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OREGON BOARD OF DENTISTRY

 

DIVISION 1
PROCEDURES

818-001-0000
Notice of Proposed Rule Making
Prior to the adoption, amendment, or repeal of any permanent rule, the Oregon Board of Dentistry shall give notice of the proposed adoption, amendment, or repeal:
(1) By publishing a notice in the Secretary of State's Bulletin referred to in ORS 183.370 at least 21 days prior to the effective date.
(2) By mailing a copy of the notice to persons on the mailing list established pursuant to ORS 183.335 (8) at least 28 days before the effective date of the adoption, amendment, or repeal.
(3) By mailing a copy of the notice to the following persons and publications:
(a) Oregon Dental Hygienists’ Association;
(b) Oregon Dental Assistants Association;
(c) Oregon Association of Dental Laboratories;
(d) Oregon Dental Association;
(e) The Oregonian;
(f) Oregon Health & Science University, School of Dentistry;
(g) The United Press International;
(h) The Associated Press;
(i) The Capitol Building Press Room.
Stat. Auth.: ORS 183, 192, 670 & 679

Stats. Implemented: ORS 183.370 & 183.335(7)

Hist.: DE 24, f. & ef. 12-2-75; DE 2-1978, f. & ef. 5-4-78; DE 3-1982, f. & ef. 5-26-82; DE 11-1984, f. & ef. 5-17-84; DE 1-1988, f. 12-28-88, cert. ef. 2-1-89; DE 1-1989, f. 1-27-89, cert. ef. 2-1-89; DE 1-1997, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-97; OBD 2-2009, f. 10-21-09, cert. ef. 11-1-09
818-001-0002
Definitions
As used in OAR chapter 818:
(1) "Board" means the Oregon
Board of Dentistry, the members of the Board, its employees, its agents, and its
consultants.
(2) "Dental Practice Act" means
ORS Chapter 679 and 680.010 to 680.170 and the rules adopted pursuant thereto.
(3) "Dentist" means a person
licensed pursuant to ORS Chapter 679 to practice dentistry.
(4) "Direct Supervision" means
supervision requiring that a dentist diagnose the condition to be treated, that
a dentist authorize the procedure to be performed, and that a dentist remain in
the dental treatment room while the procedures are performed.
(5) "General Supervision" means
supervision requiring that a dentist authorize the procedures, but not requiring
that a dentist be present when the authorized procedures are performed. The authorized
procedures may also be performed at a place other than the usual place of practice
of the dentist.
(6) "Hygienist" means a person
licensed pursuant to ORS 680.010 to 680.170 to practice dental hygiene.
(7) "Indirect Supervision" means
supervision requiring that a dentist authorize the procedures and that a dentist
be on the premises while the procedures are performed.
(8) "Informed Consent" means
the consent obtained following a thorough and easily understood explanation to the
patient, or patient's guardian, of the proposed procedures, any available alternative
procedures and any risks associated with the procedures. Following the explanation,
the licensee shall ask the patient, or the patient's guardian, if there are any
questions. The licensee shall provide thorough and easily understood answers to
all questions asked.
(9)(a) "Licensee" means a dentist
or hygienist.
(b) “Volunteer Licensee”
is a dentist or dental hygienist licensed according to rule to provide dental health
care without receiving or expecting to receive compensation.
(10) "Limited Access Patient"
means a patient who, due to age, infirmity, or handicap is unable to receive regular
dental hygiene treatment in a dental office.
(11) "Specialty." Specialty
areas of dentistry are as defined by the American Dental Association, Council on
Dental Education. The specialty definitions are added to more clearly define the
scope of the practice as it pertains to the specialty areas of dentistry.
(a) "Dental Public Health" is
the science and art of preventing and controlling dental diseases and promoting
dental health through organized community efforts. It is that form of dental practice
which serves the community as a patient rather than the individual. It is concerned
with the dental health education of the public, with applied dental research, and
with the administration of group dental care programs as well as the prevention
and control of dental diseases on a community basis.
(b) "Endodontics" is the branch
of dentistry which is concerned with the morphology, physiology and pathology of
the human dental pulp and periradicular tissues. Its study and practice encompass
the basic and clinical sciences including biology of the normal pulp, the etiology,
diagnosis, prevention and treatment of diseases and injuries of the pulp and associated
periradicular conditions.
(c) "Oral and Maxillofacial
Pathology" is the specialty of dentistry and discipline of pathology that deals
with the nature, identification, and management of diseases affecting the oral and
maxillofacial regions. It is a science that investigates the causes, processes,
and effects of these diseases. The practice of oral pathology includes research
and diagnosis of diseases using clinical, radiographic, microscopic, biochemical,
or other examinations.
(d) “Oral and Maxillofacial
Radiology” is the specialty of dentistry and discipline of radiology concerned
with the production and interpretation of images and data produced by all modalities
of radiant energy that are used for the diagnosis and management of diseases, disorders
and conditions of the oral and maxillofacial region.
(e) "Oral and Maxillofacial
Surgery" is the specialty of dentistry which includes the diagnosis, surgical and
adjunctive treatment of diseases, injuries and defects involving both the functional
and esthetic aspects of the hard and soft tissues of the oral and maxillofacial
region.
(f) "Orthodontics and Dentofacial
Orthopedics" is the area of dentistry concerned with the supervision, guidance and
correction of the growing or mature dentofacial structures, including those conditions
that require movement of teeth or correction of malrelationships and malformations
of their related structures and the adjustment of relationships between and among
teeth and facial bones by the application of forces and/or the stimulation and redirection
of functional forces within the craniofacial complex. Major responsibilities of
orthodontic practice include the diagnosis, prevention, interception and treatment
of all forms of malocclusion of the teeth and associated alterations in their surrounding
structures; the design, application and control of functional and corrective appliances;
and the guidance of the dentition and its supporting structures to attain and maintain
optimum occlusal relations in physiologic and esthetic harmony among facial and
cranial structures.
(g) "Pediatric Dentistry" is
an age defined specialty that provides both primary and comprehensive preventive
and therapeutic oral health care for infants and children through adolescence, including
those with special health care needs.
(h) "Periodontics" is the specialty
of dentistry which encompasses the prevention, diagnosis and treatment of diseases
of the supporting and surrounding tissues of the teeth or their substitutes and
the maintenance of the health, function and esthetics of these structures and tissues.
(i) "Prosthodontics" is the
branch of dentistry pertaining to the restoration and maintenance of oral functions,
comfort, appearance and health of the patient by the restoration of natural teeth
and/or the replacement of missing teeth and contiguous oral and maxillofacial tissues
with artificial substitutes.
(12) “Full-time”
as used in ORS 679.025 and 680.020 is defined by the Board as any student who is
enrolled in an institution accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation
of the American Dental Association or its successor agency in a course of study
for dentistry or dental hygiene.
(13) For purposes of ORS 679.020(4)(h)
the term “dentist of record” means a dentist that either authorized
treatment for, supervised treatment of or provided treatment for the patient in
clinical settings of the institution described in 679.020(3).
(14) “Dental Study Group”
as used in ORS 679.050, OAR 818-021-0060 and OAR 818-021-0070 is defined as a group
of licensees who come together for clinical and non-clinical educational study for
the purpose of maintaining or increasing their competence. This is not meant to
be a replacement for residency requirements.
Stat. Auth.: ORS 679 & 680
Stats. Implemented: ORS 679.010
& 680.010
Hist.: DE 11-1984, f. &
ef. 5-17-84; DE 1-1988, f. 12-28-88, cert. ef. 2-1-89; DE 1-1989, f. 1-27-89, cert.
ef. 2-1-89; Renumbered from 818-001-0001; DE 3-1997, f. & cert. ef. 8-27-97;
OBD 7-2001, f. & cert. ef. 1-8-01; OBD 2-2005, f. 1-31-05, cert. ef. 2-1-05;
OBD 1-2006, f. 3-17-06, cert. ef. 4-1-06; OBD 1-2008, f. 11-10-08, cert. ef. 12-1-08;
OBD 4-2011, f. & cert,. ef. 11-15-11; OBD 1-2013, f. 5-15-13, cert. ef. 7-1-13;
OBD 3-2015, f. 9-8-15, cert. ef. 10-1-15
818-001-0005
Model Rules of Procedure
Pursuant to the provisions of ORS 183.341, the Oregon Board of Dentistry adopts the Attorney General's Model Rules of Procedure under the Administrative Procedures Act current edition; these rules of procedure shall be controlling except as otherwise required by statute or rule.
[ED. NOTE: The full text of the Attorney General's Model Rules of Procedure is available from the office of the Attorney General or the Board of Dentistry.]
Stat. Auth.: ORS 183, 192, 670 & 679

Stats. Implemented: ORS 183.341(1)

Hist.: DE 20, f. 12-19-73, ef. 1-11-74; DE 26, f. & ef. 2-6-76; DE 1-1978, f. & ef. 4-27-78; DE 3-1981, f. & ef. 12-16-81; DE 3-1983, f. & ef. 10-19-83; DE 11-1984, f. & ef. 5-17-84; DE 4-1986, f. & ef. 5-23-86; DE 1-1988, f. 12-28-88, cert. ef. 2-1-89, DE 1-1989, f. 1-27-89, cert. ef. 2-1-89; DE 1-1997, f. & cert. ef. 1-2-97; OBD 1-2000, f. & cert. ef. 1-26-00; OBD 3-2000, f. & cert. ef. 6-2-00; OBD 2-2005, f. 1-31-05, cert. ef. 2-1-05
818-001-0011
Time for Requesting a Contested Case Hearing
A request for a contested case hearing must be in writing and must be received by the Board within twenty-one days from the date the contested case notice was served.
Stat. Auth.: ORS 679.250 & ORS 183.341

Stats. Implemented: ORS 679.250 & ORS 183.341 OR Laws 1999, Ch. 849

Hist.: OBD 9-2001, f. & cert. ef. 1-8-01
818-001-0025
Confidentiality and Inadmissibility of Mediation Communications
(1) The words and phrases used in this rule have the same meaning as given to them in ORS 36.110 and 36.234.
(2) Nothing in this rule affects any confidentiality created by other law. Nothing in this rule relieves a public body from complying with the Public Meetings Law, ORS 192.610 to 192.690. Whether or not they are confidential under this or other rules of the agency, mediation communications are exempt from disclosure under the Public Records Law to the extent provided in 192.410 to 192.505.
(3) This rule applies only to mediations in which the agency is a party or is mediating a dispute as to which the agency has regulatory authority. This rule does not apply when the agency is acting as the "mediator" in a matter in which the agency also is a party as defined in ORS 36.234.
(4) To the extent mediation communications would otherwise be compromised negotiations under ORS 40.190 (OEC Rule 408), those mediation communications are not admissible as provided in 40.190 (OEC Rule 408), notwithstanding any provisions to the contrary in section (9) of this rule.
(5) Mediations Excluded. Sections (6)-(10) of this rule do not apply to:
(a) Mediation of workplace interpersonal disputes involving the interpersonal relationships between this agency's employees, officials or employees and officials, unless a formal grievance under a labor contract, a tort claim notice or a lawsuit has been filed; or
(b) Mediation in which the person acting as the mediator will also act as the hearings officer in a contested case involving some or all of the same matters;
(c) Mediation in which the only parties are public bodies;
(d) Mediation involving two or more public bodies and a private party if the laws, rule or policies governing mediation confidentiality for at least one of the public bodies provide that mediation communications in the mediation are not confidential; or
(e) Mediation involving 15 or more parties if the agency has designated that another mediation confidentiality rule adopted by the agency may apply to that mediation.
(6) Disclosures by Mediator. A mediator may not disclose or be compelled to disclose mediation communications in a mediation and, if disclosed, such communications may not be introduced into evidence in any subsequent administrative, judicial or arbitration proceeding unless:
(a) All the parties to the mediation and the mediator agree in writing to the disclosure; or
(b) The mediation communication may be disclosed or introduced into evidence in a subsequent proceeding as provided in subsections (c)–(d), (j)–(l) or (o)–(p) of section (9) of this rule.
(7) Confidentiality and Inadmissibility of Mediation Communications. Except as provided in sections (8)–(9) of this rule, mediation communications are confidential and may not be disclosed to any other person, are not admissible in any subsequent administrative, judicial or arbitration proceeding and may not be disclosed during testimony in, or during any discovery conducted as part of a subsequent proceeding, or introduced as evidence by the parties or the mediator in any subsequent proceeding.
(8) Written Agreement. Section (7) of this rule does not apply to a mediation unless the parties to the mediation agree in writing, as provided in this section, that the mediation communications in the mediation will be confidential and/or nondiscoverable and inadmissible. If the mediator is the employee of and acting on behalf of a state agency, the mediator or an authorized agency representative must also sign the agreement. The parties' agreement to participate in a confidential mediation must be in substantially the following form. This form may be used separately or incorporated into an "agreement to mediate." [Form not included. See ED. NOTE.]
(9) Exceptions to confidentiality and inadmissibility:
(a) Any statements, memoranda, work products, documents and other materials, otherwise subject to discovery that were not prepared specifically for use in the mediation are not confidential and may be disclosed or introduced into evidence in a subsequent proceeding;
(b) Any mediation communications that are public records, as defined in ORS 192.410(4), and were not specifically prepared for use in the mediation are not confidential and may be disclosed or introduced into evidence in a subsequent proceeding unless the substance of the communication is confidential or privileged under state or federal law;
(c) A mediation communication is not confidential and may be disclosed by any person receiving the communication to the extent that person reasonably believes that disclosing the communication is necessary to prevent the commission of a crime that is likely to result in death or bodily injury to any person. A mediation communication is not confidential and may be disclosed in a subsequent proceeding to the extent its disclosure may further the investigation or prosecution of a felony crime involving physical violence to a person;
(d) Any mediation communication related to the conduct of a licensed professional that is made to or in the presence of a person who, as a condition of his or her professional license, is obligated to report such communication by law or court rule is not confidential and may be disclosed to the extent necessary to make such a report;
(e) The parties to the mediation may agree in writing that all or part of the mediation communications are not confidential or that all or part of the mediation communications may be disclosed and may be introduced into evidence in a subsequent proceeding unless the substance of the communication is confidential, privileged or otherwise prohibited from disclosure under state or federal law;
(f) A party to the mediation may disclose confidential mediation communications to a person if the party's communication with that person is privileged under ORS Chapter 40 or other provision of law. A party to the mediation may disclose confidential mediation communications to a person for the purpose of obtaining advice concerning the subject matter of the mediation, if all the parties agree;
(g) An employee of the agency may disclose confidential mediation communications to another agency employee so long as the disclosure is necessary to conduct authorized activities of the agency. An employee receiving a confidential mediation communication under this subsection is bound by the same confidentiality requirements as apply to the parties to the mediation;
(h) A written mediation communication may be disclosed or introduced as evidence in a subsequent proceeding at the discretion of the party who prepared the communication so long as the communication is not otherwise confidential under state or federal law and does not contain confidential information from the mediator or another party who does not agree to the disclosure;
(i) In any proceeding to enforce, modify or set aside a mediation agreement, a party to the mediation may disclose mediation communications and such communications may be introduced as evidence to the extent necessary to prosecute or defend the matter. At the request of a party, the court may seal any part of the record of the proceeding to prevent further disclosure of mediation communications or agreements to persons other than the parties to the agreement;
(j) In an action for damages or other relief between a party to the mediation and a mediator or mediation program, mediation communications are not confidential and may be disclosed and may be introduced as evidence to the extent necessary to prosecute or defend the matter. At the request of a party, the court may seal any part of the record of the proceeding to prevent further disclosure of the mediation communications or agreements;
(k) When a mediation is conducted as part of the negotiation of a collective bargaining agreement, the following mediation communications are not confidential and such communications may be introduced into evidence in a subsequent administrative, judicial or arbitration proceeding:
(A) A request for mediation; or
(B) A communication from the Employment Relations Board Conciliation Service establishing the time and place of mediation; or
(C) A final offer submitted by the parties to the mediator pursuant to ORS 243.712; or
(D) A strike notice submitted to the Employment Relations Board.
(l) To the extent a mediation communication contains information the substance of which is required to be disclosed by Oregon statute, other than ORS 192.410 to 192.505, that portion of the communication may be disclosed as required by statute;
(m) Written mediation communications prepared by or for the agency or its attorney are not confidential and may be disclosed and may be introduced as evidence in any subsequent administrative, judicial or arbitration proceeding to the extent the communication does not contain confidential information from the mediator or another party, except for those written mediation communications that are:
(A) Attorney-client privileged communications so long as they have been disclosed to no one other than the mediator in the course of the mediation or to persons as to whom disclosure of the communication would not waive the privilege; or
(B) Attorney work product prepared in anticipation of litigation or for trial; or
(C) Prepared exclusively for the mediator or in a caucus session and not given to another party in the mediation other than a state agency; or
(D) Prepared in response to the written request of the mediator for specific documents or information and given to another party in the mediation; or
(E) Settlement concepts or proposals, shared with the mediator or other parties.
(n) A mediation communication made to the agency may be disclosed and may be admitted into evidence to the extent the Board determines that disclosure of the communication is necessary to prevent or mitigate a serious danger to the public's health or safety, and the communication is not otherwise confidential or privileged under state or federal law;
(o) The terms of any mediation agreement are not confidential and may be introduced as evidence in a subsequent proceeding, except to the extent the terms of the agreement are exempt from disclosure under ORS 192.410 to 192.505, a court has ordered the terms to be confidential under 30.402 or state or federal law requires the terms to be confidential;
(p) The mediator may report the disposition of a mediation to the agency at the conclusion of the mediation so long as the report does not disclose specific confidential mediation communications. The agency or the mediator may use or disclose confidential mediation communications for research, training or educational purposes, subject to the provisions of ORS 36.232(4).
(10) When a mediation is subject to section (7) of this rule, the agency will provide to all parties to the mediation and the mediator a copy of this rule or a citation to the rule and an explanation of where a copy of the rule may be obtained. Violation of this provision does not waive confidentiality or inadmissibility.
[ED. NOTE: The form referenced in this rule is not printed in the OAR Compilation. Copies are available from the agency.]
Stat. Auth.: ORS 36.224

Stats. Implemented: ORS 36.224, ORS 36.228, ORS 36.230 & ORS 36.232

Hist.: OBD 4-2000, f. 6-22-00, cert. ef. 7-1-00
818-001-0030
Award of Hearings Costs
The Board may assess the following costs against a licensee disciplined by the Board:
(1) Fee for service of complaint.
(2) Fee for service of subpoenas.
(3) Reporter fee for depositions and hearing including transcriptions.
(4) Hearing officer's fee.
(5) Witness fees and mileage or other costs incurred in insuring the attendance of any witness.
(6) Cost of Board counsel.
Stat. Auth.: ORS 183, ORS 192, ORS 670 & ORS 680

Stats. Implemented: ORS 679.140(5)(h)

Hist.: DE 11-1984, f. & ef. 5-17-84; DE 3-1986, f. & ef. 3-31-86; DE 1-1988, f. 12-28-88, cert. ef. 2-1-89, DE 1-1989, f. 1-27-89, cert. ef. 2-1-89; OBD 3-1999, f. 6-25-99, cert. ef. 7-1-99; OBD 15-2001, f. 12-7-01, cert. ef. 1-1-02
818-001-0082
Access to Public Records
(1) Public records not exempt from disclosure may be inspected during office hours at the Board office upon reasonable notice.
(2) Copies of public records not exempt from disclosure may be purchased. The Board may withhold copies of public records until the requestor pays for the copies.
(3) The Board establishes the following fees:
(a) $25 per hour for the time required to locate and remove non-public records or for filling special requests;
(b) Up to ten (10) pages at no cost; more than 10 pages, $0.50 for each page plus postage necessary to mail the copies;
(c) $0.10 per name and address for computer-generated lists on paper or labels; $0.20 per name and address for computer-generated lists on paper or labels sorted by specific zip code;
(d) Data files on diskette or CD:
(A) All Licensed Dentists -- $50;
(B) All Licensed Dental Hygienists -- $50;
(C) All Licensees -- $100.
(e) $60 per year for copies of minutes of all Board and committee meetings;
(f) Written verification of licensure -- $2.50 per name; and
(g) Certificate of Standing -- $20.
Stat. Auth.: ORS 183, 192, 670 & 679

Stats. Implemented: ORS 192.420, 192.430 & 192.440

Hist.: DE 11-1984, f. & ef. 5-17-84; DE 1-1988, f. 12-28-88, cert. ef. 2-1-89, DE 1-1989, f. 1-27-89, cert. ef. 2-1-89; Renumbered from 818-001-0080; DE 1-1990, f. 3-19-90, cert. ef. 4-2-90; DE 1-1991(Temp), f. 8-5-91, cert. ef. 8-15-91; DE 2-1991, f. & cert. ef. 12-31-91; OBD 3-1999, f. 6-25-99, cert. ef. 7-1-99
818-001-0087
Fees
(1) The Board adopts the following fees:
(a) Biennial License Fees:
(A) Dental —$390;
(B) Dental — retired —
$0;
(C) Dental Faculty — $335;
(D) Volunteer Dentist —
$0;
(E) Dental Hygiene —$230;
(F) Dental Hygiene — retired
— $0;
(G) Volunteer Dental Hygienist
— $0.
(b) Biennial Permits, Endorsements
or Certificates:
(A) Nitrous Oxide Permit —
$40;
(B) Minimal Sedation Permit
— $75;
(C) Moderate Sedation Permit
— $75;
(D) Deep Sedation Permit —
$75;
(E) General Anesthesia Permit
— $140;
(F) Radiology — $75;
(G) Expanded Function Dental
Assistant — $50;
(H) Expanded Function Orthodontic
Assistant — $50;
(I) Instructor Permits —
$40;
(J) Dental Hygiene Restorative
Functions Endorsement — $50;
(K) Restorative Functions Dental
Assistant — $50;
(L) Anesthesia Dental Assistant
— $50;
(M) Dental Hygiene, Expanded
Practice Permit — $75;
(N) Non-Resident Dental Permit
- $100.00;
(c) Applications for Licensure:
(A) Dental — General and
Specialty — $345;
(B) Dental Faculty — $305;
(C) Dental Hygiene — $180;
(D) Licensure Without Further
Examination — Dental and Dental Hygiene — $790.
(d) Examinations:
(A) Jurisprudence — $0;
(B) Dental Specialty:
(i) If only one candidate applies
for the exam, a fee of $2,000.00 will be required at the time of application; and
(ii) If two candidates apply
for the exam, a fee of $1,000.00 will be required at the time of application; and
(iii) If three or more candidates
apply for the exam, a fee of $750.00 will be required at the time of application.
(e) Duplicate Wall Certificates
— $50.
(2) Fees must be paid at the
time of application and are not refundable.
(3) The Board shall not refund
moneys under $5.01 received in excess of amounts due or to which the
Board has no legal interest
unless the person who made the payment or the person's legal representative requests
a refund in writing within one year of payment to the Board.
Stat. Auth.: ORS 679 & 680
Stats. Implemented: ORS 293.445,
679.060, 679.115, 679.120, 679.250, 680.050, 680.075, 680.200 & 680.205
Hist.: DE 6-1985(Temp), f.
& ef. 9-20-85; DE 3-1986, f. & ef. 3-31-86; DE 1-1987, f. & ef. 10-7-87;
DE 1-1988, f. 12-28-88, cert. ef. 2-1-89, corrected by DE 1-1989, f. 1-27-89, cert.
ef. 2-1-89; Renumbered from 818-001-0085; DE 2-1989(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-30-89;
DE 1-1990, f. 3-19-90, cert. ef. 4-2-90; DE 1-1991(Temp), f. 8-5-91, cert. ef. 8-15-91;
DE 2-1991, f. & cert. ef. 12-31-91; DE 1-1992(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 6-24-92;
DE 2-1993, f. & cert. ef. 7-13-93; OBD 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-8-98; OBD
3-1999, f. 6-25-99, cert. ef. 7-1-99; Administrative correction, 8-2-99; OBD 5-2000,
f. 6-22-00, cert. ef. 7-1-00; OBD 8-2001, f. & cert. ef. 1-8-01; OBD 2-2005,
f. 1-31-05, cert. ef. 2-1-05; OBD 2-2007, f. 4-26-07, cert. ef. 5-1-07; OBD 3-2007,
f. & cert. ef. 11-30-07; OBD 1-2009(Temp), f. 6-11-09, cert. e. 7-1-09 thru
11-1-09; OBD 2-2009, f. 10-21-09, cert. ef. 11-1-09; OBD 1-2010, f. 6-22-10, cert.
ef. 7-1-10; OBD 3-2011(Temp), f. 6-30-11, cert. ef. 7-1-11 thru 12-27-11; OBD 4-2011,
f. & cert. ef. 11-15-11; OBD 1-2012, f. & cert. ef. 1-27-12; OBD 1-2013,
f. 5-15-13, cert. ef. 7-1-13; OBD 1-2014, f. 7-2-14, cert. ef. 8-1-14; OBD 2-2015(Temp),
f. & cert. ef. 6-26-15 thru 12-22-15; OBD 3-2015, f. 9-8-15, cert. ef. 10-1-15
818-001-0090
Board Member Compensation
(1) Board members of the Oregon Board of Dentistry, who are authorized by law to receive compensation for time spent in performance of their official duties, shall receive compensation based on the amount fixed for the standard per diem allowance for the Continental United States which has been authorized by the United States Internal Revenue Service for each day or portion of each day during which the Board member is actually engaged in the performance of official duties. This compensation amount shall be in addition to the reimbursement of travel expenses per Oregon Statewide Travel Policy OAM 40.10.00 PO.
(2) No Board member shall be required to accept compensation or reimbursement of travel expenses while performing their official duties as a Board member.
Stat. Auth.: ORS 679.230

Stats. Implemented: HB 2058, OL Ch. 535 (2009 Laws)

Hist.: OBD 2-2009, f. 10-21-09, cert. ef. 11-1-09

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contained in the Administrative Order filed at the Archives Division,
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