease high cholesterol 172 103 since the previous health check is drawn in the other glasses or contact lenses 114 frequent or intense headache 126 sleep apnea syndrome or sleep disorders Dizziness or epilepsy 173 115 fainting     174 Psychic disease 116 loss of Consciousness for any reason 127 musculoskeletal system disease diabetic 104 175 hay fever, other allergies 176 117 of neurological disease Tuberculosis (stroke, epilepsy, seizures, paralysis, etc.) 128 other illness or injury 177 Allergy/Asthma/eczema 105 asthma, lung disease, heart 106 or vascular disease hospitalization 129 178 Congenital diseases 118 any psychological mental disorder visit doctor-130 since the previous 179 glaucoma health check 107 elevated or lowered blood pressure 119Alkohol/drugs/other intoxicating substance abuse use 131 assurance refusal Only women 108 kidney stones or blood in the urine 132 licence refusal 109 diabetes hormonal disorders, attempted suicide 120 150 gynecological or menstrual cycle problems 121 seasickness, which need to use medications 133 Medical non-military service to the stomach, liver or 110 bowel disorders 134 pensions or compensation for an injury or sickness 151 are you pregnant? 111Vājdzirdīb and ear disease 122 anemia/sickle cell anemia/blood organ of another creative (30) notes. Specify if the information provided previously and since the previous health check does not change.  (31) the certification I certify that the information given in the application is complete and accurate, I'm not withheld relevant information and provided misleading information. I know that if I've made any false or misleading statements or have not agreed to make available the necessary medical information, the Civil Aviation Agency may refuse to issue a medical certificate to me. This application allows all the information made available to Civil Aviation Agency and, if necessary, to the other Member States the responsible aviation and medical institutions doing the medical assessment. This data is the property of the Civil Aviation Agency, they are confidential and available to me or to my treating physician of the Republic of Latvia, the law on the protection of personal data. ____/____/____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ___ (date) (signature of applicant) (aviation medical examiner's signature) Annex 7 of the Cabinet of Ministers of 2 February 2010. the Regulation No. 97 medical requirements for third-class medical certificate for 1. Cardiovascular System requirements Additional requirements 1.1. Initial health check out the standard 12 lead ECG recording rest position. Each health check ECG is done in accordance with 1.1.1. of this annex. First repeated health check health certificate holder shall take the aviation medical centre after reaching the age of 65. You can make a cardiologist, if this is allowed by the main aviation medical examiner. Physical tests with elektrokardiogrāfisk the controls in accordance with this annex, point 1.1.2 are required only when there is clinical indications. The level of serum lipids, including cholesterol, down to facilitate risk assessment, checking the health condition before the issue of a health certificate and do the first health check after 40 years of age, as well as if there are clinical indications referred to in paragraph 1.1.3. this annex 1.1.1. Health Certificate health certificate holder or applicant (hereinafter the applicant) every four years to 30 years of age, every two years after reaching the age of 30 and each health check after 40 years of age , as well as in cases where the clinical indications: a) 1.1.2. signs or symptoms, which leads to the suspicion of the heart-vascular diseases; (b) changes in the ECG of peace); (c) holders of medical certificates), reaching 65 years of age, every four years The candidates apply 1.1.3. multiple risk factors (such as smoking, health history, the inherited lipid level anomalies, hypertension). Aviation Medical Center or medical examiner performs cardiovascular assessment, informing the main aviation medical experts 1.2. health checks Each time measured blood pressure, using the method referred to in point 1.2.1. If your systolic pressure is constant during a health check in more than 160 mm Hg and diastolic pressure (or) exceed 95 mmHg irrespective of whether the applicant is or is not undergoing treatment, the applicant has been recognised as inappropriate. Arterial blood pressure normalizējoš therapy should not interfere with the rights granted by the licence and must comply with this annex, point 1.2.2. The applicant, which is symptomatic of the arterial hypotension, recognised as inappropriate 1.2.1. If diagnosed with hypertension, you need to check the other potential vascular risk factors. Systolic pressure recorded at the time when the tones of Korotkov (phase 1), diastolic pressure down the moment they disappear (phase 5). Blood pressure is measured twice. If the blood pressure is elevated and/or heart rate at rest is raised, during a check carried out additional studies 1.2.2. treatment Agent aligned with the main aviation medical examiner. Treatment may be used: (a)), diuretics (loop not diurētiķ); (b)) but the blockers (mainly hidrofīl); c) angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors; d) Angiotensin II receptor blockers in the first type (sartān); e) slow calcium channel blockers 1.3. If myocardial ischemia is suspected, further examinations of the applicant. The applicant, who has a small asymptomatic coronary artery disease, it is not necessary to treat the main aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable, if the examination referred to in paragraph 1.3.1., obtained satisfactory results. If this annex 1.3.1. referred to investigation indicates a myocardial ischemia or significant coronary artery stenosis, the applicant has been recognised as inappropriate. Applicants who have symptomatic coronary artery disease or cardiac symptoms, which are controlled by medication, recognised as inappropriate. An applicant who has a history of cardiac ischaemic attack (myocardial infarction, stenocardia, arrhythmia or ischemia induced heart failure or myocardial revaskularizācij), recognised as inappropriate. Pursuant to paragraph 1.3.2., Chief aviation medical examiner, applicants, health check can be considered suitable if you need to extend the period of validity of the certificate of health or it should be issued. 1.3.1. If there is a suspicion of asymptomatic coronary artery disease or peripheral artery disease, perform physical tests with elektrokardiogrāfisk control under this annex, paragraph 1.3.2., and, if necessary, additional tests (myocardial perfusion scintigraphy, stress ehokardiogrāfij, coronary artery angiography or equivalent examination) After ischaemic cardiac 1.3.2 of the attacks, including revaskularizācij or peripheral artery disease, the applicant who does not have a pronounced symptoms, limited vascular risk factors. The administration of cardiac symptoms control. The applicant made a secondary disease prevention therapy. One of the major arteries, in none of the venous or arterial shunt and not one from a previous angioplasty or stents implanted in a place other than a vessel, which was the reason he had a myocardial infarction, may not be a coronary artery stenoses that exceed 50% of the diameter of the blood vessels. It is not permissible in cases in which the coronary tree is more than two, the stenosis is 30-50% of the diameter of the blood vessels. A cardiologist can recognize all the coronary tree as satisfactory by addressing multiple stenosis and (or) for multiple-revaskularizācij. The left coronary artery or proximal common trunk in left descending coronary artery part may not be treated for stenosis, which exceeds 30% of the diameter of the blood vessels. Not earlier than six months after myocardial ischemia of cardiac attacks, including revaskularizācij, the following studies: a) the physical load tests with ECG monitoring (symptoms determined by the Bruce Protocol stage 4 or an equivalent Protocol). The results may not be a sign of myocardial ischemia or heart rhythm disorders; (b)) an Echocardiogram (or equivalent tests). It must produce a satisfactory left ventricular function for myocardial motion without significant interference (diskinēzij, akinēzij) and left ventricular ejection fraction of at least 50% and more; c) if previously made angioplasty or stent implanted, the myocardial perfusion scintigraphy or stress ehokardiogrāfij (or equivalent examination). The results may not be a sign of transient myocardial ischemia. Perfusion scintigraphy carried out also in other cases (myocardial infarction or after the shunt aortokoronār position), if there is suspicion of myocardial perfusion; (d) additional examinations required) to assess significant rhythm disturbances. The following checks must be carried out once a year (or more often if so determined by the Chief of the aviation medical examiner), to ensure that the cardiovascular system condition does not worsen. They include specialist inspections, physical exertion tests with ECG monitoring and cardiovascular risk assessment. Based on the main aviation medical expert opinion, can identify additional studies. If after coronary artery vein shunt are the indications, must take the myocardial perfusion scintigraphy (or equivalent tests). In all other cases, the following checks must be carried out within five years after the procedure. If any signs or symptoms, non-invasive study results indicate myocardial ischemia, coronary artery angiography should be considered or equivalent inspection. If after six months for test successfully, the applicant's main aviation medical examiner may recognise as eligible to obtain a certificate of the applicant that 1.4 is distinctly supraventrikulār rhythm disorders including intermittent or persistent sinus node syndrome, weakness is recognised as inappropriate (see 1.4.1. of this annex). Applicants who are asymptomatic sinus bradycardia or sinus tachycardia may be recognised as eligible if it has no any other pamatsaslimšan. Applicants who are asymptomatic individual or ventricular supraventrikulār of the monoform ekstrasistol, may be recognised as suitable. Frequent or complex forms is then made complete cardiac evaluation under 1.4.1. of this annex. The applicant, which is a part of the amalgamated His stand for a blockade or stable heart electric axis deviation to the left may be recognised as eligible if it has no other pathology. Health tests you need to perform a cardiac assessment, the applicant if it has the full right of amalgamated His legs blockade (see 1.4.1. of this annex) ("c"). The applicant, which is full of His left legs of amalgamated blockade, recognised as inappropriate (see 1.4.1. of this annex) ("d"). The applicant, who has a first degree in the blockade and Mobic atrioventrikulār type 1 atrioventrikulār of the blockade, could become appropriate if no other pamatsaslimšan. The applicant, which is a type 2 or Mobic full atrioventrikulār the blockade is considered inappropriate (see 1.4.1. of this annex). Where the applicant has a wide and (or) a narrow QRS complex tachycardia is considered inappropriate (see 1.4.1. of this annex). A tenderer who has ventricular preeksitācij syndrome, recognised as inappropriate (see 1.4.1. " (e) "). The applicant that the pacemaker implanted in endokardiāl, recognized as appropriate (see 1.4.1.). Applicants who underwent ablation therapy is considered inappropriate (see 1.4.1.). 1.4.1. Significant heart rhythm or conduction disturbance valued cardiologist and where the applicant is deemed to be appropriate, appropriate follow-up observations: (a) the assessment shall include the following: 1)) physical load tests with the ECG control according to the Bruce Protocol or an equivalent protocol. The examination must be of the maximum load or symptom limited. The indicators must satisfy the Bruce Protocol 4. stage, and they may not produce significant heart rhythm or conduction abnormalities or myocardial ischemia. The main aviation medical expert can determine the required use of the medicinal product before the test, which affects the cardiovascular system; 2) 24-hour ambulatory ECG, the results of which may not produce significant heart rhythm or conduction disturbances; two-dimensional Doppler Echocardiogram in 3), the results of which may not be able to produce a significant increase in the individual heart cavities or significant organic or functional anomalies. Left ventricular ejection fraction must be at least 50%; (b)) may be included in the supplementary estimates: 1) repeated 24-hour ECG recording; 2) elektrofizioloģisk study; 3) myocardial perfusion scintigraphy or equivalent; 4) cardiac magnetic resonance examination or equivalent; 5) coronary artery angiogramm or equivalent test (see 1.3.2); c) atrial fibrillation/flutter in the first case the health check, the person who has had only one case, not an arrhythmia can occur, the main aviation medical expert could become appropriate. The main aviation medical examiner, the applicant can be approved as suitable for the issue of licences and certificates to issue repeated, if the applicant is under the age of 40 years or if the applicant is older than 40 years and the stability of the situation in the 12-month period; d) applicant older than 40 years, carried out the investigation of the coronary arteries. The applicant can be approved as suitable, where stability is observed for at least a period of three years; (e) applicants with) asymptomatic, preeksitācij syndrome, the main aviation medical examiner may apply if the elektrofizioloģisk study, including adequate drug autonomous nervous system stimulation, agitation of not found inducējam circulation type (re-entry) tachycardia and have turned off several additional driving path existence; f) may be recognised as suitable for the applicant, not earlier than three months after the operation, if: 1) there are no other diskvalificējoš conditions; 2) electrode system is bipolar; 3) applicant is not dependent on the pacemaker; 4) to regular checking again, including a pacemaker check; 5) according to this annex, paragraph 1.4.1. "a" section requires the applicant to perform cardiac assessment; 6) reissue a health certificate; (g) the health certificate holder) or an applicant who successfully underwent treatment and elektrofizioloģisk in the katetrablācij study carried out not earlier than two months after the ablation, obtained satisfactory results, may be recognised as eligible. If invasive or non-invasive examination of the way it is not possible to determine the result in the long run, the main aviation medical examiner determined the applicant to make further examinations of applicants that 1.5 is peripheral artery disease (before or after surgery), recognised as inappropriate. If no significant functional impairment, the applicant can be approved as a suitable subject to this annex 1.3.1 and 1.3.2.. A tenderer who has thoracic or abdominal aortic aneurysm (before or after surgery), recognised as inappropriate. Having health checks, see 1.5.1. of this annex. The applicant, which is essential for heart valve abnormality is considered inappropriate. The applicant, who has a small heart valve abnormality may be recognised as suitable for under 1.5.2. of this annex. Applicants who underwent heart valve replacement/valvuloplastik, recognised as inappropriate. The applicant can be approved as suitable according to 1.5.3. of this annex. The applicant, which is carried out for systemic anticoagulant therapy is considered inappropriate. The applicant can be approved as a suitable anticoagulant therapy after completion according to this annex, point 1.5.4. Where the applicant has the pericardial or myocardial endokard, a pathology that is not mentioned in this annex shall be recognised as inappropriate. The applicant can be approved as suitable after full cure and cardiac assessment (see 1.5.5. of this annex). The applicant, who has a congenital heart anomaly (before or after corrective surgery), recognised as inappropriate. At the heart of the study on the application of the applicant may be recognized, who has a small heart anomaly (see section 1.5.6. of this annex). The applicant, who performed the heart or heart/lung transplantation is considered inappropriate. Applicants who have had a history of repeated vazovagāl of the sinkop recognised as inappropriate. Suitable candidates may be recognised by a complete evaluation in accordance with this annex, point 1.5.1 to 1.5.7. Main aviation medical expert could become suitable candidates, which has an aneurysm in the aorta surgery below the renal arteries leaves the site. If necessary, determine further studies. If, after the aneurysm in the aorta below the renal arteries departure location is izoperēt, no complications and cardiovascular assessment has been made, the applicant may be recognised as suitable for: (a) the tenderer 1.5.2.) that has a double valve aortāl may be appropriate in the absence of other heart or aorta anomaly. If necessary, the main aviation medical examiner determines further verification of ehokardiogrāfisk; (b) applicants with) the aortic stenosis, health screening coordinated with the main aviation medical examiner. Left ventricular function must be intakt. The applicant, which is systemic embolism or thoracic aortic dilation history recognised as inappropriate. Applicants whose average pressure fluctuations is 20 mm Hg, be recognised as appropriate. The applicant, that the average pressure fluctuations greater than 20 mm Hg, but not more than 40 mm Hg may be recognised as eligible. The mean pressure fluctuations up to 50 mm Hg levels, taking into account the main aviation medical expert opinion. The main aviation medical examiner may determine the future of two-dimensional Doppler ehokardiogrāfij examination; (c)), which has candidates in aortāl regurgitation may be recognised as eligible only if it is insignificant. Two-dimensional Doppler ehokardiogrāfij must not show any abnormalities of the aortic ascendējoš. If necessary, the main aviation medical examiner may determine additional checks; (d)), which has candidates of rheumatic mitral valve disease, recognized as appropriate; e) mitral valve prolapse/mitral regurgitation. Applicants who are asymptomatic in isolated mezosistolisk click the main aviation medical expert can recognize and identify the appropriate periodic inspections and additional studies; (f)), which found the applicant left ventricular volume overload, which shows increased left ventricular end-diastole, the size is recognised as inappropriate. The main aviation medical examiner may determine additional periodic inspections and examinations; (g)), which has the applicant previously undetected heart noises, assesses the cardiologist. If they are important, additional studies including at least two-dimensional Doppler ehokardiogrāfij: (a) the applicant for 1.5.3.) to which the implanted motor valves, may be recognised as suitable for anticoagulant therapy is, if matched with the cardiologist; b) tenderers, who has a heart valve, not the orthosis symptoms and no earlier than six months after the operation has been carried out in the study, which found that of valvular and ventricular configuration and operation is normal may be recognised as suitable, taking into account the following criteria: 1) satisfactory physical load tests using the ECG control symptoms down the Bruce Protocol stage 4 or an equivalent protocol that, in accordance with the interpretation of the cardiologist shows no significant abnormalities. Myocardial scintigraphy/stress ehokardiogrāfij required if peace sign position, ECG anomalies are presented and found to coronary artery disease (see 1.3.1 1.3.2 of this annex, and 1.4.1.); 2) two-dimensional Doppler Echocardiogram did not show a significant increase of individual heart cavities, heart valve defects of structural bioprotēz is minimal, doplerogrāfisk in a specific blood flow is normal, and no structural nor functional abnormality of other heart valve. Left ventricular fractional shortening function to be normal; 3 not detected) coronary artery disease when satisfactory obtained revaskularizācij (see 1.4.1. of this annex); 4) do not need to use medications that affect the cardiovascular system; 5) if necessary, the main aviation medical examiner determined further physical tests with ECG monitoring and two-dimensional Doppler ehokardiogrāfij examination in 1.5.4. applicants who have a venous thrombosis or pulmonary artery embolism, recognised as inappropriate to anticoagulant therapy is stopped. In the case of lung embolij need a complete health assessment. The applicant, which is carried out for systemic anticoagulant therapy of arterial trombembolij of possible treatment, may be recognised as suitable for cure and complete the cardiac assessment after satisfactory Cardiovascular assessment includes 1.5.5. two-dimensional Doppler ehokardiogrāfij, the physical exertion tests with ECG monitoring and (or) myocardial scintigraphy/stress ehokardiogrāfij and 24-hour ambulatory ECG and coronary artery angiography 1.5.6. the main aviation medical expert can declare the applicant suitable for If these States are functionally insignificant and the applicant is not required to use medication, is of a satisfactory cardiac evaluation, which includes the two-dimensional Doppler ehokardiogrāfij, physical exertion tests with ECG monitoring and 24-hour ambulatory ECG. The main aviation medical examiner determined the frequency of future health checks for 1.5.7. The tenderer shall carry out the following checks: 1) 12 lead ECG load condition where symptoms down the Bruce Protocol stage 4 or an equivalent protocol. According to the results EHN's interpretation shows no abnormalities. If the State of the peace sign in the ECG shows a deviation from the norm, you must complete a myocardial scintigraphy/stress ehokardiogrāfij; 2) two-dimensional Doppler Echocardiogram. It does not produce nor significant individual heart cavities, or structural or functional heart, valvular or myocardial abnormalities; 3) 24-hour ambulatory ECG. It does not produce nor heart conduction disturbance, nor complex or chronic heart rhythm disorders or myocardial ischemia; 4) may include a sloping desk test according to the standard protocol. As a result, in accordance with the interpretation of the cardiologist shows no signs of vazomotor instability; 5) need a neurologist assessment 2. Respiratory system requirements 2.1. Essential requirements in each health check out the chest x-ray of a posterior-anterior position (see section 2.1.1 of this annex). Pulmonary functional investigation conducted first during the health check and health check, if there is clinical indications (see 2.1.2 of this annex). The applicant, which is relevant to lung disorders, recognised as inappropriate. The applicant, who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease recognised as inappropriate. Applicants that are not expressed in lung disorders may be recognised as eligible (see section 2.1.3. of this annex) of the posterior thorax radiography 2.1.1-anterior position take not more than once a year, if it is clinical or epidemiological grounds 2.1.2. Spirometrisk investigation requires first health check certificates. If the FEV1/FVC ratio is less than 70%, the result should be evaluated for pulmonolog 2.1.3. After full recovery, and after satisfactory evaluation of respiratory 2.2. tenderers who have asthma and need to use the medicine, valued according to point 2.2.1. of this annex. Applicants who have an active inflammatory disease of the respiratory system, recognised as inappropriate (see 2.2.2. of this annex). Applicants that are active, sarkoidoz recognised as inappropriate (see 2.2.3. of this annex). An applicant who has a spontaneous pneimotoraks, recognized as appropriate until the situation is fully assessed according to 2.2.4. of this annex. The tenderer that has active tuberculosis, recognized as appropriate until the situation is fully assessed pursuant to this annex, section 2.2.5. The applicant, who has pulmonary emphysema, recognised as inappropriate. Applicants may apply if his health may be affected by the implementation of the rights conferred by the licence. Applicants who require chest surgery, recognised as inappropriate, at least until three months after the operation or until the consequences of the operation can not be affected by the implementation of the rights granted by the licence (see 2.2.6. of this annex). The applicant, which is not enough to treat sleep apnea syndrome, recognized as appropriate: (a) the tenderer 2.2.1), which observed the repeated asthma attacks, considers to be inappropriate; (b) the main applicant) aviation medical expert could become a suitable licence, if his condition pulmonary functional investigation considered stable and medicines used does not affect the rights granted by the licence (not used for systemic glucocorticosteroid) 2.2.2 primary aviation medical examiner, the applicant can be approved as a suitable and complete cure of satisfactory assessment of the respiratory system 2.2.3. Main aviation medical examiner, the applicant can be approved as a suitable where: (a)), to exclude investigated systemic disease process; (b)), the hīl disease Lymphadenopathy, recognized as inactive, and the applicant does not require drug treatment: (a) the tenderer 2.2.4) completely become healthier after one spontaneous pneimotoraks, they can be declared following the satisfactory assessment of the respiratory system no earlier than one year after the pneimotoraks; (b)) having an approval or a renewal, a major aviation medical expert can declare the applicant suitable where the applicant within a period of six weeks quite well after one spontaneous pneimotoraks; (c)), which has the applicant repeated spontaneous pneimotoraks recognised as inappropriate. The applicant's main aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable for after the surgery and recovery is satisfactory 2.2.5. Tenderer's main aviation medical examiner may be declared fit after a successful medical treatment of the respiratory system and a satisfactory assessment of the Applicants at ftiziatr 2.2.6. which made pneimonektomij, recognised as inappropriate. Applicants who made the chest surgery, Chief aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable for the complete recovery and a satisfactory assessment of the respiratory system digestive system 3 Essential requirements 3.1. A tenderer who is a recurrent disease of dispeptisk and use zāles or who has pancreatitis, recognised as inappropriate until the State fully assessed according to point 3.1.1 of this annex. The applicant, who accidentally discovered asymptomatic gallstones are, evaluate the situation according to point 3.1.2. of this annex. The applicant, who diagnosed a chronic inflammatory bowel disease or a history of such a case is considered inappropriate (see 3.1.3. of this annex). An applicant who has a hernia that might interfere with the rights granted by the licence, recognised as inappropriate. The tenderer that has complications after the digestive tract or its suffix diseases or surgical operations, in particular with respect to the obstruction of the strictures or compression which would interfere with the rights granted by the licence, recognised as inappropriate. The applicant, who has carried out the digestive tract or its suffix operations that includes complete or partial organ ekscīzij or stoma, recognised as inappropriate, at least up to three months or until the consequences of the operation can not be affected by the implementation of the rights granted by the licence (see 3.1.4. of this annex): (a) 3.1.1) the tenderer that has repeatedly dispeptisk disorder and needs medical treatment, a physical examination; (b) the applicant having) pancreatitis, recognised as inappropriate. The main aviation medical examiner, the applicant may apply if you've eliminated the causes of obstruction (e.g. medicine, gallstones); (c)) where alcohol may be the cause of dyspepsia and pancreatitis, you must perform a complete abuse of the substance use/use of assessment to which the tenderer 3.1.2 is one of the great žultsakmen, the Chief of asymptomatic aviation medical expert could become appropriate. The tenderer that has multiple asymptomatic gallstones, Chief of the aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable for inflammatory bowel disease 3.1.3 is permissible, if found to be in remission and stabilisation and to control it, you do not need to use any glucocorticosteroid in systemic 3.1.4. Tenderer's main aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable for the licence or renewal for re-approval, if recovery is complete, the applicant shall not express symptoms and minimal secondary complications or the repeated risk of disease, diet, Metabolism 4. endocrine system and Essential requirements 4.1 an applicant that has metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunction considered inappropriate (see 4.1.1. of this annex). The applicant, who has diabetes, may be recognised as suitable, if the situation is fully assessed pursuant to this annex, point 4.1.2 and 4.1.3. The applicant, who has diabetes and takes insulin injections, recognised as inappropriate. Applicants whose body mass index is 35, may be recognised as eligible only if the overweight may not affect the rights granted by the licence and has conducted cardiovascular risk assessment (see 9.1.1. of this annex) 4.1.1. main Applicant aviation medical examiner may apply if the condition is asymptomatic, clinically compensated and stable, with or without replacement, and it regularly checks the medical specialist 4.1.2. Glikozūrij and glucose level anomalies in the blood to investigate. The applicant's main aviation medical expert could become appropriate if normal glucose tolerance (low renal threshold) or if the reduced glucose tolerance without diabetic pathology is of fully controlled with diet and regular checks are carried out, which the applicant 4.1.3 treatment used in antidiabetic drugs, recognised as inappropriate. In some cases, biguanīd or alfaglikozidāz inhibitors are to be permitted, and the applicant's main aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable for Basic Hematology 5 requirements 5.1. each health check determines the level of haemoglobin. The applicant, who found in the hemoglobin level anomalies, further studies. The applicant, which the haematocrit is less than 32% is considered inappropriate (see 5.1.1 of this annex). The applicant, who has sickle cell anemia, recognised as inappropriate (see 5.1.1 of this annex). The applicant, who has a significant local or generalized lymph node enlargement and blood system diseases recognised as inappropriate (see 5.1.2. of this annex). The applicant, who has acute and chronic leukemia, recognised as inappropriate (see 5.1.3. of this annex). Applicants that are expressed in the increase of lean, recognised as inappropriate (see 5.1.4. of this annex). The applicant, who has expressed policitēmij, recognized as appropriate (see 5.1.5. of this annex). The applicant, which is a measure of blood clotting disorders, recognised as inappropriate (see 5.1.6. of this annex) 5.1.1 anemia as indicated by reduced haemoglobin level, to investigate. The applicant, who has incurable anemia, recognised as inappropriate. The applicant's main aviation medical expert could become appropriate if the primary cause of the disease are satisfactory treatment (such as iron or B12 deficiency) and haematocrit levels have stabilised above 32% or if diagnosed with minor Thalassemia or hemoglobinopātij without crisis history and the applicant shall present the full functional capability of the tenderer's main 5.1.2 aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable for acute infectious process in the event that the applicant is fully healed Hodgkin Lymphoma, or and high malignancy in Hodgkin Lymphoma Not appropriate, which is treated and found to be in complete remission 5.1.3. principal Applicant aviation medical examiner may apply if a remission of the disease detected or is chronic leukaemia, but there is no history of central nervous system involvement and the lasting side effects during treatment, which could affect flight safety. Hemoglobin and platelet levels shall be satisfactory. Requires regular inspection 5.1.4 further applicant main aviation medical expert could become appropriate if the increase is minimal lean, robust and not the pathology associated with it (for example, treat the chronic malaria), or if the increase is minimal and is associated with some other acceptable situation (such as Hodgkins Lymphoma in remission) 5.1.5. Tenderer's main aviation medical examiner may apply if position is sound and not related pathology 5.1.6. tenderers main aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable for If history had not been serious bleeding or blood clotting disorder cases 6. Urīnizvadsistēm essential requirements 6.1 the applicant for which the observed organic kidney disease symptoms, recognised as inappropriate. Each medical check-ups carried out at the time of the urine. The urine must not contain any abnormal elements that point to a pathology. Special attention should be paid to the disease, which affects the urīnizvadceļ and the genitals (see 6.1.1. of this annex). The tenderer that has urīnizvadceļ stones, recognized as appropriate until the situation is fully assessed according to point 6.1.2 of this annex. The tenderer that has complications after kidney or urīnizvadceļ disease or surgical operations, in particular with respect to the obstruction, strictures or compression, which could make the applicant incapacitated, recognised as inappropriate. The tenderer that has offset the position after frektomij and not in the arterial hypertension or urēmij, may be recognised as eligible under subparagraph 6.1.3. of this annex. Where the applicant has made or urīnizvadorgān of urinary surgery, which includes all or part of an organ of the ekscīzij or stoma, recognised as inappropriate, at least up to three months or until the consequences of the operation can not be affected by the implementation of the rights granted by the licence (see 6.1.3 and 6.1.4 of this annex) 6.1.1. Abnormal urine analysis of found to investigate (e.g. proteinuria stratum prematurely disrupted, hematūrij and glukozūrij) for an applicant with asymptomatic 6.1.2., nierakmen that history has had kidney stones or residue of kolik, Chief aviation medical examiner may be recognised as eligible if it relates to a licence or renewal of re-approval 6.1.3. applicants who have undergone uroloģisk surgery, recognised as inappropriate for at least three months (see 6.1 of this annex). The applicant's main aviation medical examiner may apply if the applicant has no symptoms and secondary complications or recurrent disease risk is minimal 6.1.4. The applicant considers inappropriate for first certificate, if it has undergone a kidney transplant or a complete cistektomij. Inspections related to the certificates of approval or renewal again, applicants, Chief aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable for the following cases: (a) kidney transplant) is fully compensated, and the body accepts it, using the minimum of imūnsupresīv therapy after at least 12 months; (b) complete with functional cistektomij) in a satisfactory condition, not disease, infection or primary pathology characteristics 7. Sexually transmitted diseases and other infections Essential requirements 7.1 HIV blood tests tested first during a health check and checking again, where are the clinical indications (see 7.1.1 and 7.1.2 of this annex). Blood tests carried out a first test of the SED in the health of the test and retest period, when there is clinical indications (see 7.1.3. of this annex). Applicants that are observed or history of clinical symptoms that indicate immune system deficiency or infectious hepatitis, recognised as inappropriate (see 7.1.4. of this annex) 7.1.1. applicants who are HIV positive are recognised as inappropriate 7.1.2. Inspections related to the certificates of approval or renewal again, Chief aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable for the HIV-positive person in determining the test with the series of three months (basic analysis also, CD-4 and T-cell count) and with an interval of six months (the general health of the test must be carried out at infektolog). AIDS or AIDS related complications appearance of applicants recognised as inappropriate 7.1.3. Applicants with acute syphilis is considered inappropriate. The applicant's main aviation medical examiner may be recognised as eligible if it after the full course of treatment is quite well from the primary and secondary stages 7.1.4. Tenderer's main aviation medical expert can recognize appropriate after full investigation and assessment of the situation of the obstetrics and gynaecology 8 Essential requirements 8.1. applicants whose history is hard, crippling the menstrual cycle disorders, recognised as inappropriate. Applicants who are approved for pregnancy is considered inappropriate (see 8.1.1. of this annex). Applicants who underwent gynecological surgery, recognised as inappropriate for at least three months or until the consequences of the operation can not be affected by the implementation of the rights conferred by the licence (see 8.1.2 of this annex.) 8.1.1. If according to the opinion of the gynecologist pregnancy occurs without pathology, Chief aviation medical expert can recognize the health certificate holder suitable for up to 34 weeks of pregnancy to the end. Licence renewed after confirmation that the holder has fully recovered after childbirth or pregnancy termination 8.1.2. Inspections related to the certificates of approval or again, applicants for renewal main aviation medical examiner may apply if there are no symptoms, and if a secondary complication or recurrent disease risk is minimal 9. Skeletal-muscle system assessment requirements Essential requirements 9.1. applicants must have sufficient length to a limb and muscle force for the implementation of the rights granted by the licence (see 9.1.1). The applicant, after which bone, joint, muscle or tendon disease or injury is incurred significant complications or who has a congenital bone, joint, muscle or tendon pathologies, evaluated according to 9.1.1 9.1.2 in this annex, and paragraph 9.1.3 9.1.1. If the applicant is a pathological structure, including constitutional obesity or muscle weakness, a need to carry out work and the simulator. Particular attention must be paid to emergency procedures and evacuation 9.1.2. If the applicant is missing some limbs, Chief aviation medical expert can declare the applicant suitable for inspections related to the certificates of approval or renewal again, if successful in the examination and the simulator 9.1.3 Applicants that are inflammatory, infiltratīv, traumatic or degenerative skeletal muscle system-disease, Chief aviation medical examiner may apply if the disease is in remission State, the applicant uses the main aviation medical expert and is recommended by the successful testing and simulator assessment 10 psychiatric requirements Essential requirements 10.1. The applicant, who found šizotipisk or stop being so damned paranoid schizophrenia, a disorder considered inappropriate (see 10.1.1. of this annex). The applicant, who diagnosed mood disorders, recognised as inappropriate (see 10.1.2. of this annex). Applicants who found neurotic, stress-induced, somatoform, personality or organic damages, mental disorder, caused by the recognised as inappropriate (see 10.1.3. of this annex). The applicant, who has a mental or behavioural disorder resulting from alcohol or other substance use (with or without the addiction), recognised as inappropriate (see this annex 10.1.4) 10.1.1. Tenderer's main aviation medical examiner may apply if found that the initial diagnosis had been inadequate or flawed, or if the applicant had one instance of delirium (provided that no permanent damage incurred) 10.1.2. Tenderer's main aviation medical expert can be declared following the case of a complete evaluation (depending on the mood disorder nature and seriousness) and after a certain period of time has stopped all psychotropic medicines 10.1.3. applicants whose history has been one pašdestruktīv action or repeated intentional bodily harm himself recognised as inappropriate. The applicant's main aviation medical expert can be declared following the case of a complete evaluation, and may require the applicant to make a psychologist or psychiatrist neuropsychological assessment of principal Applicant 10.1.4 aviation medical examiner may be declared fit after a two-year period in which the documented sobriety or liberation from the use of the substance concerned. Inspections related to the certificates of approval or renewal again, you can declare the applicant suitable. Depending on the individual case and in accordance with the main aviation medical examiner's instructions for treatment and verification may include: a) few weeks long hospital treatment; (b)) a psychiatrist for inspection; c) further investigations, including blood test and specialist reports, and this is not a limited time 11. Neurological assessment requirements Essential requirements 11.1 the applicant with that disease, recognized as appropriate: 1) the progressive disease of the nervous system; 2) epilepsy and other reasons, caused disturbance of consciousness; 3) illness in a predisposed to brain dysfunction (see 11.1.1. of this annex). Additional checks shall be carried out if the applicant has: 1) head injury; 2) spinal cord or peripheral nerve damage (see 11.1.2. of this annex). If necessary, in the light of the applicant's medical or clinical signs, take the elektroencefalogrāfij (see 11.1.1 and 11.1.2. of this annex): (a) the tenderer 11.1.1) that is not progressive or progressive disease of the nervous system that has caused or could cause disability, recognised as inappropriate. After a full evaluation of the State of the main aviation medical expert can declare the applicant suitable if the functional incapacity are small and not connected with the progressive disease; (b)) if there has been a history of one or more disorders of consciousness, the cause of which is unclear, they are to be considered as a factor of diskvalificējoš. If you had only one such disturbance of consciousness that can adequately explain the applicant's main aviation medical examiner may be recognised as eligible; (c)) in which the applicant found a paroksismāl epileptoform electroencephalogram activity and focal slow waves, recognised as inappropriate. Further consideration of such cases, take the main aviation medical examiner; (d) that the applicant) diagnosed with epilepsy, recognized as appropriate except if proved that it is a benign childhood epileptic syndrome associated with a very low risk of recurrence, and if more than 10 years had not been repeated seizures, and treatment is stopped for more than 10 years ago. Applicants who have had one or more instances of seizures after age 5, recognised as inappropriate. The applicant's main aviation medical expert could become appropriate if, based on the opinion of a neurologist, has very low acute symptomatic seizure recurrence and risk; e) if the applicant has been one of epileptoform bezdrudž type, which is not repeated for at least 10 years, since the end of the treatment, and if not a prolonged epileptic symptoms, their predisposition may apply if further seizure risk minimal 11.1.2. Head injury with loss of consciousness, or penetration of the brain damage, neurosurgeon should be assessed, and neurologists. The applicant may apply only after full recovery and if the risk of epilepsy have low 11.1.3. If the applicant had a history of spinal cord or peripheral nerve damage, be assessed in accordance with paragraph 9 of this annex 12. Ophthalmological assessment requirements Essential requirements 12.1. check first time applicants to the ophthalmological examination is carried out by ophthalmologist (see 12.1.1. of this annex). Repeated health examination during investigation carried out ophthalmological aviation medical examiner (see 12.1.2. of this annex). All the cases outstanding or cases if detected anomalies, assesses the ophthalmologist. If the health certificate holder or applicant's vision of the function of standards (6/9 (0,7), 6/6 (1,0), N14, N5) meet only with corrective lenses and refractive disorders exceeds ± 3 diopters, the Tenderer shall submit the aviation medical expert ophthalmologist inspection report. If refraction disorder is from + 5 to-6 dioptres, this check must be carried out within 60 months before general health checks. If the refractive disorders does not meet the following diopter, this check must be carried out within a period of 24 months before health checks (see section 12.1.3. of this annex). The applicant after 40 years of age every two years to make tonometrij (the applicant may submit to the Chief of the aviation medical examiner proof of tonometrij's test carried out not earlier than 24 months before the health checks). If for some reason you need ophthalmological examination at specialist, health certificate shall mark the "RX". The applicant after refractive surgical correction are recognised as inappropriate until the situation is fully assessed under 12.1.4. of this annex. Applicants who made cataract, retinal, glaucoma or other ophthalmological surgery, recognised as inappropriate. Inspections related to the certificates, the applicant again may be recognised as eligible under 12.1.5. of this annex. The applicant, who has a keratokonus recognised as inappropriate until the situation is fully assessed pursuant to this annex, subparagraph 12.1.1.12.1.6. This examination must include: 1) history; 2) Visual acuity, near, middle and far vision-correcting, if necessary, using the best optical correction; 3) eyeball movement and binocular vision; 4) colour vision; 5) Visual field; 6) external eye, eye anatomy, eye, the front part (slit lamp) and fundoskopisk investigations; 7) must be carried out in addition to the applicant: (a) objective refraction). Making cikloplēģij an applicant who has hiperopij and who is under 25 years old; (b)) tonometrij according to clinical indications and after 40 years of age. in all medical examinations 12.1.2 associated with certificates of approval or renewal again, should be included in the health certificate holder status assessment of vision: 1) history; 2) Visual acuity, near, middle and far vision, not corrected and, if necessary, using the best optical correction; 3) external eye, eye anatomy, eye, the front part (slit lamp) and fundoskopisk investigations; 4 additional examinations if) are clinical indicators (see section 12.1.3. of this annex) this examination must include 12.1.3:1) history; 2) Visual acuity, near, middle and far vision: uncorrected; If necessary, using the best optical correction; 3) refraction; 4) eyeball movement and binocular vision; 5) Visual field; 6 tonometrij after 40 years of) age; 7) external eye, eye anatomy, eye, the front part (slit lamp) and fundoskopisk. The inspection report is sent to the main aviation medical examiner. If any abnormality and there is doubt as to the applicant's eye health, further ophthalmological examination (see section 12.1.4. of this annex) of the principal Applicant 12.1.4. aviation medical examiner may be recognised as eligible, if: (a) the refraction before surgery) did not exceed + 5 or-6 diopters; (b) satisfactory refractive) stability (24-hour change is less than 0.75 dioptres); (c)) eye study found no postoperative complications; d) sensitivity to the light within limits; (e)) is not disturbed mezopisk contrast sensitivity; f) carries out inspection according to opthalmologist main aviation medical examiner's instructions, the principal Applicant 12.1.5. aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable for: (a)) not earlier than two months after the cataract operations; b) not earlier than six months after retinal surgery. The following checks carried out by the ophthalmologist not less than annually; c) not earlier than six months after glaucoma surgery – first or repeated tests. The following checks carried out by the ophthalmologist not less frequently than every two years, 12.1.6. If the applicant is diagnosed with keratokonus, the main applicant, aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable for the test that is associated with the certificate of approval or renewal again, provided that: (a) using the adjustment) lenses, vision of the applicant meets the requirements; (b)), which investigated ophthalmologist frequency determines the main aviation medical examiner 12.2. Visual acuity in the distance, watching with each eye separately (with or without correction) must be 6/9 (0.7) or greater than it. Visual acuity, using both eyes must be 6/6 (1.0) or greater for it (see section 12.2.1. of this annex). Restrictions do not apply to uncorrected Visual acuity. The health certificate holder or applicant may apply if: 1) first health check findings refraction disorder is from + 5 to-6 dioptres; 2) applicant's medical tests refraction disorders does not exceed + 5 diopters or expressed miopisk the refractive disorders more than 6 diopters and the situation is fully assessed pursuant to subparagraph 12.2.2. of this annex. The tenderer who has refractive disorders must wear contact lenses or use of aspheric spectacle lenses. If the applicant first health check identified refractive disorders with astigmātism, astigmātism shall not exceed 2.0 dioptres. Applicants who are refractive disorders with which exceeds 3.0 dioptres astigmātism, may be recognised as suitable for the issue of licences for repeated, if the vision is examined under this annex 12.2.4.. Take a health assessment, a first-time applicant Refractive Disorders inherent difference in both eyes (anisometropij) shall not exceed 2.0 dioptres. Repeated inspection health certificate holder that the difference of the disturbance of the refractive in both eyes (anisometropij) exceeds 3.0 dioptres may be considered suitable if the situation is fully assessed pursuant to section 12.2.5. of this annex. The development of Presbiopij check all medical examinations associated with the certificate again. Applicants must be able to read N5 table (or its equivalent) in the 30-50 cm and N14 table (or its equivalent) 1 m, using the vision correction, if applicable (see paragraph 12.2.1. of this annex). The applicant, which is expressed in a binocular visual defects of recognised as inappropriate (see section 12.2.7. of this annex). The applicant, who is recognised as the diplopia, inappropriate. The applicant is considered inappropriate, if he has the eye muscle imbalance (heterophori) that exceed 2.0 dioptres: 1) in the case of Prism hiperforij, down from six meters; 2 diopter of Prism 10.0) in the case of ezoforij, down from six meters; 3 diopter of Prism eksoforij 8.0) necessary to determine a set of six metres; 4 diopters of Prism 1.0) in the case of hiperforij, down from 33 cm; 5 diopters of Prism 8.0) in the case of ezoforij, down from 33 cm; 6 diopters of Prism 12.0) in the case of eksoforij, down from 33 cm. If fūzij reserves are sufficient to prevent astenopij and diplopia, Chief aviation medical examiner, the applicant can be approved as suitable, subject to section 12.2.6.. A tenderer who has Visual field abnormality is considered inappropriate, if the situation is fully assessed under 12.2.7.. Applicants with monokularitāt, invalidate the appropriate medical certificates (see section 12.2.8. of this annex): (a) if the applicant) 12.2.1. vision meets the requirements only with vision correction, glasses or contact lenses must provide optimal Visual function, they must be comfortable and suitable for use in aviation. If contact lenses are used, they must be monofokāl and the vision in the distance. The Ortokeratoloģisk contact lenses must not be used; (b) correction lenses when) they are used in aviation, the licence holder must comply with the requirements of the vision at all distances. To meet the vision requirements, you may use only one pair of glasses; c) contact lenses when they are used in aviation, to be monofokāl and not tinted; (d)) in implementing the rights granted in the license, the holder must make available similar to adjusting reserves spectacle kit 12.2.2.) has been a severe pathology; (b) take into account the optimal) adjustment; c) ophthalmologist every two years, checks if miopisk exceeds the refraction-6 diopters; (d)) of the ophthalmologist once every five years, checks if the refractive disorders exceeds ± 3 diopters boundaries: a) has been found to 12.2.3. severe pathology; (b) take into account the optimal) adjustment: a) has been found to 12.2.4. severe pathology; (b) take into account the optimal) adjustment; c) once a year an inspection at the ophthalmologist 12.2.5.: a) has been severe pathology; (b) take into account the optimal) adjustment; c) ophthalmologist is carried out every two years; (d) if anisometropij exceeds 3.0 dioptres), the tenderer must wear contact lenses 12.2.6. The applicant checks the ophthalmologist. Fūzij spare checks, for example, with Goldman's red/green binocular fusion test: (a) the tenderer 12.2.7.), whose central vision in one eye is below the 12.2 of this annex referred to in point borders may be appropriate, if the investigation establishes that the binocular Visual field is normal and pamatsaslimšan is permitted according to the ophthalmologist. In such cases, you need to perform the test flight and the second pilot's apply ("OML" first class); (b) the applicant having) Visual field defect may be appropriate if the binocular Visual field is normal and pamatsaslimšan confirmed the main aviation medical examiner 12.2.8. Tenderer's main aviation medical expert could become a suitable licence (if it is related to repeated approval or renewal) in the following cases: 1) is an monokularitāt after five years of age; 2) first during the health check, if: (a) blind eye) Visual acuity in the distance (without correction) is at least 6/6; (b) no Refractive Disorders); (c)) is not a history of refractive surgical correction; (d)) is not heavy pathology; 3) if the investigation establishes that pamatsaslimšan is allowed in accordance with the ophthalmologist for assessment and the Tenderer has successfully taken a functional test Job Applicants in 12.3. must see with normal color perception or color safe. Take a health assessment, a first-time applicants to take test Ishihara (see 12.3.1. of this annex). If the applicant does not meet the colour vision test, the Ishihara color vision can they be recognized as color safe, if he is successfully carried out a comprehensive examination of the major aviation medical examiner determined methods (color anomaloskopij or lamp-see 12.3.2. of this annex). During repeated test, color vision test is required only if there is clinical indications. Applicant's vision that does not match the color perception tests, deemed unsafe, the colour and the applicant shall not be considered as a suitable test 12.3.1. Ishihara (24 plate version) is considered to be successfully carried out if the applicant without errors, hesitation or delay (less than three seconds per plate) has identified 15 plates. Plates showing random bidders 12.3.2. that vision does not meet the test, the Ishihara test with one of the following methods: (a)) anomaloskopij (Nāgel or equivalent). This test shall be deemed to be carried out successfully, if the color match is trihromātisk and bonding strength does not exceed four scale units; (b) lamp tests.) This test shall be deemed to be carried out successfully, if the applicant is not mistaken inspection using the following lamps: Holmes Wright, beynes or Otorinolaringoloģisk evaluation 13 Spectrolux requirements Essential requirements 13.1. first health checks, do General otorinolaringoloģisk investigation. Repeated health check carried out investigations, if otorinolaringoloģisk is a clinical indications pursuant to section 13.1.1. of this annex. Ear-nose-throat examination include health checks again (see section 13.1.2. of this annex). The applicant is considered inappropriate, if there is any of the following disabilities: 1) acute or chronic active pathological process in middle or inner ear; 2 not cured of Eardrum perforation) or dysfunction (see 13.1.3. of this annex); 3) vestibulār functions (see 13.1.3. of this annex); 4) expressed respiratory disorders through the nose in one or the other side or sinus dysfunction; 5) oral or upper respiratory tract malformations or expressed their severe, acute or chronic infection; 6) expressed in speech or voice disorder 13.1.1. Making the first medical examination, the applicant shall undergo an extensive check of otorinolaringoloģisk aviation medical centre or otorinolaringolog. The test includes: 1) history; 2) clinical studies, including otoskopij, rinoskopij, as well as mouth and throat inspection; 3 timpanometrij or equivalent); 4) vestibulār clinical assessment system 13.1.2. If the health check found no anomalies-nose ear-neck area or ambiguous cases, to: (a) a 13.1.3. otorinolaringolog) if the applicant is not infectious nature one ear pierced, which does not interfere with normal hearing, they can be approved as appropriate; (b)) or a spontaneous case of positional nistagm requires a complete assessment of the system vestibulār to the medical professional. In such cases may not be essential for their vestibulār response to deviations from the rules associated with the heat or rotary uztvertspēj. Again in primary health test the aviation medical examiner assessed the applicant's response of vestibulār anomalies to the clinical context 14. Hearing assessment requirements Essential requirements 14.1. The applicant correctly to understand normal speech (by checking each ear) while two meters from an aviation medical examiner, with the sides and back. Making the first medical examination, hearing test with pure tone audiometrij. Repeated tests and 40 years of age hearing test shall be carried out every four years. After 40 years of age hearing test shall be carried out once every two years (see section 14.1.1. of this annex). The health certificate holder, checking each ear separately, hearing loss (HL) may not contain more than 35 dB at 500, 1 000 and 2 000 Hz, or more than 50 dB at 3000 Hz (see section 14.1.3. of this annex). When it comes to performance testing shows a satisfactory hearing, repeating tests the main aviation medical expert could become suitable candidates who has hearing loss, if the condition is evaluated according to this annex, paragraph 14.1.2. The applicant first health check, checking each ear separately, hearing loss (HL) may not contain more than 20 dB at 500, 1 000 and 2 000 Hz, or more than 35 dB at 3000 Hz (see section 14.1.3. of this annex). The applicant first health check must not be used in hearing aids. Repeated health check of applicants recognised as inappropriate, if he uses a hearing correction registers both ears 14.1.1. audiogramm of pure tone frequency must be 500 to 3000 Hz. The following frequency limits: a) 500 Hz; (b)) 1 000 Hz; c) 2 000 Hz; d) 3 000 Hz 14.1.2. If the applicant's hearing the sound field is satisfactory, corresponding to the conditions of work on the flight deck in all flight phases, they can be recognised as suitable for 14.1.3. If the applicant establishes that the hearing loss (HL) is 5 dB of the limit values in two or more test frequencies, pure tone audiometrij is carried out each year in the psychological assessment of 15 essential requirements requirements requirements 15.1 the health certificate holder or applicant must not be a psychological disorder that may affect the rights granted by the licence of a secure implementation. The main aviation medical examiner may require psychological assessment, if it is specified as part of the specialist conducted psychiatric or neurological examination or in addition to it (see 15.1.1. of this annex) 15.1.1. If the main aviation medical examiner from an identifiable source get verifiable information that casts doubt on a particular individual's mental fitness or personality, must request a psychological assessment of the psychologist. The psychologist provides the main aviation medical examiner written report, which details his views and recommendations. A psychological evaluation may include biographical data collection, professionalism and personality tests and psychological interview assignment 16. Dermatologic evaluation requirements Essential requirements 16.1. Special attention should be paid to such disturbances (see section 16.1.1. of this annex): 1) Eczema (exogenous or endogenous); 2) severe psoriasis (zvīņēd); 3) bacterial infections; 2) drug-induced rash; 5) bulloz rash; 6) hives; 7) malignant skin formations. Other skin disease: 1) acute or widespread chronic Eczema; 2) skin retikuloz; 3) general situation dermatological aspects. A similar disease cases evaluated treatment and health status: a) leather 16.1.1. diseases that cause pain, discomfort, irritation or itching, can prevent the applicant from his duties and thereby affect the performance security; (b)) skin treatment using irradiation or Pharmacotherapy, is systemic effects that must be taken into account in the assessment of the adequacy of the provision before; (c) where the applicant has) found a malignant melanoma, zvīņojoš cell, epiteliom Bowen disease (zvīņojoš the superficial cell carcinoma in situ) and Paget's disease, recognised as inappropriate. The applicant's main aviation medical examiner may apply if the skin lesions are totally izoperēt (if necessary) and further appropriate monitoring; (d) the basal cell of the epiteliom), Basal Cell Carcinoma, actinic keratoakantom or in the case of tenderers keratos main aviation medical examiner may be recognised as suitable for treatment and (or) skin izoperēšan 17 in Oncologic evaluation requirements Essential requirements 17.1. malignancies treatment By the applicant can be approved as appropriate, if the situation is fully assessed pursuant to this annex, paragraph 17.1.1. the applicants main 17.1.1. aviation a medical expert could become appropriate if: 1) after treatment link to malignant diseases; 2) after treatment is the type of tumour has elapsed period; 3) risk that the flight could be incapacitated for a disease outbreak or metastases is minimal; 4) after treatment is not evidence of short-term or long-term complications after chemotherapy with anthracyclines and the preparation of the Group's State of health has been made on further consideration; 5) with the main aviation medical experts agreed the following checks of Annex 8 of the Cabinet of Ministers of 2 February 2010. the Regulation No. 97 health certificate restrictions appearing on No. PO box Code restriction class limit interpretation 1. TML certificate valid _____ months 1. class 2, class 3, class, LAPL aircraft cabin crew medical certificate is valid up to the expiry date. The validity period begins with the date of the health inspection carried out. A pilot must come to repeated health check and observe the instructions concerning the health examination 2. VDL Must wear corrective lenses, vision must be to spare the spectacle Kit. the class 1, class 2, class 3, LAPL To vision meets the requirements, the person exercising the rights granted by the licence, should be wearing glasses or contact lenses which adjusted remote defective eyesight and you checked the aviation medical examiner. The person must have a spare set of glasses. If the person uses contact lenses, to be up on a spare set of glasses under the aviation medical examiner's instructions. A person may not use contact lenses until it has allowed the aviation medical examiner. Using contact lenses, you must also be a spare set of 3 glasses. VML should be wearing daudzfokāl glasses, must be to spare the spectacle Kit to class 1, class 2, class 3, LAPL, average Distance and near vision correction of interference: implementing the rights granted by the licence, the pilot must use glasses that adjust the distance, average and near-vision interference according to aviation medical examiner's examination and opinion. You may not use contact lenses or glasses, if pilnietvar corrects only the Middle vision 4. VNL need glasses that adjust the Middle vision must be to spare the spectacle Kit. the class 1, class 2, class 3, LAPL To vision meets the requirements laid down in implementing the rights granted by the licence, should be up on the glasses, which corrects defective vision and passing the test is specified and certified by aviation medical expert. Should not carry the contact lenses or glasses with frame that adjusts only the Middle vision. The person must also carry a spare set of 5 glasses. CCL to wear contact lenses, be to spare contact lens Kit class 1, class 2, class 3, LAPL, aircraft cabin crew member To comply with the requirements of the vision, the person exercising the rights granted by the licence, you must use the contact lenses that corrected a defective medium and the distant, the Middle sees that the test is confirmed by the medical examiner. The person must also carry a spare set of contact 6. VCL only valid for flights the day of class 2, with privâtpilotu allows the LAPL Limit variable color vision deficiencies grades use the rights granted by the licence only during the day 7. OML valid as second pilot or with qualified second pilot 1st class limitation applies to crew members whose medical condition does not meet the medical requirements, to perform the single pilot operation of an aircraft which is suitable for the operation of an aircraft daudzpilot of team 8. HAL valid only with hearing aids use class 1, class 2, class 3, LAPL, aircraft cabin crew member 9. CIRCLE valid only by using the appropriate prosthesis class 1, class 2, class 3, LAPL, 10. Valid only with the second OSLO pilot flights by aircraft equipped with dual control class 2, LAPL Backup pilot must be qualified as the class/type of aircraft, the captain must be a qualifying mark, which gives the right to take flight in appropriate circumstances. This control must be located in the pilot seat and must be informed of the type (s) (s), the person concerned may become incapacitated and should be ready to take over control of the aircraft during the flight 11. OCL only valid as second pilot class 1 limit is the limit of the OML addition. It is suitable when the health certificate holder for medical reasons is recognised as suitable for the second pilot, but is not considered a suitable aircraft captain duties 12. OPL valid only on flights without passengers, LAPL class 2 this limit may apply if the pilot with a skeletal-muscle disorders or other illnesses can cause a high risk of flight safety element, which may be acceptable to the pilot, but it is not acceptable for the carriage of passengers, 13. SSL special restrictions 1. class, class 2, class 3, LAPL, aircraft cabin crew member This restriction applies in cases that are not clearly defined in the rules, but which Civil Aviation Agency is of the opinion that the restriction is necessary 14. OAL prohibited to drive a certain aircraft type class 1, class 2, LAPL, aircraft cabin crew member this limitation can be applicable to the pilot with the lack of limbs or other anatomic problem that medical flight tests or Flight Simulator test result was recognized as acceptable, but requires a limit to a specific aircraft type 15. Valid only with approved AHL manual controls class 1, class 2, class 3, LAPL, aircraft cabin crew member 16. SIC Special (s) (s) regular health check (s), contact the Civil Aviation Agency, class 1, class 2, class 3, LAPL, aircraft cabin crew member States that the limit of the aviation medical examiner before the commencement of the medical assessment, related to health renewal, contact the Civil Aviation Agency. The limit is primarily linked to the history of the aviation medical examiner must be informed before the start of the inspection of health 17. RX required Visual inspection at the ophthalmologist class 1, class 2, class 3, LAPL limit health certificate indicating if any substantial reason, the need to carry out inspections at the ophthalmologist 18. MCL Valid flights with several aircraft cabin crew members of the aircraft cabin crew member restrictions apply air cabin crew members who do not meet the requirements for medical flights, carried out one air cabin crew member, but is suitable for flights carried out by several aircraft cabin crew members 19. CVL need glasses that adjust the sight to be to spare the spectacle Kit aircraft cabin crew member 20. ASENRAY prevented from performing certain flights the aircraft cabin crew member remarks. 1. Limits: 1.1 this annex tables 1-4. the restrictions referred to in paragraph – aviation medical examiner or aviation medical center; 1.2. this annex table 5-19. the restrictions referred to in paragraph 1.2.1: a first class medical certificate, the Civil Aviation Agency; 1.2.2. second class medical certificate – aviation medical examiner or aviation medical center most coordination with Civil Aviation Agency; 1.2.3. the health certificates, LAPL aviation medical examiner or aviation medical center; 1.2.4. the aircraft cabin crew medical certificate – aviation medical examiner or the Aerospace Medical Center. 2. Restrictions 2.1 repealed: first class medical certificate, the Civil Aviation Agency; 2.2. second class medical certificate, the Civil Aviation Agency, aviation medical examiner or aviation medical center after checking with the Civil Aviation Agency; 2.3. health certificates, LAPL aviation medical examiner or aviation medical center; 2.4. aircraft cabin crew medical certificate – aviation medical examiner or the Aerospace Medical Center.   9. the Cabinet of Ministers of 2 February 2010. the Regulation No. 97 health examination results i. evaluating the health status of the card to the aircraft cabin crew and a third-class medical certificate applicants By filling out the information on the card is medical confidential shaded area of the table need not be filled in (201) inspection type (202) height (cm) (203) weight (kg) (204) eye color (205) hair color (206) blood pressure (mm Hg) sitting up (207) pulse at rest a first rate (per minute) The rhythm of Repeated systolic siastolisk (license renewal) is extended regularly updated occasionally (for renewal) medical examination Norm Norm pathology Pathology (208) head, face, neck, scalp (218) hernias, stomach, liver, spleen (209) the mouth, throat, teeth (219), Reach the intestines (210) straight to the nose, the nasal cavity (220) next to Uro system (211) ear, eardrum, their mobility (221) endocrine system (212) eyes – orbit, palīgaparāt; field of view (222) limbs and joints (213) eyes, eyes, eyes bottom (223) spine, etc. skeletomuskulār (214) eye movements, nystagmus (224) Neurology-reflexes, etc.     (215) the lungs, chest cavity, Mammary organs (225) Mental disorders (216) heart (226), birthmarks and Skin lymphatic nodes (217) vascular system (227) other systems (228) describe the pathology, indicating the number of Visual acuity (229) the distance vision 5/6 m (236) lung function (237) hemoglobin without correction glasses contact lenses FEV1/FVC _____ _____% of Norm pathology _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ (unit of measure) in the margin of the pathology right eye left eye adjustment Adjustment adjustment of both eyes (230) average vision without correction with a correction (235) urine tests rule pathology 1 N14 m yes no Yes No Protein in blood glucose other right eye left eye attached documents: both eyes not Norm pathology/comments (238) ECG (231) Near vision without correction with a correction (239) Audiogramm 30-50 cm from the N5 Yes No Yes No (240) Ophthalmologist in right eye (241) Otorinolaringolog of the left eye (242) of Serum lipids in both eyes (243) lung function (244) other (specify) (232), glasses (233) contact lenses Are not a Type of ____ _____ Is Not type ____ _____ refraction sphere cylinder axis Close (247) AME recommendations right eye of the applicant name ____ ___ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ date of birth ____/____/____ ____ health certificate number ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ meets _____ _____ _____ _____ the medical health certificate requirements (aircraft cabin crew (GKSAL) or class 3) Issued a ____ _____ class medical certificate does not match the _____ ____ class of medical certificate of health requirements based on _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ rules. "p. Rating suspended (specify a specialist opinion and a reason) left eye (313) colour vision Norm pathology pseudo-izohromatisk table type: Ishihara (24 plates) plate number ____ mistakenly read plate number ____ (234) hearing (if not done/241.p. 239) right ear left ear voice (talk) test of 2 m, turned his back to the Yes No Yes No Audiometrij 500 1000 2000 3000 Hz (248) comments and limitations left-right (249) aviation medical examiner's certificate Certifying the that I have personally seen the tenderer and specify the results match the findings of the studies. (250) the place and date of the aviation medical examiner's name, surname and address of the aviation medical examiner's seal with the signature phone number email II. Ophthalmological examination reports a third-class medical certificate applicants (1) the public health certificate (2) a class class 3 (3) (4) previous (s) name (s) (12) the application of a repeat (5) First name (s) (6) date of birth ____/____/____ ____ (7) gender men. Wife. (13) the health certificate number (8) place of birth (9) citizenship (14) type of certificate required (302) health check First re (303) ophthalmological Clinical health history examination Visual acuity (314) Distance vision 5/6 m glasses contact lenses without the adjustments, select each point margin of pathology (304) eyes, eyelids and external eye right eye correction (305) eyes, outside (slit-lamp, oftalmoskopij) left eye adjustment adjustment of both eyes (306), the position and movement of the eyes (315) average vision 1 m eyeglasses lenses (307) Visual field (comparison) in good eye correction (308) tits reflexes left eye correction (309) mesh bottom (oftalmoskopij) both eyes (310) convergence Adjustment cm (316) Near vision 30-50 cm distance glasses contact lenses (311) accommodation D right eye left eye correction to correction (312) eye muscle balance both eyes correction 5/6 m 30-50 cm (317) refraction ortho ortho sphere Cylinder axis close to the right of the Ez Ez Ekz left the Ekz Hyper Hyper real refraction tested spectacle prescription cyclo cyclo Tropij is Not Forij is not ( 318) (319) glasses contact lenses replacement Fūzij the test is not carried out normal pathology Is Not type ____ ____ Is Not type ____ ____ (313) colour vision plates type Pseidoizohromatisk ____ ____ plate number ____ ____ number of errors ____ ____ (320) intraocular pressure in certain extended color perception test yes no method ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ (mm Hg) (mm Hg) left, color vision, color SAFE Unsafe vision method ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ Norm pathology (321) ophthalmologist recommendations and notes (322) aviation medical examiner's certificate Certifying the that this report and the attached documents is accurate and complete list of all found, found, making this check. (323) the place and date of the Ophthalmologist's first name, last name and a fax adreseTālrun aviation medical expert/specialist stamp signature III. Otorinolaringoloģisk inspection report third-class medical certificate applicants (1) the public health certificate (2) a class class 3 (3) (4) previous (s) name (s) (12) the application of a repeat (5) First name (s) (6) date of birth ____/____/____ ____ (7) gender men.   Wife. (13) the health certificate number (402) check First re (403) Otorinolaringoloģisk health history in the clinical investigation pathology (419) of the rules of pure tone audiometrij dB (404) head, face, neck, the hairy part of the head (405) in the oral cavity, teeth Hz right left (406) throat (407) 250 in the nasal passages and aizdegun (including the front rinoskopij) 500 1000 (408) Vestibulār system, including the Romberg test 2000 (409) comes to 3000 (410) sinus 4000 (411), external ear tunnels bungplēvīt-6000 (412), pneumatic-8000 (413) otoskopij impedance timpanometrij, including the Valsalv manoeuvre (only the first health check) (420) Audiogramm O = right ear------= air management X = left ear … … = bone running additional checks (if there are indications) is performed by Norma pathology dB-10 (414) speech audiometrij (415) Mugurēj 0 rinoskopij in the         10                 (416) EOG; spontaneous and positional nystagmus (417) Vestibulār autorotācij in 20 test 30 (418) Laringoskopij using a mirror or optical fibre 40 50 60 (421) Otorinolaringolog notes and recommendations 70 80 90 100 110 120 Hz 250 500 1000 2000 3000 4000 6000 8000 (422) aviation medical examiner's declaration I declare that this report and its accompanying documents exactly u n completely contains all found, found, making this check. (423) the place and date of the Otorinolaringolog name, and adreseTālrun the fax expert Aero-medical/professional stamp "signature" Prime Minister Valdis Dombrovskis traffic Minister of matīss Anrij