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Civil Aviation (Safety) Regulations


Published: 2001-04-17

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BAHAMAS CIVIL AVIATION (SAFETY) REGULATIONS, 2001 SECTION PART I — ENFORCEMENT OF THESE REGULATIONS PART II — FLIGHT STANDARDS INSPECTORATE PART II — REPORTS, DOCUMENTS, AND RECORDS PART IV — REGISTRATION AND MARKING OF AIRCRAFT PART V — AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT PART VI — AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT PART VII — PERSONNEL LICENSING PART VIII — OPERATION OF AIRCRAFT PART IX — AERIAL WORK OPERATIONS PART X — COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT OPERATIONS PART XI — CARRIAGE OF DANGEROUS GOODS PART XII — GENERAL SCHEDULES

ARRANGEMENT OF REGULATIONS REGULATION 1. Citation. 2. Commencement. 3. Applicable laws and interpretation. 4. Interpretation. PART I ENFORCEMENT OF THESE REGULATIONS 5. Enforcement of Directions. 6. Minister’s Decision. 7. Revocation, Suspension and Variation of Documents. 8. Revocation, Suspension and Variation of Permits. 9. Penalties. 10. Appeal to Supreme Court.

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PART II FLIGHT STANDARDS INSPECTORATE

11. Function of the Flight Standards Inspectorate. 12. Delegation of powers. 13. Authorising Credential. 14. Possession of Credential. 15. Authorized Persons: Powers and Duties. 16. Access and Inspection. 17. Power to Inspect and Copy. 18. Production of Documents and Records. 19. Power to Prevent Aircraft Flying. PART III REPORTS, DOCUMENTS, AND RECORDS 20. Mandatory Reporting. 21. Documents to be carried. 22. Preservation of Documents. 23. Offences in relation to Documents and Records. PART IV REGISTRATION AND MARKING OF AIRCRAFT 24. Aircraft to be registered. 25. Registration of aircraft. 26. Nationality and registration marks. PART V AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT 27. Type Certificate. 28. Certificate of Airworthiness. 29. Airworthiness Directives, Modifications and Repairs. 30. Continued Airworthiness. 31. Aircraft Records. 32. Inspection, Overhaul, Repair, Replacement and Modification. 33. Approval of Maintenance Organizations. 34. Aircraft, engine and propeller Logbooks. 35. Aircraft Weight Schedule.

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PART VI AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENTS AND

EQUIPMENT 36. Instruments and Equipment. 37. Radio Equipment of Aircraft. 38. Minimum Equipment Requirements. 39. Required Instruments and Equipment. PART VII PERSONNEL LICENSING 40. Personnel Licensing Approvals. 41. Valid Airmen Certificates. 42. Instruction in Flying. 43. Aircraft Maintenance Licences. 44. Grant, Renewal and Effect of Flight Crew Licences. 45. Airman Medical Certificate. 46. Airman medical certificate. 47. Validation of Licences. 48. Personal Flying Logbook. 49. Approval of Training Organizations. PART VIII OPERATION OF AIRCRAFT 50. Careless or Reckless Action. 51. Authority of Pilot in Command. 52. Interference with a Crew Member. 53. Applicable Aircraft Requirements. 54. Applicable Flight Crew Requirements. 55. Crew Duties and Responsibilities. 56. All Passenger Carrying Operations. 57. Flight planning and preparation. 58. Applicable Flight Rules. 59. Operations in Controlled Flight. PART IX AERIAL WORK OPERATIONS 60. Aerial Work Activity. 61. Issue of Aerial Application Certificates. 62. Towing, Picking up or Raising of Persons or Articles. 63. Dropping of Animals and Articles. 64. Dropping of Persons. 65. Aerial Photography and Survey from Aircraft. 66. Exhibitions of Flying, Aircraft Races or Contests.

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PART X COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT OPERATIONS 67. Issue of Air Operator’s Certificate. 68. Initial certification required. 69. Continued Conformance. 70. Aircraft Authorized. 71. Security Requirements. 72. Maintenance Requirements. 73. Passenger Requirements. 74. Qualified Personnel. 75. Crew Fatigue. 76. Flight Release Requirements. 77. Mass and Balance and Performance. PART XI CARRIAGE OF DANGEROUS GOODS 78. Shipping and Acceptance of Dangerous Goods. 79. Munitions of War. PART XII GENERAL 80. Accident Reporting and Investigation. 81. Fees. 82. Validation of Documents. 83. Extra-territorial Effect of these Regulations. 84. Application to Aircraft not Registered in The Bahamas. 85. Waivers. 86. Deviations. 87. Exemptions. 88. Power to Prohibit or Restrict Flying. 89. Ultra-Small Aircraft. 90. Transitional provisions.

SCHEDULES Schedule 1 — General Policies, Procedures and Definitions. Schedule 2 — Penalties. Schedule 3 — Aircraft Registration. Schedule 4 — Aircraft and Component Original Certification. Schedule 5 — Continuing Airworthiness of Aircraft. Schedule 6 — Approved Maintenance Organizations. Schedule 7 — Required Instruments and Equipment. Schedule 8 — Personnel Licensing.

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Schedule 9 — Approved Training Organizations. Schedule 10 — Operations of Aircraft. Schedule 11 — Aerial Work Operations. Schedule 12 — Air Operator Certification and Administration. Schedule 13 — Passenger Carrying Requirements for AOC Holders

and Operators of Large Aircraft. Schedule 14 — AOC Personnel Qualification. Schedule 15 — AOC Key Operations Personnel: Duty Periods, Rest

Periods and Flight Time. Schedule 16 — Air Operator Flight Release Requirements. Schedule 17 — Mass and Balance and Performance for Aircraft Used

in Commercial Air Transport. Schedule 18 — Carriage of Dangerous Goods By Air. Schedule 19 — Aircraft Accident Reporting And Investigation

Requirements.

CIVIL AVIATION (SAFETY) REGULATIONS, 2001 (SECTION 5)

[Commencement 17th April, 2001] 1. These Regulations may be cited as the Civil

Aviation (Safety) Regulations, 2001. 2. These Regulations shall come into force on

such date as the Minister may appoint by Notice in the Gazette

3. For the purposes of the Civil Aviation Act and of these Regulations, the provisions of the Convention on International Civil Aviation signed at Chicago on the 7th December, 1944 (“the Chicago Convention”) and the Annexes thereto together with the Standards and Recom- mended Practices established by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) thereunder and such other internationally recognised standards and practices shall be adopted and applied (as appropriate) in The Bahamas.

4. (1) In these Regulations, unless the context otherwise requires —

“Aerial work” means any purpose (other than commercial air transport) for which an aircraft is flown if valuable consideration is given or promised in respect to the business or purpose of the flight;

∗ Date of commencement: 17th April, 2001 (S.I. 146 of 17th September 2001).

S.I. 60/2001

Citation.

Commencement.

Applicable laws and interpretation. Ch. 284.

Interpretation.

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“Aerodrome” means any area of land or water designed, equipped, set apart or commonly used for affording facilities for the landing and departure of aircraft and includes any area or space, whether on the ground, on the roof of a building or elsewhere, which is designed, equipped or set apart for affording facilities for the landing and departure of aircraft capable of descending or climbing vertically, but shall not include any area the use of which for affording facilities for the landing and departure of aircraft has been abandoned and has not been resumed;

“Aerodrome operating minima” in relation to the operation of an aircraft at an aerodrome means the cloud ceiling and runway visual range for take- off, and the decision height or minimum descent height, runway visual range and visual reference for landing, which are the minimum for the operation of that aircraft at that aerodrome;

“Airman” means any person certificated to perform a service relating to an aircraft, maintenance or flight operation;

“Airman certificate” means any certificate issued to an airman under these Regulations;

“Air Operator Certificate” or “AOC” means a certificate issued by The Bahamas or competent authority of another State authorizing the holder to conduct passenger or cargo operations for remuneration, hire or valuable consideration (see definition of “commercial air transport”)

“AOC holder” means the person or entity to which the AOC has been issued.

“Approach to landing” means that portion of the flight of the aircraft, when approaching to land, in which it is descending below a height of 1000 ft above the relevant specified decision height or minimum descent height;

“Appropriate aeronautical radio station” means in relation to an aircraft an aeronautical radio station serving the area in which the aircraft is for the time being;

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“Appropriate air traffic control unit” means in relation to an aircraft the air traffic control unit serving the area in which the aircraft is for the time being;

“Authorized person” means any person authorized by the Minister either generally or in relation to a particular case or class of cases, and references to a person authorized by the Minister include reference to the holder for the time being of any office designated by the Minister;

“Cargo” includes mail and animals; “Certificate of airworthiness” includes any validation

thereof and any flight manual, performance schedule or other document, whatever its title, incorporated by reference in that certificate relating to the certificate of airworthiness;

“Class A airspace”, “Class B airspace”, “Class C airspace”, “Class D airspace” and “Class E airspace” means airspace respectively notified as such, in accordance with the appropriate Inter- national Civil Aviation Organization definition;

“Ceiling” in relation to an aerodrome means the vertical distance from the elevation of the aerodrome to the lowest part of any cloud visible from the aerodrome which is sufficient to obscure more than one-half of the sky so visible;

“Pilot in command” in relation to an aircraft means the member of the flight crew designated as pilot in command of that aircraft by the operator thereof, or, failing such a person, the person who is for the time being the pilot in command of the aircraft;

“Commercial air transport” means an undertaking whose business includes the carriage by air of passengers or cargo for remuneration, hire or valuable consideration that is not considered aerial work;

“Competent authority” means in relation to The Bahamas, the Minister, and in relation to any other country the authority responsible under the law of that country for promoting the safety of civil aviation;

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“Contracting state” means any State (including The Bahamas) which is party to the Convention on International Civil Aviation;

“Controlled airspace” means airspace which has been notified as Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D or Class E airspace;

“Second in command” in relation to an aircraft means a pilot who in performing his duties as such is subject to the direction of another pilot carried in the aircraft;

“Crew member” means any person required to perform duties on an aircraft in flight;

“Flight” and “to fly” in relation to an aircraft means the time from which it lifts off the surface until it again lands on the surface;

“Flight crew” in relation to an aircraft means those members of the crew of the aircraft who respectively undertake to act as pilot and flight engineer of the aircraft;

“Flight simulator” means apparatus by means of which flight conditions in an aircraft are simulated on the ground;

“General aviation operation” means any aircraft flight operation other than for the purpose or business of commercial air transport or aerial work.

“Licence” includes any certificate of competency or certificate of validity issued with the licence or required to be held in connection with the licence by the law of the country in which the licence is granted;

“Logbook” in the case of an aircraft logbook, engine logbook or variable pitch propeller logbook, or personal flying logbook, includes a record kept either in a book, or by any other means approved by the Minister in the particular case;

“Maximum total weight authorized” in relation to an aircraft means the maximum total weight of the aircraft and its contents at which the aircraft may take off anywhere in the world, in the most favorable circumstances in accordance with the certificate of airworthiness in force in respect of the aircraft;

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“Military aircraft” means the naval, military or air force aircraft of any country and any aircraft in respect of which there is in force a certificate issued by the Minister that the aircraft is to be treated for the purposes of these Regulations as a military aircraft;

“Minister” means the Minister responsible for Civil Aviation;

“Night” means the time between half an hour after sunset until half an hour before sunrise, sunset and sunrise being determined at surface level;

“Notified” means shown in any of the following publications for the time being in force and issued in The Bahamas whether before or after the coming into operation of these Regulations that is to say, “NOTAMs (notices to airmen)”, “Aeronautical information publications (AIP)”, or such other official publications so issued for the purpose of enabling any of the provisions of these Regulations to be complied with;

“Operator” means any person who is responsible for the aircraft for a particular flight;

“Parascending parachute” means a parachute which is towed by cable in such a manner as to cause it to ascend;

“Passenger” means a person other than a member of the crew;

“Pilot in command” in relation to an aircraft means a person who for the time being is in charge of the piloting of the aircraft without being under the direction of any other pilot in the aircraft;

“Prescribed” means prescribed by regulations made by the Minister under these Regulations, and the expression “prescribe” shall be construed accordingly;

“Pressurised aircraft” means an aircraft provided with means of maintaining in any compartment a pressure greater than that of the surrounding atmosphere;

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“Record” includes, in addition to a record in writing — (a) any disc, tape, sound-track or other device

in which sounds or signals are embodied so as to be capable (with or without the aid of some other instrument) of being reproduced therefrom;

(b) any film, tape or other device in which visual images are embodied so as to be capable (as aforesaid) of being reproduced therefrom; and

(c) any photograph; and any reference to a copy of a record includes, in the case of a record falling within paragraph (A) only of this definition, a transcript of the sounds or signals embodied therein, in the case of a record falling within paragraph (B) only of this definition, a still reproduction of the images embodied therein. and in the case of a record falling within both those paragraphs such a transcript together with such a still reproduction; “Replacement” in relation to any part of an aircraft or

its equipment includes the removal and replacement of that part whether or not by the same part, and whether or not any work is done on it; but does not include the removal and replacement of a part which is designed to be removable solely for the purpose of enabling another part to be inspected, repaired, removed or replaced or cargo to be loaded;

“To land” in relation to aircraft includes alighting on the water;

“Valuable consideration” means the exchange of services, goods, equipment, or money.

(2) Additional definitions are contained in the Schedules to these Regulations, beginning with Schedule 1.

(3) An aircraft shall be deemed to be in flight from the moment when, after the embarkation of its crew for the purpose of taking off, it first moves under its own power, until the moment when it next comes to rest after landing; and the expressions “a flight,” “to fly” and “flight time” shall be construed accordingly.

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(4) Every person employed or engaged in an aircraft in flight on the business of the aircraft shall be deemed to be a member of the crew thereof.

(5) References in these Regulations to the operator of an aircraft are, for the purposes of the application of any provision of these Regulations in relation to any particular aircraft, references to the person who at the relevant time has the management of that aircraft, and cognate expressions shall be construed accordingly.

(6) A power to issue directions under these Regula- tions shall include the power to make different provisions with respect to different classes of aircraft, aerodromes, persons or property and with respect to different circum- stances and with respect to different parts of The Bahamas and to make such incidental and supplementary provisions as are necessary or expedient for carrying out the purposes of these Regulations.

(7) Any power conferred by these Regulations to issue, make, serve or grant any instrument shall be construed as including a power exercisable, in the like manner and subject to the like conditions, if any, to vary, revoke, cancel or otherwise terminate the instrument.

(8) For the purpose of these Regulations, the term “instrument” will refer to a document issued by the Government of The Bahamas and includes any regula- tions, direction, instruction, rule or other requirement, any notice and any certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption, authorizations, logbook record or other document. The term “instruments” will refer to aircraft components used by the flight crew for the purpose of flight and navigation.

PART I ENFORCEMENT OF THESE REGULATIONS

5. Any person who without reasonable excuse fails to comply with any directive given to him under any provision of these Regulations or directions made there- under shall be deemed for the purposes of these Regula- tions to have contravened that provision.

Enforcement of directions.

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6. The Minister may, if he thinks fit, provisionally issue a decision to take action to enforce the regulations that have been contravened, including but not limited to —

(a) re-examination for original certification basis or competence;

(b) assess a monetary penalty for contravention of the requirements of a regulation or Schedule;

(c) suspend or vary a document; (d) revoke, suspend or vary a permit; and (e) prevent flying. 7. (1) The Minister may, if he thinks fit,

provisionally suspend or vary any certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption, authorizations or other document issued, granted or having effect under these Regulations, pending inquiry into or consideration of the case. The Minister may, on sufficient ground being shown to his satisfaction after due inquiry, revoke, suspend or vary any such certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption, authorizations or other document.

(2) The holder or any person having the possession or custody of any certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption or other document which has been revoked, suspended or varied under these Regulations shall surrender it to the Minister within a reasonable time after being required to do so by the Minister.

(3) The breach of any condition subject to which any certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption or other document, other than a licence issued in respect of an aerodrome, has been granted or issued, or which has effect under these Regulations shall, in the absence of provision to the contrary in the document, render the document invalid during the continuance of the breach.

(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (1) of this regulation, a flight manual, performance schedule or other document incorporated by reference in the certificate of airworthiness may be varied on sufficient ground being shown to the satisfaction of the Minister, whether or not after due inquiry.

8. (1) Subject to the provisions of this regulation, the Minister may revoke, suspend or vary any permit to which this regulation applies.

Minister’s decision.

Revocation, suspension and variation of documents.

Revocation, suspension and variation of permits.

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(2) Save as provided by paragraph (3), the Minister may exercise his powers under paragraph (1) only after notifying the permit holder of his intention to do so and after due consideration of the case.

(3) If, by reason of the urgency of the matter, it appears to the Minister to be necessary for him to do so, he may provisionally suspend or vary a permit to which this regulation applies without complying with the require- ments of paragraph (2); but he shall in any such case comply with those requirements as soon thereafter as is reasonably practicable and shall then, in the light of his due consideration of the case, either:

(a) revoke the provisional suspension or variation of the permit; or

(b) substitute therefor a definitive revocation, susp- ension or variation, which, if a definitive suspension, may be for the same or a different period as the provisional suspension (if any) or, if a definitive variation, may be in the same or different terms as the provisional variation (if any).

(4) The powers vested in the Minister by paragraph (1) or paragraph (3) may be exercised by him whenever, in his judgment and whether or not by reason of anything done or omitted to be done by the permit-holder or otherwise connected with the permit-holder, it is necessary or expedient that the permit-holder should not enjoy, or should no longer enjoy, the rights conferred on him by a permit to which this regulation applies or should enjoy them subject to such limitations or qualifications as the Minister may determine. In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing, the Minister may exercise his said powers if:

(a) it appears to him that the person to whom the permit was granted has committed a breach of any condition to which it is subject;

(b) it appears to him that any agreement between the Government of The Bahamas and the Govern- ment of any other country in pursuance of which or in reliance on which the permit was granted is no longer in force or that that other Government has committed a breach thereof;

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(c) it appears to him that the person to whom the permit was granted, or such other Government as aforesaid (that is to say, a Government which is a party to such an agreement as aforesaid with the Government of The Bahamas), or the aeronautical authorities of the country con- cerned, have acted in a manner which is inconsistent with or prejudicial to the operation in good faith, and according to its object and purpose, of any such agreement as aforesaid, or have engaged in unfair, discriminatory or re- strictive practices to the prejudice of the holder of a licence granted under regulation 8 of the Civil Aviation (Licensing of Air Services) Re- gulations, 1976 or the holder of a permit granted under regulation 23 of the said regulations in his operation of air services to or from points in the country concerned; or

(d) it appears to him that the person to whom the permit was granted, having been granted it as a person designated by the Government of a country other than The Bahamas for the purposes of any such agreement as aforesaid, is no longer so designated or that that person has so conducted himself, or that such circumstances have arisen in relation to him, as to make it necessary or expedient to disregard or qualify the consequences of his being so designated.

(5) The permit-holder or any person having the possession or custody of any permit which has been revoked, suspended or varied under this regulation shall surrender it to the Minister within a reasonable time of being required by him to do so.

(6) The breach of any condition subject to which any permit to which this regulation applies has been granted shall render the permit invalid during the continuance of the breach.

(7) The permits to which this regulation applies are permissions granted by the Minister under these Regula- tions, and any approvals or authorizations of, or consents to, any matter which the Minister has granted, or is deemed to have granted, in pursuance of a permission which he has so granted.

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(8) References in this regulation to the “permit- holder” are references to the person to whom any permit to which this regulation applies has been granted or is deemed to have been granted.

9. (1) If any provision of these Regulations or any directions thereunder is contravened in relation to an aircraft, the operator of that aircraft and the pilot in command thereof shall (without prejudice to the liability of any other person under these Regulations for that contra- vention) be deemed for the purposes of the following provisions of this regulation to have contravened that provision unless he proves that the contravention occurred without his consent or connivance and that he exercised all due diligence to prevent that contravention.

(2) If it is proved that an act or omission of any person which would otherwise have been a contravention of these Regulations was due to any cause not avoidable by the exercise of reasonable care by that person the act or omission shall be deemed not to be a contravention by that person of that provision.

(3) Where a person is charged with contravening any regulation or associated Schedule by reason of his having been a member of the flight crew of an aircraft on a flight for the purpose of commercial air transport or aerial work the flight shall be treated (without prejudice to the liability of any other person under these Regulations) as not having been for that purpose if he proves that he neither knew nor suspected that the flight was for that purpose.

(4) If any person contravenes these Regulations or the applicable Schedules, not being a provision referred to in paragraphs (5) and (6) of this regulation, he shall be guilty, of an offence and liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding six hundred dollars for each offence and each flight.

(5) If any person contravenes any provision specified in Part A of Schedule 2 he shall be guilty of an offence and liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding fifteen hundred dollars for each offence and each flight.

(6) If any person contravenes any provision specified in Part B of the said Schedule he shall be guilty of an offence and liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding three thousand dollars for each offence and each

Penalties.

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flight and on conviction on indictment to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years or both.

10. (1) An appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court from any decision of the Minister that a person is not a fit person to hold a licence to act as an aircraft maintenance technician, member of a flight crew of an aircraft, or as the management of an approved maintenance or training organization, or the management of an air operator, and if the court is satisfied on the evidence submitted to the Minister he was wrong in so deciding, the court may reverse the Minister’s decision and the Minister shall give effect to the court’s determination:

Provided that an appeal shall not lie from a decision of the Minister that a person is not qualified to hold the licence by reason of a deficiency in his knowledge, experience, competence, skill, physical or mental fitness.

(2) The respondent to any appeal under this regula- tion shall be the Attorney General of The Bahamas.

(3) For the purposes of any provision relating to the time within which an appeal may be brought, the Minister’s decision shall be deemed to have been taken on the date on which the Minister furnished a statement of his reasons for the decision to the applicant for the licence, or as the case may be, the holder or former holder of it.

PART II FLIGHT STANDARDS INSPECTORATE

11. The Minister shall establish a Flight Standards Inspectorate comprised of technically qualified aviation safety inspectors to conduct the necessary technical evaluations, inspections and investigations required to meet The Bahamas’ ICAO responsibilities for safety oversight for:

(a) registration of aircraft; (b) airworthiness of aircraft; (c) personnel licensing; (d) operations of aircraft; (e) aerial work; (f) commercial air transport; (g) carriage of dangerous goods; and (h) accident investigation.

Appeal to Supreme Court.

Function of the Flight Standards Inspectorate.

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12. (1) The Manager of the Flight Standards Inspectorate shall have the delegated authority to issue any licence, certificate, approval or other written document in support of the functions assigned to it and to perform such acts and to conduct such investigations on behalf of the Director pursuant to and in accordance with these Regulations.

(2) The Flight Standards Inspectorate may by means of Aviation Information Circulars (AIC), Airworthiness Notices (AWN), Aeronautical Information Publications (AIP), Notices to Airmen (NOTAMS), Notices of Non Compliance (NNC), and other documents develop, issue and revise instructions, directions, rules and procedures or prescribe requirements to give effect to the provisions of the Chicago Convention and the Annexes thereto and the Standards and Recommended Practices of ICAO as well as the provisions of the Civil Aviation Act and of these Regulations, relating to the operation, use, possession, maintenance or operations of aircraft flying in or over The Bahamas or of aircraft registered in The Bahamas or of aircraft operated by the holder of an Air Operator Certificate (AOC) issued under these Regulations.

13. The aviation safety inspectors assigned to the Flight Standards Inspectorate shall have the status of authorised persons under these Regulations and shall be issued a unique credential for the performance of their functions.

14. No person shall possess or use these aviation safety inspector credentials unless:

(a) he is employed by the Government of The Bahamas to perform the functions of the Flight Standards Inspectorate; and

(b) he is using the credential in the performance of a specific function of the Flight Standards Inspec- torate.

15. (1) The Minister, or any authorized person, shall have the right to carry out audits or surveillance or to require any person to produce documents or any other article for the purpose of detecting any contravention of these Regulations.

Delegation of powers.

Authorising credential.

Possession of credential.

Authorized persons’ powers and duties.

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(2) Any person who, having been required in terms of paragraph (1) to produce any document or other article, without lawful cause makes a statement that is false in any material particular, or fails to produce any document or other article which is in his possession or control or to which he has access, shall be guilty of an offence.

(3) An authorized person shall have the right to enter and inspect any aerodrome, hanger or other place (at which an aircraft is located or stored), aircraft or any organization performing tasks and services related to aviation safety and to inspect any aircraft, aircraft equipment, components, materials, facilities, personnel or crew members for the purpose of ensuring that the provisions of the Act and these Regulations have been, or are being complied with.

(4) Where it appears to any authorized person that an aircraft is intended or likely to be flown in such circumstances that the flight would involve an offence against these Regulations or be a cause of danger to persons in the aircraft or to persons or property on the ground, he may take such action by way of detention of the aircraft or such other action necessary for the purpose of inspecting the aircraft or causing the circumstances of the flight to be investigated.

(5) Where an aircraft has been detained pursuant to (4) above such aircraft shall not be operated until the Minister, being satisfied that these Regulations are being complied with, approves or until such modifications or repairs have been effected as the Minister considers necessary to render the aircraft fit for flight.

(6) For the purpose of exercising his responsibilities under these Regulations any authorized person shall be issued with and carry at all times the means of identifica- tion referred to in regulation 13.

(7) No person shall intentionally obstruct or impede any authorized person acting in the exercise of his powers or the performance of his duties under these Regulations.

16. (1) The Minister may cause such evaluations, inspections, investigations, tests, experiment, and flight trials to be made as it deems necessary for the purposes of these Regulations. Any person authorized in writing by the Minister to conduct these inspections, investigations and

Access and inspection.

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observations may, at any reasonable time, inspect any aircraft, personnel, facilities, and records in operations subject to these Regulations. This access shall be free and uninterrupted.

(2) The Director or any person authorized shall, have the right of access at all reasonable times —

(a) to any aerodrome for the purpose of inspecting the aerodrome or any aircraft on the aerodrome or any document which it has power, in terms of these Regulations, to demand, or for the purpose of detaining the aircraft in terms of these Regulations;

(b) to any place, whether public or private, where an aircraft is located for the purpose of inspecting the aircraft or any document which it or such person has power, in terms of these Regulations, to demand or for the purpose of detaining the aircraft in terms of these Regulations;

(c) to any aircraft, for the purpose of checking, whilst in flight, the performance of the aircraft or any of its equipment and the efficiency of flight crew members in the performance of their duties:

Provided that the safety of commercial operations of the aircraft shall not be unduly prejudiced by the exercise of the right of access in terms of this regulation.

17. (1) An authorized person shall have the power to inspect and copy any certificate, licence, logbook, docu- ment or record which he has the power pursuant to these Regulations and any directions issued thereunder to require to be produced to him.

(2) No person may obstruct, impede or otherwise interfere with the copying of the documents in paragraph (1) by an authorised person.

18. (1) Each person involved or participating in an aviation activity shall, within a reasonable time after being requested to do so by an authorized person, cause to be produced to that person the certificates and documents which he is required to have, carry, complete or preserve during the course of his activities. This will include airmen and medical certificates, operational and maintenance manuals and records as required by these Regulations and the Schedules applicable to that activity.

Power to inspect and copy.

Production of documents and records.

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(2) The holder of a licence granted or rendered valid under these Regulations shall, within a reasonable time after being requested to do so by an authorized person, cause to be produced to that person his licence, including any certificate of validation. The requirements of this paragraph shall be deemed to have been complied with, except in relation to licences required by these Regulations to be carried in the aircraft or kept at an aerodrome, if the licence requested is produced within five days after the request has been made to the Flight Standards Inspecto- rate.

19. (1) If it appears to the Minister or an authorized person that any aircraft is intended or likely to be flown —

(a) in such circumstances that the flight would be a cause of danger to any person or property whether or not in the aircraft and in contra- vention of any provision of these Regulations or any directions issued thereunder; or

(b) while in a condition unfit for the flight, whether or not the flight would otherwise be in contra- vention of any provision of these Regulations or of any directions issued thereunder,

the Minister or that authorized person may direct the operator or the pilot in command of the aircraft that he is not to permit the aircraft to make the particular flight or any other flight of such description as may be specified in the direction, until the direction has been revoked by the Minister or by an authorized person, and the Minister or that authorized person may take such steps as are necessary to detain the aircraft.

(2) For the purposes of paragraph (1) of this regulation the Minister or any authorized person may enter upon and inspect any aircraft.

(3) If it appears to the Minister or an authorized person that any aircraft is intended or likely to be flown in such circumstances that any provision under these Regulations or provision relating to the licensing of air transport in The Bahamas would be contravened in relation to the flight the Minister or that authorized person may direct the operator or the pilot in command of the aircraft that he is not to permit the aircraft to make a particular flight or any other flight of such description as may be specified in the direction until the direction has

Power to prevent aircraft flying.

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been revoked by the Minister or any authorized person, may take such steps as are necessary to detain the aircraft.

(4) For the purposes of paragraph (3) of this regulation the Minister or any authorized person may enter upon any aerodrome and may enter upon and inspect any aircraft.

PART III REPORTS, DOCUMENTS, AND RECORDS 20. (1) Every person who is the operator or pilot in

command of an aircraft which is registered in The Bahamas or a commercial air transport aircraft not registered in The Bahamas but operated by the holder of an air operator’s certificate issued in The Bahamas; or carries on the business of inspecting, manufacturing, repairing or overhauling such an aircraft, or any equipment or part thereof; or signs a release to service, or release to service in respect of such an aircraft, part or equipment shall make the reports to the Minister —

(a) which are specified in these Regulations and applicable Schedules; or

(b) upon his request for such information as specified in a notice in writing served upon the person, being information which is in this person’s possession or control and which relates to a reportable occurrence which has been reported by him or by another person to the Minister in accordance with this regulation.

(2) The reports shall be made within such time, by such means, and shall contain such information as is so specified and it shall be presented in such form as the Minister may require.

(3) In this regulation “reportable occurrence” means —

(a) any incident relating to such an aircraft or any defect in or malfunctioning of such an aircraft or any part or equipment of such an aircraft, being an incident, malfunctioning or defect endanger- ing, or which, if not corrected, would endanger, the aircraft, its occupants, or any other person; and

Mandatory reporting.

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(b) any defect in or malfunctioning of any facility on the ground used or intended to be used for purposes of or in connection with the operation of such an aircraft, being a defect or malfunc- tioning endangering, or which, if not corrected, would endanger, such an aircraft or its occu- pants.

(4) Subject to paragraph (1)(a) of this regulation, nothing in this regulation shall require a person to report any occurrence which he has reason to believe has been or will be reported by another person to the Minister in accordance with this regulation.

(5) A person shall not make any report under this regulation if he knows or has reason to believe that the report is false in any particular.

21. (1) An aircraft shall not fly in or over The Bahamas unless it carries the documents which it is required to carry under the law of the country in which it is registered.

(2) An aircraft registered in The Bahamas shall, when in flight, carry documents in accordance with these Regulations provided that, if the flight is intended to begin and end at the same aerodrome and does not include passage over the territory of any country other than The Bahamas, the documents may be kept at that aerodrome instead of being carried in the aircraft.

22. (1) A person required by these Regulations and the applicable Schedules to preserve any document or record shall continue to preserve that document or record, and in the event of his death the duty to preserve the document or record shall fall upon his designated representative.

(2) A person assigned under these Regulations and the applicable Schedules to preserve any document or record shall continue to preserve that document or record until such time as the responsibility may be transferred to another assigned person.

23. (1) A person shall not with intent to deceive — (a) use any certificate, licence, approval, permission,

exemption or other document issued or required

Documents to be carried.

Preservation of documents.

Offences in relation to documents and records.

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by or under these Regulations which has been forged, altered, revoked or suspended, or to which he is not entitled; or

(b) lend any certificate, licence, approval, permis- sion, exemption or other document issued or having effect or required by or under these Regulations to, or allow it to be used by, any other person; or

(c) make any false representation for the purpose of procuring for himself or any other person the grant, issue, renewal or variation of any such certificate, licence, approval, permission or exemption or other document,

and in this paragraph a reference to a certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption or other document includes a copy or purported copy thereof.

(2) A person shall not intentionally damage, alter or render illegible any logbook or other record required by or under these Regulations to be maintained or any entry made therein, or —

(a) knowingly make, or procure or assist in the making of, any false entry in or material omission from any such logbook or record; or

(b) destroy any such logbook or record during the period for which it is required under these Regulations to be preserved.

(3) All entries made in writing in any logbook or record referred to in paragraph (2) of this regulation shall be made in ink or indelible pencil.

(4) A person shall not purport to issue any certificate for the purposes of these Regulations or any directions made thereunder unless he is authorized to do so under these Regulations.

(5) A person shall not issue any such certificate as aforesaid unless he has satisfied himself that all statements in the certificate are correct.

PART IV REGISTRATION AND MARKING OF AIRCRAFT

24. (1) An aircraft shall not fly in or over The Bahamas unless it is registered in —

(a) a Contracting State; or

Aircraft to be registered.

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(b) some other country in relation to which there is in force an agreement between the Government of The Bahamas and the Government of that country which makes provision for the flight over The Bahamas of aircraft registered in that country:

Provided that this paragraph shall not apply to any kite or captive v balloon.

(2) If an aircraft flies over The Bahamas in contra- vention of paragraph (1) of this regulation in such manner or circumstances that if the aircraft had been registered in The Bahamas an offence against these Regulations would have been committed, the like offence shall be deemed to have been committed in respect of that aircraft.

25. (1) The Minister shall, subject to the provisions of this Part, register aircraft in The Bahamas and for this purpose shall cause a register to be kept and may record therein the particulars specified in paragraph (7).

(2) Subject to the provisions of this regulation, an aircraft shall not be registered or continue to be registered in The Bahamas if it appears to the Minister that —

(a) the aircraft is registered outside The Bahamas and that such registration does not cease by operation of law upon the aircraft being regis- tered in The Bahamas;

(b) an unqualified person holds any legal or beneficial interest by way of ownership in the aircraft or any share therein;

(c) it would be inexpedient in the public interest for the aircraft to be or to continue to be registered in The Bahamas; or

(d) the aircraft does not qualify for the issue of a certificate of airworthiness in accordance with the provisions of regulation 28.

(3) The following persons and no others shall be qualified to hold a legal or beneficial interest by way of ownership in an aircraft registered in The Bahamas or a share therein —

(a) the Government of The Bahamas; (b) a citizen or permanent resident of The Bahamas

or other such persons as the Minister shall approve;

Registration of aircraft.

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(c) a company incorporated in The Bahamas under the Companies Act and having its principal place of business in The Bahamas.

(4) If any unqualified person residing or having a place of business in The Bahamas holds a legal or beneficial interest by way of ownership in an aircraft, or a share therein, the Minister, upon being satisfied that the aircraft may otherwise be properly so registered, may register the aircraft in The Bahamas and such person shall not cause or permit the aircraft, while it is registered in pursuance of this paragraph, to be used for the purpose of commercial air transport or aerial work.

(5) If an aircraft is sold under a contract of hire- purchase, let on hire or chartered by demise to a person qualified under paragraph (3), the Minister may, whether or not an unqualified person is entitled as owner to a legal or beneficial interest therein, register the aircraft in The Bahamas in the name of the hire purchaser, lessee or charterer upon being satisfied that the aircraft may otherwise be properly so registered, and subject to the provisions of this regulation the aircraft may remain so registered during the continuation of the contract, lease or charter.

(6) Application for the registration of an aircraft in The Bahamas shall be made in writing to the Minister, and shall include or be accompanied by such particulars and evidence relating to the aircraft and the ownership and chartering thereof as the Minister may require to enable him to determine whether the aircraft may properly be registered in The Bahamas and to issue the certificate referred to in paragraph (8).

(7) Upon receiving an application for the registration of an aircraft in The Bahamas and being satisfied that the aircraft may properly be so registered, the Minister shall register the aircraft, wherever it may be, and shall include in the register the following particulars —

(a) the number of the certificate; (b) the nationality mark of the aircraft, and the

registration mark assigned to it by the Minister; (c) the name of the constructor of the aircraft and its

designation; (d) the serial number of the aircraft; and

Ch. 308.

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(e) (i) the name and address of every person who is entitled as owner to a legal interest in the aircraft or a share therein, or, in the case of an aircraft which is the subject of a charter by demise, the name and address of the charterer by demise; and

(ii) in the case of an aircraft registered in pursuance of paragraph (4) or (5) of this regulation, an indication that it is so registered.

(8) The Minister shall furnish to the person in whose name the aircraft is registered (hereinafter in this regulation referred to as “the registered owner”) a certificate of registration, which shall include the particulars specified in paragraph (7) and the date on which the certificate was issued.

(9) The Minister may grant to any person qualified under paragraph (3) an aircraft dealer’s certificate if the Minister is satisfied that such person has a place of business in The Bahamas for buying and selling aircraft.

(10) Subject to paragraphs (4) and (5), if at any time after an aircraft has been registered in The Bahamas an unqualified person becomes entitled to a legal or beneficial interest by way of ownership in the aircraft or a share therein, the registration of the aircraft shall thereupon become void and the certificate of registration shall forthwith be returned by the registered owner to the Minister.

(11) Any person who is the registered owner of an aircraft registered in The Bahamas shall inform the Minister forthwith in writing of —

(a) any change in the particulars which were furnished to the Minister upon application being made for the registration of the aircraft;

(b) the destruction of the aircraft, or its permanent withdrawal from use; or

(c) in the case of an aircraft registered in pursuance of paragraph (5), the termination of the demise charter.

(12) Any person who becomes the owner of an aircraft registered in The Bahamas shall within twenty- eight days thereof inform the Minister in writing to that effect.

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(13) The Minister may, whenever it appears to be necessary or appropriate to do so for giving effect to this Part of these Regulations or for bringing up to date or otherwise correcting the particulars entered on the register, amend the register or, if he thinks fit, may cancel the registration of the aircraft, and shall cancel that registration within two months of being satisfied that there has been a change in the ownership of the aircraft.

(14) The Minister may issue directions to adapt or modify the foregoing provisions of this regulation as he deems necessary or expedient for the purpose of providing for the temporary transfer of aircraft to or from The Bahamas register, either generally or in relation to a particular case or class of cases.

(15) In this regulation references to an interest in an aircraft do not include references to an interest in an aircraft to which a person is entitled only by virtue of his membership of a flying club and the reference in paragraph (11) to the registered owner of an aircraft includes in the case of a deceased person, his legal personal representative, and in the case of a body corporate which has been dissolved, its successor.

(16) Nothing in this regulation shall require the Minister to cancel the registration of an aircraft unless in his opinion it would be in expedient in the public interest to do so.

26. (1) An aircraft(other than aircraft permitted by or under these Regulations to fly without being registered) shall not fly in or over The Bahamas unless it bears painted thereon or affixed thereto, in the manner required by the law of the country in which it is registered, the nationality and registration marks required by that law.

(2) The marks to be borne by aircraft registered in The Bahamas shall comply with Schedule 3.

(3) An aircraft shall not bear any marks which purport to indicate —

(a) that the aircraft is registered in a country in which it is not in fact registered; or

(b) that the aircraft is a State aircraft (as defined in the Chicago Convention at Article 3) of a particular country if it is not in fact such an

Nationality and registration marks.

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aircraft, unless the appropriate authority of that country has sanctioned the bearing of such marks.

PART V AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT

27. (1) A Type Certificate with respect to an aircraft, engine or propeller means a document issued by the manufacturer, and approved by the appropriate authority of the State of manufacture, certifying that the type design of the aircraft, engine or propeller and of the variants specified on the Type Data Sheet, comply with the certification basis to which the certificate refers. The Type Certificate includes; the type certificate data sheet, the type design, the operating limitations and any other conditions or limitations prescribed for the aircraft.

(2) Any person who intends to operate an aircraft to be registered in The Bahamas for commercial air transport or aerial work purposes shall apply to the Minister for the issue, acceptance or validation of a Type Certificate as provided in Schedule 4 for that aircraft, in accordance with this regulation and the requirements of the Minister from time to time.

(3) An applicant for a Type Certificate of an aircraft, or for the acceptance or validation thereof, shall submit with the application detailed data identifying the airworthiness standards to which the aircraft was designed and data which describes the design, construction and performance of that aircraft.

(4) The Minister shall accept or validate a Type Certificate, in respect of any aircraft, engine or propeller that is imported into The Bahamas, subject to such conditions or limitations as it shall consider appropriate and in accordance with Schedule 4, provided that —

(a) the airworthiness authority of the State of manufacture has issued a Type Certificate on the basis of Federal Aviation Regulations or Joint Air Regulations; and

(b) the Type Certificate approval basis meets the airworthiness requirements laid down by the Minister;

Type Certificate.

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in any other case, the Minister may in its discretion accept or validate a Type Certificate that is issued by the airworthiness authority of the State of manufacture and the Type Certificate approval basis meets the airworthiness requirements laid down by the Minister.

(5) It shall be an offence for a person to maintain or operate an aircraft contrary to the Type Certificate that was used in the issuance of the certificate of airworthiness.

28. (1) An aircraft shall not fly in or over The Bahamas unless there is in force in respect thereof a certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid in under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered, and any conditions subject to which the certificate was issued or rendered valid are complied with:

Provided that the foregoing prohibition shall not apply to flights, beginning and ending in The Bahamas without passing over any other country, of —

(a) an aircraft flying in accordance with a Special Airworthiness Certificate issued pursuant to Schedule 5; or

(b) an aircraft flying in accordance with the condi- tions of a permit to fly issued by the Minister in respect of that aircraft.

(2) In the case of an aircraft registered in The Bahamas the certificate of airworthiness referred to in paragraph (1) shall be a certificate issued in accordance with the provisions of these Regulations.

(3) The Minister shall issue in respect of any aircraft a certificate of airworthiness if he is satisfied that the aircraft is fit to fly having regard to —

(a) the design, construction, workmanship and materials of the aircraft (including in particular any engines fitted therein), and of any equipment carried in the aircraft which he considers necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft; and

(b) the results of flying trials, and such other tests of the aircraft as he may require:

Provided that, if the Minister has issued a certificate of airworthiness in respect of an aircraft which, in his opinion, is a prototype aircraft or a modification of a

Certificate of airworthiness.

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prototype aircraft, he may dispense with flying trials in the case of any other aircraft if he is satisfied that it conforms to such prototype or modification.

(4) Every certificate of airworthiness shall specify such conditions as are, in the opinion of the Minister, appropriate to the aircraft in accordance with Schedule 5 and the certificate shall be issued subject to the condition that the aircraft shall be flown only for the purposes indicated on that certificate or associated certificates.

(5) The Minister may issue the certificate of airworthiness subject to such other conditions relating to the airworthiness of the aircraft as he thinks fit.

(6) The certificate of airworthiness may designate the performance group of the aircraft.

(7) The Minister may, subject to such conditions as he thinks fit, issue a certificate of validation rendering valid for the purposes of these Regulations a certificate of airworthiness issued in respect of any aircraft under the law of any country other than The Bahamas.

(8) Subject to the provisions of these Regulations, a certificate of airworthiness or validation issued under this regulation shall remain in force for such period as may be specified on the certificate, but may be reviewed by the Minister from time to time to determine that the aircraft conforms to the applicable airworthiness requirements.

(9) A certificate of airworthiness or a certificate of validation issued in respect of an aircraft shall cease to be in force —

(a) if the aircraft, or such of its equipment as is necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft, is overhauled, repaired or modified, or if any part of the aircraft or of such equipment is removed or is replaced, otherwise than in a manner and with material of a type approved by the Minister either generally or in relation to a class of aircraft or to the particular aircraft;

(b) until the completion of any inspection of the aircraft or of any such equipment as aforesaid, being an inspection made for the purpose of ascertaining whether the aircraft remains air- worthy and —

(i) classified as mandatory by the Minister; or

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(ii) required by a maintenance program ap- proved by the Minister in relation to that aircraft; or

(c) until the completion to the satisfaction of the Minister of any modification of the aircraft or of any such equipment as aforesaid, being a modification required by the Minister for the purpose of ensuring that the aircraft remains airworthy.

(10) Nothing in these Regulations shall oblige the Minister to accept an application for the issue of a certificate of airworthiness or validation or for the variation or renewal of any such certificate when the application is not supported by such reports from such approved persons as the Minister may specify (either generally or in a particular case or class of cases).

29. (1) In the interest of safety, the Minister may order that an aircraft registered in The Bahamas or operated by a holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations, aircraft engine, propeller or component shall be modified or undergo special inspections. Such orders shall constitute Airworthiness Directives and compliance is mandatory. Airworthiness Directives, or their equivalent, issued by other contracting States and Mandatory Service Bulletins issued by an aircraft manufacturer shall be complied with.

(2) Each owner or operator of a Bahamas registered aircraft and each holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations shall ensure that he receives all Airworthiness Directives and Mandatory Service Bulletins that affect his aircraft and that are issued by the Minister, the authority in the State of manufacture, the type certificate holder or the manufacturer.

(3) On the issue of an applicable Airworthiness Directive or Mandatory Service Bulletin the owner or operator of a Bahamas registered aircraft and each holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations shall take such action as shall be prescribed by the Minister and shall record the details of all actions taken in the logbook and other technical records of the aircraft. Mandatory, or optional, repairs or modifications shall be embodied only in accordance with approved data specified and in accordance with the instructions issued by the Minister or the State of manufacture, the type certificate holder or the manufacturer, as the case may be.

Airworthiness Directives, modifications and repairs.

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(4) All modifications or repairs carried out shall be subject to approval by the Minister in accordance with detailed drawings and other technical data adequate to define completely the proposed modification and using approved materials, parts and processes conforming to the manufacturer’s specifications and in accordance with a technical assessment showing compliance with an ap- proved design standard.

30. (1) An aircraft registered in The Bahamas in respect of which a certificate of airworthiness is in force shall not fly unless —

(a) the aircraft (including in particular its engines), together with its equipment and radio station, is maintained in accordance with a maintenance program developed in accordance with the Regulations applicable to the type of operation;

(b) the required inspections of the aircraft have been completed in accordance with the Regulations applicable to the type of operation;

(c) there is a flight manual (or other approved document) carried on, and available in, the aircraft, in such form as shall be approved by the Minister, for the use of the flight crew containing the limitations within which the aircraft is considered airworthy, together with such additional instructions and information as may be necessary to show compliance with the Regulations relating to performance and for the safe operation of the aircraft.

(2) The holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations, or other operator of an aircraft, shall ensure that an aircraft registered in The Bahamas shall be maintained and periodically inspected in accordance with the requirements of the approved data and manuals issued by the manufacturer and in accordance with the main- tenance program issued by the manufacturer and approved by the Minister and that all Airworthiness Directives and Mandatory Service Bulletins are complied with, and shall ensure that an organization, approved by the Minister shall maintain its aircraft in an airworthy condition and in accordance with the approved maintenance program.

Continued airworthiness.

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(3) The approved maintenance program referred to in paragraph (1) shall specify the occasions on which an inspection must be carried out for the purpose of issuing a release to service in accordance with this regulation and the applicable Schedules.

(4) A release to service may be issued for the purpose of this regulation only by —

(a) the holder of an aircraft maintenance technician licence —

(i) granted under these Regulations and the applicable Schedules and entitling the holder to issue that release to service; or

(ii) granted under the law of a country other than The Bahamas and rendered valid under these Regulations in accordance with the ratings, privileges and limitations of the licence;

(b) a person whom the Minister has authorized to issue a release to service in a particular case, and in accordance with that authority;

(c) a maintenance organization approved by the Minister; or

(d) a person approved by the Minister as being competent to issue such a release to service, and in accordance with that approval:

Provided that, in approving a maintenance program, the Minister may direct that a release to service relating to that program, or to any part thereof specified in its direction, may be issued only by the holder of such a licence as is so specified.

(5) A person referred to in paragraph (3) shall not issue a release to service unless he has first verified that —

(a) maintenance has been carried out on the aircraft in accordance with the maintenance program approved for that aircraft;

(b) inspections and modifications required by the Minister and the applicable requirements have been completed as certified in the relevant release to service;

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(c) defects entered in the aircraft logbook or technical log of the aircraft in accordance with the Regulations have been rectified or the rectification thereof has been deferred in accor- dance with procedures approved by the Minister; and

(d) certificates of release to service have been issued in accordance with the Regulations;

and for this purpose the operator of the aircraft shall make available to that person such information as is necessary.

(6) A release to service shall be issued in duplicate and one copy of the most recently issued release to service shall be carried in the aircraft when the Regulations so require, and the other shall be kept by the operator elsewhere than in the aircraft.

(7) Subject to the provisions regarding retention of documents in this Regulation and its applicable Schedules, each release to service shall be preserved by the operator of the aircraft for a period of two years after it has been issued.

31. (1) A aircraft logbook or technical log shall be kept in respect of an aircraft registered in The Bahamas or an aircraft operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations.

(2) At the end of every flight by an aircraft operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations, the pilot in command shall enter in the aircraft logbook or technical log the information required under these Regulations applicable to the type of operation, and sign and date such entries.

(3) Upon the rectification of any defect which has been entered in a technical log in accordance with paragraph (2) a person issuing a release to service required by Regulation and Schedules in respect of that defect shall enter that information in the aircraft logbook or technical log in such a position as to be readily identifiable with the defect to which it relates.

(4) The aircraft technical log referred to in this regulation shall be carried in the aircraft as required by the applicable Regulation and Schedules, and copies of the entries referred to in this regulation shall be kept on the ground:

Aircraft records.

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Provided that, in the case of an aeroplane of which the maximum total weight authorized does not exceed 2,730 kg, or a helicopter, if it is not reasonably practicable for the copy of the technical log to be kept on the ground the copy may be carried in the aeroplane or helicopter, as the case may be, in a container approved by the Minister for that purpose.

32. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), an aircraft registered in The Bahamas, being an aircraft in respect of which a certificate of airworthiness issued or rendered valid under these Regulations is in force, shall not fly unless there is in force a release to service issued in accordance with this regulation if the aircraft or any part of the aircraft or such of its equipment as is necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft has been overhauled, repaired, replaced, modified, maintained, or has been inspected as required by the Regulations, as the case may be.

(2) Neither — (a) equipment provided in compliance with Schedule

7; nor (b) radio apparatus provided for use in an aircraft or

in any survival craft carried in an aircraft, whether or not such apparatus is provided in compliance with these Regulations,

shall be installed or placed on board for use in an aircraft registered in The Bahamas or operated by a holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations after being over- hauled, repaired, modified or inspected, unless there is in force in respect thereof at the time when it is installed or placed on board a release to service issued in accordance with this regulation.

(3) A release to service shall — (a) certify that the aircraft or any part thereof or its

equipment has been overhauled, repaired, re- placed, modified or maintained, as the case may be, in a manner and with material of a type approved by the Minister either generally or in relation to a class of aircraft or the particular aircraft and shall identify the overhaul, repair, replacement, modification or maintenance to which the certificate relates and shall include particulars of the work done; or

Inspection, overhaul, repair, replacement and modification.

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(b) certify in relation to any inspection required by the Minister that the aircraft or the part thereof or its equipment, as the case may be, has been inspected in accordance with the requirements of the Minister and that any consequential repair, replacement or modification has been carried out as aforesaid.

(4) Subject to the provisions of these Regulations regarding retention of such documents, a release to service shall be preserved by the operator of the aircraft to which it relates for the period of time for which he is required to preserve the logbook relating to the same part of the aircraft or to the same equipment or apparatus as the case may be.

(5) In this regulation, the expression “repair” includes in relation to a compass the adjustment and compensation thereof and the expression “repaired” shall be construed accordingly.

33. (1) An organization engaged, or intending to engage, in any stage of the design, manufacture, distribu- tion or maintenance of aircraft, aircraft components or aircraft materials, or in training activities associated therewith, may apply to the Minister for a certificate of approval in respect of those activities. Such a maintenance organization within The Bahamas shall obtain the approval of the Minister before commencing operation. This organization shall hereinafter be termed an “Approved Maintenance Organization” or “AMO” and subject to the requirements of Schedule 6.

(2) A maintenance organization situated outside The Bahamas shall not carry out maintenance work or modify or repair an aircraft registered in The Bahamas unless approval for such work has been given by the Minister. In granting such approval the Minister may accept, in relation to such organization, the possession of a certificate of approval issued by the manufacturer of the aircraft, aircraft components or materials and by the Authority of the State in which the organization is located.

(3) The Minister shall issue an AMO certificate to an organization which complies with the requirements of Schedule 6 as to facilities, resources, tools and equipment, data and documentation, and systems of quality control, adequate for the activities applied for.

Approval of maintenance organizations.

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(4) The organization shall have in place a main- tenance manual approved by the Minister that lays out the processes, procedures and quality systems applicable to its activities.

(5) An AMO certificate shall be in such form, be subject to such conditions and limitations and contain such particulars as may be determined from time to time by the Minister.

(6) An AMO certificate shall remain in force for such period as may be specified in the certificate, but may be reviewed by the Minister from time to time to determine that the holder is fit and qualified in accordance with requirements of Schedule 6. An AMO certificate may be subject to such conditions, including the issue of satisfac- tory audit reports, as the Minister may think appropriate.

34. (1) In addition to any other logbooks required by or under these Regulations, the following logbooks shall be kept in respect of aircraft registered in The Bahamas —

(a) an aircraft logbook; (b) a separate logbook in respect of each engine

fitted in the aircraft; and (c) a separate logbook in respect of each variable

pitch propeller fitted to the aircraft. (2) The logbooks shall include the particulars

respectively specified in the Schedule 5 and in the case of an aircraft having a maximum total weight authorized not exceeding 2,730 kg shall be of a type approved by the Minister.

(3) Each entry in the logbook, other than such an entry as is referred to in the Schedule 5, shall be made as soon as practicable after the occurrence to which it relates, but in no event more than seven days after the expiration of the release to service (if any) in force in respect of the aircraft at the time of the occurrence.

(4) Each entry in the logbook, being such an entry as is referred to in Schedule 5 shall be made upon each occasion that any maintenance, overhaul, repair, replace- ment, modification or inspection is undertaken on the engine or propeller as the case may be.

(5) Entries in a logbook may refer to other documents, which shall be clearly identified, and any other document so referred to shall be deemed, for the purposes of these Regulations, to be part of the logbook.

Aircraft, engine and propeller logbooks.

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(6) It shall be the duty of the operator of every aircraft in respect of which logbooks are required to be kept as aforesaid to keep them or cause them to be kept in accordance with the foregoing provisions of this regula- tion.

(7) Subject to the provisions regarding retention of these documents, every logbook shall be preserved by the operator of the aircraft until a date two years after the aircraft, the engine or the variable pitch propeller, as the case may be, has been destroyed or has been permanently withdrawn from use.

35. (1) Every Aircraft in respect of which a certificate of airworthiness issued or rendered valid under these Regulations is in force shall be weighed, and the position of its centre of gravity determined, at such times and in such manner as the Minister may require or approve in the case of that aircraft.

(2) Upon the aircraft being weighed as aforesaid the operator of the aircraft shall prepare a weight schedule showing —

(a) either the basic weight of the aircraft, that is to say, the weight of the aircraft empty together with the weight of unusable fuel and unusable oil in the aircraft and of such items of equipment as are indicated in the weight schedule, or such other weight as may be approved by the Minister in the case of that aircraft; and

(b) either the position of the centre of gravity of the aircraft when the aircraft contains only the items included in the basic weight or such other position of the centre of gravity as may be approved by the Minister in the case of that aircraft.

(3) Subject to the provisions for retention of these documents, the weight schedule shall be preserved by the operator of the aircraft until the expiration of a period of six months following the next occasion on which the aircraft is weighed for the purposes of this regulation.

Aircraft weight schedule.

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PART VI AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT

36. (1) An aircraft shall not fly in or over The Bahamas unless it is so equipped as to comply with the law of the country in which it is registered.

(2) In the case of any aircraft registered in The Bahamas or operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations, the instruments and equipment required to be provided (in addition to any other equipment required by or under these Regulations) shall be that specified in such parts of Schedule 7 as are applicable in the circumstances and shall comply with the provisions of that Schedule and the equipment, shall be of a type approved by the Minister either generally or in relation to a class of aircraft or in relation to that aircraft and shall be installed in a manner so approved.

(3) In any particular case the Minister may direct that an aircraft registered in The Bahamas or operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations shall carry such additional or special equipment or supplies as he may specify for the purpose of facilitating the navigation of the aircraft, the carrying out of search and rescue operations, or the survival of the persons carried in the aircraft.

(4) The equipment carried in compliance with this regulation shall be so installed or stowed and kept stowed, and so maintained and adjusted, as to be readily accessible and capable of being used by the person for whose use it is intended.

(5) The position of equipment provided for emergency use shall be indicated by clear markings in or on the aircraft and in particular in every aircraft operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations. There shall be provided individually for each passenger, or if the Minister so permits in writing, exhibited in a prominent position in every passenger compartment, a notice relevant to the aircraft in question containing the pictorial required by these Regulations.

(6) All instruments and equipment installed or carried in an aircraft, whether or not in compliance with this regulation, shall be so installed or stowed and so maintained and adjusted as not to be a source of danger

Instruments and equipment.

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in itself or to impair the airworthiness of the aircraft or the proper functioning of any equipment or services necessary for the safety of the aircraft.

(7) Without prejudice to paragraph (2), all naviga- tional equipment when carried in an aircraft registered in The Bahamas (whether or not in compliance with these Regulations) shall be of a type approved by the Minister either generally or in relation to a class of aircraft or in relation to that aircraft and shall be installed in a manner so approved.

(8) An aircraft registered in The Bahamas, or operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations, engaged on a flight for the purpose of commercial air transport shall carry navigational equip- ment required by Schedule 7, approved by the Minister under the requirements of the applicable Schedules and used in accordance with any conditions subject to which that approval may have been given, if on the route or any diversion therefrom, being a route or diversion planned before take-off, the aircraft is intended to be more than 500 nautical miles from the point of take-off measured along the route to be flown, and to pass any area more than one hour from a reliable navigation fix using ground aids.

37. (1) An aircraft shall not fly in or over The Bahamas unless it is so equipped with radio and radio navigation equipment as to comply with the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered and to enable communications to be made and the aircraft to be navigated, in accordance with the provisions of these Regulations and the Schedules.

(2) Without prejudice to paragraph (1), the aircraft shall be equipped with radio and radio navigation equipment in accordance with Schedule 7.

(3) In any particular case the Minister may direct that an aircraft registered in The Bahamas or operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations shall carry such additional or special radio or radio navigation equipment as he may specify for the purpose of facilitating the navigation of the aircraft, the carrying out of search and rescue operations or the survival of the persons carried in the aircraft.

Radio equipment of aircraft.

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(4) Subject to such exceptions as may be prescribed the radio and radio navigation equipment provided in compliance with this regulation in an aircraft registered in The Bahamas or operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations shall always be maintained in serviceable condition.

(5) All radio and radio navigation equipment installed in an aircraft registered in The Bahamas or operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations or carried on such an aircraft for use in connection with the aircraft shall be of a type approved by the Minister in relation to the purpose for which it is to be used, and shall, be installed in a manner approved by the Minister and neither the equipment nor the manner in which it is installed shall be modified except with the approval of the Minister.

38. (1) The Minister may, subject to such conditions as he thinks fit, grant in respect of any aircraft or class of aircraft registered in The Bahamas an authorization to allow such aircraft to commence a flight in specified circumstances notwithstanding that any specified item of equipment (including radio apparatus) required by or under these Regulations to be carried in the circumstances of the intended flight is not carried or is not in a fit condition for use.

(2) An aircraft registered in The Bahamas or operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations shall not commence a flight if any of the equipment (including radio apparatus) required by or under these Regulations to be carried in the circumstances of the intended flight is not carried or is not in a fit condition for use —

(a) otherwise than under and in accordance with the terms of a special authorization which has been granted to the operator;

(b) unless in the case of an aircraft to which the flight and operations manuals required thereby contain the particulars specified for such opera- tions; and

(c) in accordance with a minimum equipment list (MEL) approved by the Minister identifying the minimum equipment and condition for an air- craft to maintain the certificate of airworthiness

Minimum equipment requirements.

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in force and defining operational procedures necessary to deal with inoperative equipment and prescribing maintenance procedures necessary to maintain the required level of safety and secure any inoperative equipment.

39. No person may operate an aircraft under these Regulations unless they are in conformance with the minimum instrument and equipment requirements of Schedule 7, and in the case of an AOC holder, an approved minimum equipment list, for the route, altitude, and type of operations being conducted.

PART VII PERSONNEL LICENSING

40. (1) Without prejudice to any other provision of these Regulations the Minister may, for the purpose of personnel licensing as provided in Schedule 8 and 9, either absolutely or subject to such conditions as he thinks fit —

(a) approve any course of training or instruction; (b) authorize a person to conduct such examinations

or tests as he may specify; (c) approve a person to provide or conduct any

course of training or instruction; (d) approve a person as qualified to furnish reports

to him and to accept such reports; and (e) approve a training organization. (2) Where any provision of these Regulations

permits a test to be conducted in a flight simulator approved by the Minister, that approval may be granted subject to such conditions as the Minister thinks fit.

41. (1) A airman certificate shall remain in force for the period specified within that certificate, but may be reviewed by the Minister from time to time to determine that the holder is fit and qualified in accordance with applicable requirements.

(2) Upon receiving an airman certificate granted under this regulation, the holder thereof shall forthwith sign his name thereon in ink with his ordinary signature.

Required instruments and equipment.

Personnel licensing approvals.

Valid airmen certificates.

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(3) A certificate granted under this regulation shall not be valid unless it bears thereon the ordinary signature of the holder in ink.

42. Unless otherwise permitted under the Schedules to these Regulations, a person shall not give any instruction in flying to which this regulation applies unless —

(a) he holds a certificate, granted or rendered valid under Schedule 8 of these Regulations, entitling him to act as pilot in command of the aircraft for the purpose and in the circumstances under which the instruction is to be given; and

(b) he holds a flight instructor certificate issued under Schedule 8 entitling the holder to give the level of instruction required.

43. (1) The Minister shall grant aircraft maintenance technician and other certificates relating to maintenance tasks as provided in Schedule 8, subject to such conditions as he thinks fit, upon his being satisfied that the applicant is a fit person to hold the certificate and has furnished such evidence and passed such examinations and tests as the Minister may require of him for the purpose of establishing that he has sufficient knowledge, experience, competence and skill in aircraft and power plant maintenance.

(2) An aircraft maintenance technician certificate shall authorize the holder, subject to such conditions as may be specified in these Regulations, to issue a release to service.

(3) The Minister may issue a special purpose certificate rendering valid for the purposes of these Regulations any certificate as an aircraft maintenance technician granted under the law of any country other than The Bahamas and such certificate may be issued subject to such conditions, and for such periods, as the Minister thinks fit.

44. (1) The Minister shall grant licences, subject to such conditions as he thinks fit, specified in Schedule 8 authorising the holder to act as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft registered in The Bahamas, upon his being satisfied that the applicant is a fit person to hold the licence, and is qualified by reason of his knowledge, experience, competence, skill, physical and mental fitness to act in the capacity to which the licence relates, and for

Instruction in flying.

Aircraft maintenance licences.

Grant, renewal and effect of flight crew licences.

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that purpose the applicant shall furnish such evidence and undergo such examinations and tests (including in particular medical examinations) and undertake such courses of training as the Minister may require of him.

(2) The Minister may include in a certificate a rating, subject to such conditions as he thinks fit, upon his being satisfied that the applicant is qualified as aforesaid to act in the capacity to which the rating relates, and such rating shall be deemed to form part of the certificate.

(3) Subject to any conditions of the certificate and to the provisions of these Regulations, a licence of any class shall entitle the holder to perform the functions specified in respect of that certificate in the Regulations.

45. (1) The holder of a pilot or a flight engineer certificate licence shall not be entitled to exercise the privileges of an aircraft rating contained in the licence on a flight unless the holder is qualified and current for the functions the holder is to perform on that flight in accordance with these Regulations.

(2) The holder of a pilot’s certificate shall not be entitled to exercise the privileges of an aircraft rating contained in that licence unless he maintains the currency requirements required by these Regulations and evidence of this currency is included in the personal flying logbook required to be kept by him.

(3) A person shall not be entitled to perform the functions to which an instrument rating (aeroplanes), an instrument rating (helicopters), a flight instructor certifi- cate, or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes) relates unless his licence is appropriate to the functions to which the rating relates in accordance with Schedule 10 and 11 and shall otherwise comply with the currency requirements of Schedule 8, 10 and 13, as appropriate.

(4) A person who, on the last occasion when he took a test for the purposes of qualification, competency or currency, failed that test shall not be entitled to fly in the capacity for which that test would have qualified him had he passed it.

46. (1) The holder of a airman certificate granted under these Regulations for which a valid medical

Qualified and current for the functions.

Airman medical certificate.

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certificate is also a prerequisite to perform any of the functions authorized, shall have such a certificate when engaged in those functions.

(2) Every applicant for or holder of such an airman certificate shall upon such occasions as the Minister may require submit himself to a medical examination by a person approved by the Minister who shall make a report to the Minister in such form as the Minister may require.

(3) On the basis of such medical examination, the Minister or any person approved by him as competent to do so may issue a medical certificate subject to the requirements of Schedules 1 and 8 and such conditions as he thinks fit, to the holder of the licence as medically fit to perform the functions to which the licence relates and the certificate shall be valid for such period as is therein specified and shall be deemed to form part of the licence.

(4) A person shall not be entitled to act as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft registered in The Bahamas if he knows or suspects that his physical or mental condition renders him temporarily or permanently unfit to perform such functions or to act in such capacity.

(5) Every holder of a medical certificate issued under these Regulations and the applicable Schedule who —

(a) suffers any personal injury involving incapacity to undertake his functions as a member of the flight crew; or

(b) suffers any illness involving incapacity to undertake those functions throughout a period of twenty days or more;

shall inform the Minister in writing of such injury or illness, as soon as possible in the case of injury and as soon as the period of twenty days has elapsed in the case of illness and the medical certificate shall be deemed to be suspended upon the occurrence of such injury or the elapse of such period of illness. The suspension shall cease upon the holder being medically examined under arrangements made by the Minister and pronounced fit to resume his functions as a member of the flight crew or upon the Minister exempting, subject to such conditions as he thinks fit, the holder from the requirement of a medical examination.

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47. The Minister may issue a certificate of validation rendering valid for the purposes of these Regulations any licence as a member of the flight crew of aircraft granted under the law of any country other than The Bahamas. A certificate of validation may be issued subject to Schedules 1 and 8 and such conditions and for such periods as the Minister thinks fit.

48. Every member of the flight crew of an aircraft registered in The Bahamas and every person who engages in flying for the purpose of qualifying for the grant of a licence or establishing currency under these Regulations shall keep a personal flying logbook in which the information specified in Schedule 8 will be entered.

49. (1) An organization engaged, or intending to engage, in any program of training or checking activities, may apply to the Minister for a certificate of approval in respect of those activities. Such a training organization within The Bahamas shall obtain the approval of the Minister before commencing operation. This organization shall hereinafter be termed an “Approved Training Organization” or “ATO” and subject to the requirements of Schedule 9.

(2) A training organization situated in another ICAO Contracting State shall not carry out training on behalf of the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations unless approval for such activities has been given by the Minister. In granting such approval the Minister may accept, in relation to such organization, the possession of a certificate of approval issued by the Authority of the State in which the organization is located.

(3) The Minister shall issue an ATO certificate to an organization which complies with the requirements of Schedule 9 as to facilities, resources, simulators, training devices, instructors and examiners, adequate for the activities applied for.

(4) The organization shall use a training and checking manual approved by the Minister that lays out the processes, procedures and quality systems applicable to its activities.

(5) An ATO certificate shall be in such form, be subject to such conditions and limitations and contain such particulars as may be determined from time to time by the Minister.

Validation of licences.

Personal flying logbook.

Approval of training organizations.

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PART VIII OPERATION OF AIRCRAFT

50. A person shall not recklessly or negligently cause or permit an aircraft to endanger any person or property.

51. Every person in an aircraft registered in The Bahamas shall obey all lawful commands which the pilot in command of that aircraft may give for the purpose of securing the safety of the aircraft and of persons or property carried therein, or the safety, efficiency or regularity of air navigation.

52. No person shall while in an aircraft — (a) use any threatening, abusive or insulting words

towards a member of the crew of the aircraft; (b) behave in a threatening, abusive, insulting or

disorderly manner towards a member or the crew of the aircraft; or

(c) intentionally interfere with the performance of the crew of an aircraft of his duties.

53. (1) No person may operate an aircraft nor cause an aircraft to be operated over The Bahamas unless this aircraft is in conformance with the aircraft requirements specified in these Regulations and Schedule 10.

(2) No person may operate an aircraft registered in The Bahamas and no holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations may operate an aircraft outside of The Bahamas unless this aircraft is in conformance with the aircraft requirements specified in these Regulations and Schedule 10.

54. (1) No person may operate an aircraft nor cause an aircraft to be operated over The Bahamas unless the flight crew is in conformance with the flight crew requirements specified in these Regulations and Schedule 10.

(2) No person may operate an aircraft registered in The Bahamas and no holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations may operate an aircraft outside of The Bahamas unless the flight crew is in conformance with the flight crew requirements specified in these Regulations and Schedule 10.

Careless or reckless action.

Authority of pilot in command.

Interference with a crew member.

Applicable aircraft requirements.

Applicable flight crew requirements.

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55. (1) No person may operate an aircraft nor cause an aircraft to be operated over The Bahamas unless the flight crew is in conformance with the crew duties and responsibilities specified in these Regulations and Schedule 10.

(2) No person may operate an aircraft registered in The Bahamas and no holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations may operate an aircraft outside of The Bahamas unless the flight crew is in conformance with the crew duties and responsibilities specified in these Regulations and Schedule 10.

56. (1) No person may operate an aircraft nor cause an aircraft to be operated over The Bahamas with passengers unless such a flight is in conformance with the requirements specified in these Regulations and Schedule 10 for all passenger carrying operations.

(2) No person may operate an aircraft registered in The Bahamas and no holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations may operate an aircraft outside of The Bahamas with passengers unless such a flight is in conformance with the requirements specified in these Regulations and Schedule 10 for all passenger carrying operations.

57. (1) No person may operate an aircraft nor cause an aircraft to be operated over The Bahamas unless the flight plans, flight planning and other preflight preparation is in conformance with the requirements specified in these Regulations and Schedule 10.

(2) No person may operate an aircraft registered in The Bahamas and no holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations may operate an aircraft outside of The Bahamas unless the flight plans, flight planning and preflight preparation is in conformance with the requirements specified in these Regulations and Schedule 10.

58. (1) No person may operate an aircraft nor cause an aircraft to be operated over The Bahamas unless the flight is conducted in conformance with the flight rules specified in these Regulations and Schedule 10.

(2) No person may operate an aircraft registered in The Bahamas and no holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations may operate an aircraft outside of The

Crew duties and responsibilities.

All passenger carrying operations.

Flight planning and preparation.

Applicable flight rules.

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Bahamas unless the flight is conducted in conformance with the flight rules requirements specified in these Regulations and Schedule 10, unless such compliance would result in non-conformance to a law or regulation of the State being overflown.

59. (1) No person may operate an aircraft nor cause an aircraft to be operated over The Bahamas unless the flight is conducted in conformance with the requirements specified in these Regulations and Schedule 10 for operations in controlled flight.

(2) No person may operate an aircraft registered in The Bahamas and no holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations may operate an aircraft outside of The Bahamas unless the flight is conducted in conformance with the requirements for operations in controlled flight as specified in these Regulations and Schedule 10, unless such compliance would result in non-conformance to a law or regulation of the State being overflown.

PART IX AERIAL WORK OPERATIONS

60. No person may operate an aircraft in an activity deemed to be aerial work, except as specified by the Minister and in conformance with the requirements of these Regulations and Schedule 11.

61. (1) An aircraft shall not be used for the dropping of articles for the purposes of agriculture, horticulture or forestry or for training for the dropping of articles for any of such purposes, otherwise than under and in accordance with the terms of an aerial application certificate granted to the operator of the aircraft under paragraph (2) of this regulation and the requirements of Schedule 11.

(2) The Minister shall grant an aerial application certificate to any person applying therefor if he is satisfied that person is a fit person to hold the certificate and is competent, having regard in particular to his previous conduct and experience, his equipment, organization, staffing and other arrangements, to secure the safe operation of the aircraft specified in the certificate on flights for the purposes specified in paragraph (1) of this regulation. The certificate may be granted subject to such

Operations in controlled flight.

Aerial work activity.

Issue of aerial application certificates.

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conditions as the Minister thinks fit including without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing, conditions for ensuring that the aircraft and any article dropped from it do not endanger persons or property in the aircraft or elsewhere. An aerial application certificate shall remain in force for the period specified in the issued authorization, but may be reviewed by the Minister from time to time to determine that the holder is fit and qualified in accordance with requirements of Schedule 11.

(3) Every applicant for and holder of an aerial application certificate shall make available to the Minister upon application and to every member of his operating staff upon the certificate being granted, an aerial applica- tion manual which shall contain all such information and instructions as may be necessary to enable the operating staff to perform their duties as such. The holder of a certificate shall make such amendments of or additions to the manual as the Minister may require.

62. (1) Subject to the provisions of this regulation and the requirements of Schedule 11, an aircraft in flight over The Bahamas shall not, by means external to the aircraft, tow any article, or pick up or raise any person, animal or article, unless the certificate of airworthiness issued or rendered valid in respect of that aircraft under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered includes an express provision that it may be used for that purpose.

(2) Nothing in this regulation shall — (a) prohibit the towing in a reasonable manner by an

aircraft in flight of any radio aerial, any instrument which is being used for experimental purposes, or any signal, apparatus or regulation required or permitted by or under these Regula- tions to be towed or displayed by an aircraft in flight;

(b) prohibit the picking up or raising of any person, animal or article in an emergency or for the purpose of saving life.

63. (1) Articles and animals (whether or not attached to a parachute) shall not be dropped, or permitted to drop, from an aircraft in flight so as to endanger persons or property.

Towing, picking up and raising of persons and articles.

Dropping of animals and articles.

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(2) Except under and in accordance with the terms of an aerial application certificate and the requirements of Schedule 11, articles and animals (whether or not attached to a parachute) shall not be dropped, or permitted to drop, to the surface from an aircraft flying over The Bahamas:

Provided that this paragraph shall not apply to the dropping of articles by, or with the authority of, the pilot in command of the aircraft in any of the following circumstances —

(a) the dropping of articles for the purpose of saving life;

(b) the jettisoning, in case of emergency, of fuel or other articles in the aircraft;

(c) the dropping of articles solely for the purpose of navigating the aircraft in accordance with ordinary practice or with the provisions of these Regulations;

(d) the dropping at an aerodrome of tow ropes, banners, or similar articles towed by aircraft;

(e) the dropping of articles for the purposes of public health or as a measure against weather conditions, surface icing or oil pollution, or for training for the dropping of articles for any such purposes, if the articles are dropped with the permission of the Minister and in accordance with any conditions subject to which that permission may have been given;

(f) the dropping of wind drift indicators for the purpose of enabling parachute descents to be made if the wind drift indicators are dropped with the permission of the Minister and in accordance with any conditions subject to which that permission may have been given.

(3) For the purposes of this regulation dropping includes projecting and lowering.

(4) Nothing in this regulation shall prohibit the lowering of any article or animal from a helicopter to the surface, if the certificate of airworthiness issued or rendered valid in respect of the helicopter under the law of the country in which it is registered includes an express provision that it may be used for that purpose.

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64. (1) A person shall not drop, be dropped or permitted to drop to the surface or jump from an aircraft flying over The Bahamas except under and in accordance with the terms of an authorization granted by the Minister under this regulation.

(2) For the purposes of this regulation dropping includes projecting and lowering.

(3) Notwithstanding the grant of an authorization under paragraph (1) of this regulation, a person shall not drop, be dropped or be permitted to drop from an aircraft in flight so as to endanger persons or property.

(4) An aircraft shall not be used for the purpose of dropping persons unless the certificate of airworthiness issued or rendered valid in respect of that aircraft under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered includes an express provision that it may be used for that purpose and the aircraft is operated in accordance with the authorization granted by the Minister under this regula- tion.

(5) Every applicant for and every holder of a permission shall make available to the Minister if requested to do so a parachuting manual and shall make such amendments or additions to such manual as the Minister may require. The holder of an authorization shall make available to every employee or person who is or may engage in parachuting activities conducted by him, the manual which shall contain all such information and instructions as may be necessary to enable such employees or persons to perform their duties.

(6) Without prejudice to any other provision to these Regulations the Minister may, for the purpose of this regulation, accept reports furnished to him by a person whom he may approve, either absolutely or subject to such conditions as he thinks fit, as qualified to furnish such reports.

(7) Nothing in this regulation shall apply to the descent of persons by parachute from an aircraft in an emergency.

(8) Nothing in this regulation shall prohibit the lowering of any person in an emergency or for the purpose of saving life.

Dropping of persons.

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(9) Nothing in this regulation shall prohibit the lowering of any person from a helicopter to the surface in The Bahamas, if the certificate of airworthiness issued or rendered valid in respect of the helicopter under the law of the country in which it is registered includes an express provision that it may be used for that purpose.

65. (1) No person may operate an aircraft over The Bahamas for the purpose of aerial photography or aerial survey (whether or not valuable consideration is given or promised in respect of the flight or the purpose of the flight) or for the purpose of any other form of aerial work except with an authorization of the Minister granted under this regulation to the operator or the charterer of the aircraft and in accordance with any conditions to which such authorization may be subject.

(2) Without prejudice to the provisions of paragraph (1) of this regulation, any breach by a person to whom an authorization has been granted under this regulation of any condition to which that authorization was subject shall constitute a contravention of this regulation.

66. (1) No person shall act as the organizer (in this regulation referred to as “the exhibition organizer”) of an exhibition of flying, an aircraft race or contest at an organised event (in this regulation referred to as an “organised event”) which event the exhibition organizer reasonably believes is likely to be attended by more than 200 persons and which event consists wholly or partly of an exhibition of flying, aircraft race or contest unless at the time at which such an organised event commences the exhibition organizer has obtained the permission in writing of the Minister for that organised event and complies with any conditions therein specified and the requirements of Schedule 10.

(2) The pilot in command of an aircraft intending to participate in an organised event for which a permission is required by virtue of paragraph (1) shall take all reason- able steps to satisfy himself before he participates that —

(a) the exhibition organizer has been granted such permission;

(b) the flight can comply with any relevant condi- tions subject to which that permission may have been granted; and

Aerial photography and survey from aircraft.

Exhibitions of flying, aircraft races or contests.

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(c) the pilot has been granted an authorization appropriate to the intended flight.

(3) The pilot in command of an aircraft participating in an organised event for which a permission required by virtue of paragraph (1) has been granted shall comply with any conditions subject to which that permission may have been granted.

(4) No person shall act as pilot of an aircraft participating in an organised event for which a permission is required by virtue of paragraph (1) unless he holds an authorization appropriate to the intended flight granted to him by the Minister and he complies with any conditions thereof.

(5) The exhibition organizer shall not permit any person to act as pilot of an aircraft which participates in an organised event for which a permission is required by virtue of paragraph (1) unless such person holds a display authorization appropriate to the intended flight granted by the Minister.

(6) The Minister shall grant the permission required under paragraph (1) to any person applying therefor if he is satisfied that that person is a fit and competent person, having regard in particular to his previous conduct and experience, his organization, staffing and other arrange- ments, to safely organise the proposed exhibition of flying. The permission may be granted subject to such conditions, which may include conditions in respect of military aircraft, as the Minister thinks fit and shall, if there is continued conformance, remain in force for the period specified in the permission.

(7) The Minister shall, for the purposes of this regulation, either unconditionally or subject to such conditions as he thinks fit —

(a) grant a display authorization authorising the holder to act as pilot of an aircraft taking part in an exhibition of flying in respect of which a permission is required by virtue of paragraph (1) upon his being satisfied that the applicant is a fit person to hold the authorization and is qualified by reason of his knowledge, experience, compe- tence, skill, physical and mental fitness to fly in accordance therewith and for that purpose the

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applicant shall furnish such evidence and under- go such examinations and tests as the Minister may require of him; and

(b) authorize a person to conduct such examinations or tests as he may specify.

(8) A display authorization granted in accordance with this regulation shall, if the Minister finds continued conformance, remain in force for the period indicated in the display authorization.

(9) The exhibition organizer shall not permit any military aircraft to participate in an exhibition of flying for which a permission is required by virtue of paragraph (1) unless he complies with any conditions specified in respect of military aircraft subject to which such permission may have been granted.

PART X COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT OPERATIONS

67. (1) A Bahamian operator of aircraft shall not fly on any flight for the purpose of commercial air transport, otherwise than under and in accordance with the terms of an Air Operator’s Certificate (AOC) granted to the operator under paragraph (3).

(2) Any person shall be deemed to be engaged in providing commercial air transport and subject to the requirements of this Part, if —

(a) they, or persons on their behalf, have undertaken any form of advertising to carry passengers or property by aircraft for remuneration or valuable consideration without using the services of an AOC holder; or

(b) they, or persons on their behalf, verbally offer to carry passengers or property by aircraft for remuneration or valuable consideration, without using the services of an AOC holder; or

(c) they, or other persons on their behalf, provide or advertise an arrangement for meals, lodging or travel (or any other “all-inclusive” method of pricing) for compensation, in which the travel by aircraft is included at gratis or is compensated, but is not provided by an AOC holder.

Issue of air operator’s certificate.

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(3) The Minister may grant to any person applying therefore, an AOC if he is satisfied that that person is competent and capable, having regard in particular to the person’s previous conduct and experience, his equipment, organization, staffing, maintenance and other arrang- ements, to secure the safe operation of aircraft of the types specified in the certificate on flights of the description and for the purposes so specified.

(4) An AOC may be granted subject to such conditions as the Minister deems appropriate. An AOC shall remain in force for the period specified in Schedule 12, but may be reviewed by the Minister from time to time to determine that the holder is fit and qualified in accordance with requirements of this Schedule.

(5) Without prejudice to the generality of paragraph (3) above, the operator must possess a management organization capable of exercising operational control and supervision over any flight operated under the terms of its air operator’s certificate.

(6) Without prejudice to the generality of paragraph (2) above, the operator must have nominated an accoun- table manager, acceptable to the Minister, who has responsibility for ensuring that all maintenance relating to the operator’s aircraft is carried out in accordance with the approved maintenance program and to the standard required by the Minister.

(7) Without prejudice to the generality of paragraph (2) above, the operator must be found in conformance with the Schedules specifically applicable to AOC holders prior to issuance of the AOC, including but not limited to Schedules 7, 10, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, and 17;

(8) In exercising the functions under paragraphs (1) and (2) above, the Minister shall have regard to such of the following as are applicable —

(a) the nationality of the applicant and the grant or refusal of the application is in the public interest;

(b) any uneconomic duplication or uneconomic overlapping of air services that might result from the grant of the application;

(c) the ability of the applicant to meet its financial obligations, actual or potential;

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(d) the likelihood of the applicant being able to provide air services which are satisfactory from the point of view of safety, regularity, frequency of operation, level of charges and general standard and efficiency and, in the case of an application for renewal or variation of a certificate, whether the applicant’s existing air services are satisfactory;

(e) whether or not the aircraft proposed to be used and the air services proposed to be provided are suited to the airports and airport facilities to be used;

(f) any obligations imposed upon The Bahamas by international agreement or treaty;

(g) any other matter which is, in the opinion of the Minister, relevant to the application.

(9) Each AOC holder shall maintain the required standards of operations established in these Regulations in the conduct of its commercial air transport operations.

(10) The Minister shall establish a system of certification and continued surveillance to ensure that AOC holders maintain the required standards of operations established in these Regulations.

68. No person may operate, or cause to be operated, an aircraft subject to these Regulations in commercial air transport unless the AOC holder has completed the initial certification requirements of Schedule 12 for such opera- tions;

69. No person may operate, or cause to be operated, an aircraft subject to these Regulations in commercial air transport unless these operations are in conformance with the authorizations and limitations of their AOC issued under the requirements of Schedule 12.

70. No person may operate, or cause to be operated, an aircraft subject to these Regulations in commercial air transport unless the aircraft is specifically authorized by serial and registration number for the AOC holder’s operation in accordance with Schedule 12.

71. No person may operate, or cause to be operated, an aircraft subject to these Regulations in commercial air transport unless those operations are in conformance with the applicable requirements of the security program specified in Schedule 12.

Initial certification required.

Continued conformance.

Aircraft authorized.

Security requirements.

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72. No person may operate, or cause to be operated, an aircraft subject to these Regulations in commercial air transport unless the aircraft is maintained in accordance with the applicable maintenance requirements of Schedules 5, 6 and 12.

73. No person may operate, or cause to be operated, an aircraft subject to these Regulations carrying passengers in commercial air transport unless they are in conformance with the passenger-carrying requirements of Schedule 13.

74. No person may operate, or cause to be operated, an aircraft subject to these Regulations in commercial air transport unless the assigned aviation personnel are qualified and current in conformance with the minimum qualification, training and checking of Schedule 14.

75. No person may operate, or cause to be operated, an aircraft subject to these Regulations in commercial air transport unless the assigned aviation personnel are in conformance with the duty and flight time and minimum rest periods specified in Schedule 15.

76. No person may operate, or cause to be operated, an aircraft subject to these Regulations in commercial air transport unless the flight was released in conformance with the flight release requirements specified in Schedule 16.

77. No person may operate, or cause to be operated, an aircraft subject to these Regulations in commercial air transport unless they are in conformance with the mass and balance and performance requirements specified in Schedule 17.

PART XI CARRIAGE OF DANGEROUS GOODS

78. (1) No person may ship, caused to be shipped, accept for shipment or allow to be carried on an aircraft any article or substance that may be dangerous goods except they have been prescribed by the Minister in Schedule 18 of these Regulations.

(2) Each person shipping articles or substances that may be dangerous goods shall declare such goods in the shipping papers and cause such articles to be so marked.

Maintenance requirements.

Passenger Requirements.

Qualified personnel.

Crew fatigue.

Flight release requirements

Mass and balance and performance.

Shipping and acceptance of dangerous goods.

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(3) No person may operate or cause to operate an aircraft carrying dangerous goods except as prescribed by the Minister in Schedule 18.

79. (1) An aircraft shall not carry any munitions of war unless —

(a) such munitions of war are carried with the written permission of the Minister and in accordance with any conditions relating thereto; and

(b) the pilot in command of the aircraft is informed in writing by the operator before the flight commences of the type, weight or quantity and location of any such munitions of war on board or suspended beneath the aircraft and any conditions of the permission of the Minister.

(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1) of this regulation it shall be unlawful for an aircraft to carry any weapon or munitions of war in any compartment or apparatus to which passengers have access.

(3) It shall be unlawful for a person to carry or have in his possession or take or cause to be taken on board an aircraft, to suspend or cause to be suspended beneath an aircraft or to deliver or cause to be delivered for carriage thereon any weapon or munitions of war unless —

(a) the weapon or munitions of war — (i) is either part of the baggage of a passenger

on the aircraft or consigned as cargo to be carried thereon;

(ii) is carried in a part of the aircraft, or in any apparatus attached to the aircraft inacces- sible to passengers; and

(iii) in the case of a firearm, is unloaded; and (b) particulars of the weapon or munitions of war

have been furnished by that passenger or by the consignor to the operator before the flight commences; and

(c) without prejudice to paragraph (1) of this regulation the operator consents to the carriage of such weapon or munitions of war by the aircraft.

Munitions of war.

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(4) Nothing in this regulation shall apply to any weapon or munitions of war taken or carried on board an aircraft in The Bahamas registered in a country other than The Bahamas, if the weapon or munitions of war, as the case may be, may under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered be lawfully taken or carried on board for the purpose of ensuring the safety of the aircraft or of persons on board.

(5) For the purposes of this regulation a “munitions of war” means any weapon, ammunition or article containing an explosive or any noxious liquid, gas or other thing which is designed or made for use in warfare or against persons, including parts, whether components or accessories, for such weapon, ammunition or article.

PART XII GENERAL

80. (1) Every person who is the operator or pilot in command of an aircraft which is registered in The Bahamas or a commercial air transport aircraft not registered in The Bahamas but operated by the holder of an air operator’s certificate issued in The Bahamas who is involved in, observes or knows of an airplane accident shall make the report to the Minister as prescribed in Schedule 19.

(2) A person shall not make any report under this regulation if he knows or has reason to believe that the report is false in any particular.

(3) Each person will comply with the necessary steps of accident investigation of Schedule 19 as requested by the Minister or an authorised person assigned to investigate the accident.

81. (1) The Minister may prescribe fees for the issue, validation, renewal, extension or variation of any certifi- cate, licence or other document (including the issue of a copy thereof), or the undergoing of any examination, test, inspection or investigation or the grant of any permission or approval, required by, or for the purpose of these Regulations.

(2) Upon an application being made in connection with which any fee is chargeable in accordance with the said provisions the applicant may be required before the

Accident reporting and investigation.

Fees.

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application is entertained to pay the whole or to deposit a portion of the fee or fees so chargeable if, after such payment or deposit has been made the application is withdrawn by the applicant or otherwise ceases to have effect of is refused by the Minister, the Minister may, subject as hereinafter provided, refund the amount of such payment or deposit. Where the amount paid or deposited is wholly or to any extent attributable to a fee chargeable in respect of an investigation which would have been carried out in connection with the application if it had not been so withdrawn or ceased to have effect or been refused but which has not been carried out by reason only of such withdrawal, cesser or refusal, the Minister may refund the amount so attributable or, in a case where an investigation has been partially completed, so much of that amount as in the opinion of the Minister is reasonable having regard to the stage to which the investigation has progressed at the time of such withdrawal, cesser or refusal:

Provided that, if in any case the amount deposited by the applicant is not sufficient to cover the fee, as ultimately assessed, chargeable in respect of any investigation in so far as the same has been carried out at the time when the application is withdrawn by him or otherwise ceases to have effect or is refused by the Minister the amount representing the balance of such fee shall be payable by the applicant.

82. The Minister shall be able to make reasonable requirements regarding the validation of licences, certifi- cates, approvals, designations, and authorizations issued by another Contracting State. Such requirements will be provided in Schedule 1.

83. Except where the context otherwise requires, the provisions of these Regulations —

(a) in so far as they apply (whether by express reference or otherwise) to aircraft registered in The Bahamas, shall apply to such aircraft wherever they may be;

(b) in so far as they apply as aforesaid to other aircraft shall apply to such other aircraft when they are within The Bahamas;

(c) in so far as they prohibit, require or regulate (whether by express reference or otherwise) the

Validation of documents.

Extra-territorial effect of these Regulations.

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doing of anything by persons in, or by any of the crew of any aircraft registered in The Bahamas, shall apply to such persons and crew, wherever they may be; and

(d) in so far as they prohibit, require or regulate as aforesaid the doing of anything in relation to any aircraft registered in The Bahamas by other persons shall, where such persons are citizens of The Bahamas apply to them wherever they may be.

84. The Minister may direct that such of the provisions of these Regulations having effect thereunder as may be specified in the direction shall have effect as if reference in those provisions to aircraft registered in The Bahamas included references to the aircraft specified in the direction, being an aircraft not so registered but for the time being under the management of a person who, or of persons each of whom, is qualified to hold a legal or beneficial interest by way of ownership in an aircraft registered in The Bahamas.

85. The Minister may issue a waiver from any of the requirements of the Schedules made under these Regula- tions when the provision for that waiver is contained in the applicable Schedule.

86. The Minister may issue a deviation from any of the requirements of the Schedules made under these Regulations to any grouping of persons, aircraft, or type of operation subject to such conditions as he determines where the requirement is found not to be consistent with relevant aviation safety standards for that particular grouping and it would be in the public interest to issue such deviation.

87. The Minister may issue an exemption from any of the requirements under these Regulations or any Schedules made thereunder to any individual, aircraft, or company subject to such conditions as he thinks fit where the applicant can show that it is in the public interest, an equivalent level of safety can be maintained, and such exemption will not be inconsistent with relevant aviation safety standards.

Application to aircraft not registered in Bahamas.

Waivers.

Deviations.

Exemptions.

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88. (1) Where the Minister deems it necessary in the public interest to prohibit flying by reason of —

(a) the intended gathering or movement of a large number of persons;

(b) the intended holding of an aircraft race or contest or of an exhibition in flying; or

(c) national defence or any other reason affecting the public interest, the Minister may make directions prohibiting, restricting or imposing conditions on flight —

(i) by any aircraft, whether or not registered in The Bahamas, in any airspace over The Bahamas;

(ii) by aircraft registered in The Bahamas, in any other airspace, being airspace in respect of which the Government of The Bahamas has in pursuance of international arrangements undertaken to provide navigation services for aircraft.

(2) Directions made under this regulation may apply either generally or in relation to any class of aircraft.

89. The provisions of these Regulations shall not apply to or in relation to —

(a) any balloon which at any stage of its flight is not more than 2 meters in any linear dimension including any basket or other equipment at- tached to the balloon;

(b) any kite weighing not more than 2 kg; (c) any other aircraft weighing not more than 7 kg

without its fuel; or (d) any parascending parachute. 90. (1) Subject to the following paragraphs of this

regulation any person who on the date these Regulations come into operation holds a licence, certificate or authorization validly issued under the laws, rules or regulations in force on that date for the registration, operation or maintenance of an aircraft shall be deemed to hold a licence in accordance with these Regulations for twelve months from the date these Regulations come into operation, unless his original licence, certificate or

Power to prohibit or restrict flying.

Ultra-small aircraft.

Transitional provisions.

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authorizations expires prior to the end of that twelve month period in which case his deemed licence under these Regulations shall expire on the same date.

(2) Within two months from the date these Regul- ations come into operation, every person claiming to be the holder of a licence, certificate or authorizations under paragraph (1) shall supply to the Flight Standards Inspectorate full details of his licence, certificate or authorizations and may notify its request for a new licence under these Regulations failing which his deemed licence shall expire forthwith.

(3) Where the Flight Standards Inspectorate, having reviewed any licence, certificate or authorizations notified to it under paragraph (2), is satisfied that such authoriza- tions certificate or licence had been validly issued under the laws, rules or regulations in force at the commencement, of these Regulations, the Inspectorate shall, within six months of the date of such notification issue a licence to that person to register, operate or maintain an aircraft or aerodrome for at least the unexpired term of the original authorizations or licence but otherwise subject to conditions duly determined by the Flight Standards Inspectorate.

(4) If the Flight Standards Inspectorate is not satisfied, for any reason, that a licence, certificate or authorization notified to it under paragraph (2) was validly issued or that person is still qualified to hold the document, it shall so notify the person concerned and the document in question shall expire on the date of notification.

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SCHEDULE 1

GENERAL POLICIES, PROCEDURES AND DEFINITIONS

SUBPART A:GENERAL 1.001 Applicability of These Schedules 1.005 Organization of Schedules (Except Schedule 2) 1.010 Rules of Construction 1.015 Definitions 1.020 Acronyms (reserved)

SUBPART B: GENERAL ADMINISTRATIVE RULES 1.025 Display and Inspection of Licences and Certificates 1.030 Change of Name 1.035 Change of Address 1.040 Replacement of a Lost or Destroyed DCA-Issued Document 1.045 Falsification, Reproduction, or Alteration of Required Documents 1.050 Surrender, Suspension, or Revocation of Licence or Certificate 1.055 Reapplication after Revocation 1.060 Reapplication after Suspension 1.065 Voluntary Surrender or Exchange of Licence 1.070 Prohibition on Performance During Medical Deficiency 1.075 Drug and Alcohol Testing and Reporting

SUBPART C: VALIDATION OF CERTIFICATES AND AUTHORIZATIONS 1.080 Validation — General 1.085 Term of Validity 1.090 Holders of Validated Documents 1.095 Validation of Type Certificates and Supplemental Type Certificates 1.100 Validation of Certificates of Airworthiness 1.105 Validation of Medical Certificates 1.110 Validation of Airman Certificates and Ratings 1.115 Validation of Air Operator Certificates 1.120 Validation of Approved Organizations 1.125 Validation of Approvals, Authorizations and Designations

SUBPART D: EXEMPTIONS AND EQUIVALENT SAFETY CASE 1.130 Exemptions and Equivalent Safety Case

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SUBPART A GENERAL

1.001 APPLICABILITY OF THESE SCHEDULES (a) These Schedules provide specific technical safety requirements prescribed

by the Minister in support of this regulation to ensure that operations in the Bahamas meet the international standards for aviation safety for registration of aircraft, maintenance of aircraft, personnel licensing and operations of aircraft in general aviation, aerial work and commercial air transport activities.

(b) Each Schedule shall, as indicated in the particular Schedule, apply to all persons operating or maintaining the following — (1) Bahamian-registered aircraft; (2) Aircraft registered in another Contracting State that are operated by a

person licenced by The Bahamas, and must be maintained in accordance with the standards of the aircraft State of Registry, wherever that maintenance is performed;

(3) Aircraft of other Contracting States operating in The Bahamas. (c) Schedule requirements addressing general matters establish minimum

standards for all aircraft operated in The Bahamas. Specific requirements applicable to the holder of a certificate shall apply if they appear to be in conflict with a more general Schedule requirement.

1.005 ORGANIZATION OF SCHEDULES (EXCEPT SCHEDULE 2) (a) These Schedules are subdivided into five hierarchical categories:

(1) Schedule refers to the primary subject area. (2) Subpart refers to any subdivision of a Schedule. (3) Section refers to any subdivision of a Subpart. (4) Subsection refers to the title of a regulation and can be a subdivision

of a Subpart or Section, (5) Paragraph refers to the text describing the regulations. All paragraphs

are outlined alphanumerically in the following hierarchical order: (a), (1), (i), (A).

(b) Definitions used throughout these Regulations are organised as follows: (1) Definitions applicable to two or more Schedules appear in this

Schedule; (2) Definitions applicable only to one Schedule appear at the beginning of

that Schedule; and (3) Definitions contained in the Civil Aviation Act of The Bahamas are

presented therein, and not in these Schedules (c) Acronyms used within each Schedule are defined at the beginning of those

Schedules, and if a definition is supplied, a note will indicate the Schedule where the definition is located.

(d) Notes appear in Subsections to provide exceptions, explanations, and examples to individual requirements.

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(e) Subsections may refer to Appendices, which provide detailed requirements that support the purpose of the subsection, and where specifically referenced by the subsection, gain the legal force and effect of the referring subsection. Under the rules of construction, the term “Appendix” is applied to these supplementary requirements.

1.010 RULES OF CONSTRUCTION (a) Throughout these regulations the following word usage applies:

(1) Shall indicates a mandatory requirement. (2) The words “no person may...” or “ a person may not...” mean that no

person is required, authorized, or permitted to do an act described in a regulation.

(3) May indicates that discretion can be used when performing an act described in a regulation.

(4) Will indicates an action incumbent upon the Authority. (5) Includes means “includes but is not limited to.” (6) Approved means the Authority has reviewed the method, procedure, or

policy in question and issued a formal written approval. (7) Acceptable means the Authority has reviewed the method, procedure,

or policy and has neither objected to nor approved its proposed use or implementation.

(8) Prescribed means the Authority has issued written policy or methodology which imposes either a mandatory requirement, if the written policy or methodology states “shall,” or a discretionary requirement if the written policy or methodology states “may.”

1.015 DEFINITIONS (a) For the purpose of these Schedules, the following definitions shall apply:

(1) “Acceptable to the Authority” Where used in these Schedules, identifies documents, portions of documents, formal procedures, facilities, equipment, or personnel that must be found satisfactory by a technical review of the Authority prior to use in aviation.

(2) Accountable manager. The manager who exercises authority on behalf of the Authority for ensuring that all prescribed actions are performed to the standard required by the Authority. When authorized by the Authority, the accountable manager may redelegate all or part of his or her authority in writing to another person within in the organization, who becomes the accountable manager for the matters delegated.

(3) Aerodrome. A defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft.

(4) Aeronautical experience. Pilot time obtained in an aircraft, approved flight simulator, or approved flight-training device for meeting the training and flight time requirements of these Regulations.

(5) Aeronautical product. Any aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or sub- assembly, appliance, material, part, or component to be installed thereon.

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(6) Aeroplane. A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight.

(7) Air Traffic Control. A service that promotes the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic at aerodromes and during the approach, departure, and en route environments.

(8) Air Traffic Control (ATC) facility. A building holding the persons and equipment responsible for providing ATC services (e.g., airport tower, approach control, center).

(9) Aircraft category. Classification of aircraft according to specified basic characteristics (e.g., aeroplane, helicopter, glider, free balloon).

(10) Aircraft component. Any component part of an aircraft up to and including a complete powerplant and/or any operational/emergency equipment.

(11) Aircraft type. All aircraft of the same basic design. (12) Airframe. The fuselage, booms, nacelles, cowlings, fairings, airfoil

surfaces (including rotors but excluding propellers and rotating airfoils of a powerplant), and landing gear of an aircraft and their accessories and controls.

(13) Airworthiness data. Any information necessary to ensure that an aircraft or aircraft component can be maintained in a condition such that airworthiness of the aircraft, or serviceability of operational and emergency equipment, as appropriate, is assured.

(14) Airworthiness release. A certification signed by a licenced mechanic authorized by the AOC holder indicating that work was performed in accordance with the AOC holder’s maintenance manual, was inspected by a licenced mechanic, and the aircraft was found satisfactory for safe operation.

(15) Appliance. Any instrument, mechanism, equipment, part, apparatus, appurtenance, or accessory, including communications equipment, that is used or intended to be used in operating or controlling an aircraft in flight, is installed in or attached to the aircraft, and is not part of an airframe, powerplant, or propeller.

(16) Approval. A formal instrument issued by the Authority based on a prior technical evaluation that authorizes the use of documents, portions of documents, or formal procedures in aviation.

(17) “Approved by the Authority” As used in these Schedules, this phrase identifies a document, person, facility, policy or procedure for which there must be an formal instrument issued prior to their use in aviation.

(18) Approved Maintenance Organization (AMO). An organization approved to perform specific aircraft maintenance activities by the Authority. These activities may include the inspection, overhaul, maintenance, repair and/or modification and release to service of aircraft or aeronautical products.

(19) Approved continuous maintenance program. A maintenance program approved by the State of Registry.

(20) Approved standard. A manufacturing, design, maintenance, or quality standard approved by the Authority.

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(21) Approved training. Training carried out under special curricula and supervision approved by the Authority.

(22) Authorization. A formal instrument issued by a civil aviation authority based on a technical evaluation that officially conveys to the holder certain privileges in aviation under the civil aviation law, regulations and Schedules.

(23)”Authorized by the Authority” This phrase identifies a requirement that involves a technical evaluation and the issuance of a formal instrument.

(24) Authorized instructor. A person who — (i) Holds a valid ground instructor certificate issued under Schedule

8 when conducting ground training; (ii) Holds a current flight instructor certificate issued under

Schedule 8 when conducting ground training or flight training; or

(iii) Is authorized by the Authority to provide ground training or flight training under Schedules 8 and 9.

(25) Authority. The Flight Standards Inspectorate of the Department of Civil Aviation.

(26) Balloon. A non-power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft. (27) Category II (CAT II) operations. With respect to the operation of

aircraft, means a straight-in ILS approach to the runway of an airport under a Category II ILS instrument approach procedure issued by the Authority or other appropriate authority.

(28) Category III (CAT III) operations. With respect to the operation of aircraft, means an ILS approach to, and landing on, the runway of an airport using a Category III ILS instrument approach procedure issued by the Authority or other appropriate authority.

(29) Certificate. A formal instrument issued by a civil aviation authority that authorizes the holder to perform the aviation activities identified on the document.

(30) Certify as airworthy. The required maintenance record entry completed by a properly authorized person after the modification, overhaul, repair, or the inspection of an aircraft, or aeronautical product required by the Authority.

(31) Certifying staff. Those personnel who are authorized by the Approved Maintenance Organization in accordance with a procedure acceptable to the Authority to certify aircraft or aircraft components for release to service.

(32) Commercial air transport. An aircraft operation involving the transport of passengers, cargo, or mail for remuneration or hire.

(33) Contracting States. All States that are signatories to the Convention on International Civil Aviation (Chicago Convention).

(34) Course. A program of instruction to obtain an airman licence, rating, qualification, authorization, or currency.

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(35) Courseware. Instructional material developed for each course or curriculum, including lesson plans, flight event descriptions, computer software programs, audio-visual programs, workbooks, and handouts.

(36) Crew Resource Management. A program designed to improve the safety of flight operations by optimising the safe, efficient, and effective use of human resources, hardware, and information through improved crew communication and co-ordination.

(37) Cross-country time. That time a pilot spends in flight in an aircraft which includes a landing at a point other than the point of departure and, for the purpose of meeting the cross-country time requirements for a private pilot licence (except with a rotorcraft rating), commercial pilot licence, or an instrument rating, includes a landing at an aerodrome which must be a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure.

(38) Designation. A formal instrument issued by the Authority, based on a technical evaluation process, that authorizes the holder to act on behalf of the Authority in the performance of the functions identified in the document.

(39)”Designated by the Authority” This phrase identifies a requirement that requires a technical evaluation process and a formal instrument issued by the Authority before a person may be used for a specific function in aviation.

(40) Dual instruction time. Flight time during which a person is receiving flight instruction from a properly authorized flight instructor on board the aircraft.

(41) Evaluator. A person employed by a certified Aviation Training Organization who performs tests for licensing, added ratings, authorizations, and proficiency checks that are authorized by the certificate holder’s training specification, and who is authorized by the Authority to administer such checks and tests.

(42) Examiner. Any person authorized by the Authority to conduct a pilot proficiency test, a practical test for an airman licence or rating, or a knowledge test under these Regulations.

(43) Flight crew member. A licenced crew member charged with duties essential to the operation of an aircraft during flight time.

(44) Flight simulator. A device that — (i) Is a full-size aircraft cockpit replica of a specific type of aircraft,

or make, model, and series of aircraft; (ii) Includes the hardware and software necessary to represent the

aircraft in ground operations and flight operations; (iii) Uses a force cueing system that provides cues at least equivalent

to those cues provided by a 3 degree freedom of motion system; (iv) Uses a visual system that provides at least a 45 degree horizontal

field of view and a 30 degree vertical field of view simultaneously for each pilot; and

(v) Has been evaluated, qualified, and approved by the Authority.

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(45) Flight time. The total time from the moment an aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight.

Note: Flight time as here defined is synonymous with the term “block-to- block” time or “chock-to-chock” time in general usage, which is measured from the time an aircraft moves from the loading point until it stops at the unloading point. (46) Flight training device. A device that —

(i) Is a full-size replica of the instruments, equipment, panels, and controls of an aircraft, or set of aircraft, open or in an enclosed cockpit, including the hardware and software for the systems installed, that is necessary to simulate the aircraft in ground and flight operations;

(ii) Need not have a force (motion) cueing or visual system; and (iii) Has been evaluated, qualified, and approved by the Authority.

Note: A set of aircraft are those that share similar performance characteristics, such as similar airspeed and altitude operating envelopes, similar handling characteristics, and the same number and type of propulsion systems. (47) Flight training. Training, other than ground training, received from an

authorized instructor in flight in an aircraft. (48) Glider. A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in

flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces, which remain, fixed under given conditions of flight.

(49) Helicopter. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axis. (i) Class 1 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such that, in

case of critical engine failure, it is able to land on the rejected take- off area or safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area, depending on when the failure occurs.

(ii) Class 2 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such that, in case of critical engine failure, it is able to safely continue the flight, except when the failure occurs prior to a defined point after take-off or after a defined point before landing, in which case a forced landing may be required.

(iii) Class 3 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such that, in case of engine failure at any point in the flight profile, a forced landing must be performed.

(50) Inspection. The examination of an aircraft or aeronautical product to establish conformity with a standard approved by the Authority.

(51) Instrument approach. An approach procedure prescribed by the Authority having jurisdiction over the aerodrome.

(52) Instrument time. Time in which cockpit instruments are used as the sole means for navigation and control.

(53) Instrument training. Training which is received from an authorized instructor under actual or simulated instrument meteorological conditions.

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(54) Knowledge test. A test on the aeronautical knowledge areas required for an airman licence or rating that can be administered in written form or by a computer.

(55) Licence. A formal instrument issued by a civil aviation authority that authorizes the holder to perform the functions identified on the document, subject to the applicable privileges and limitations.

(56) Large aeroplane. An aeroplane having a maximum certified take-off mass of 5,700 kg. (12,500 Lbs.), or more.

(57) Maintenance. Tasks required to ensure the continued airworthiness of an aircraft or aeronautical product including any one or combination of overhaul, repair, inspection, replacement, modification. and defect rectification.

(58) Maintenance release. A document containing a certification that inspection and maintenance work has been performed satisfactorily in accordance with the methods prescribed by the Authority.

(59) Minimum equipment list (MEL). A list approved by the Authority which provides for the operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions, with particular equipment inoperative, prepared by an operator in conformity with, or more restrictive than, the Master Minimum Equipment List established for the aircraft type by the aircraft manufacturer, and approved by the State of Design.

(60) Night. The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight or such other period between sunset and sunrise. Civil twilight ends in the evening when the center of the sun’s disc is 6 degrees below the horizon and begins in the morning when the center of the sun’s disc is 6 degrees below the horizon.

(61) Operational control. The exercise of authority over the initiation, continuation, diversion or termination of a flight in the interest of the safety of the aircraft and the regularity and efficiency of the flight.

(62) Pilot in command. The pilot responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft during flight time.

(63) Pilot time. That time a person — (i) Serves as a required pilot;

(ii) Receives training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, approved flight simulator, or approved flight training device; or

(iii) Gives training as an authorized instructor in an aircraft, approved flight simulator, or approved flight training device.

(64) Powered-lift. A heavier-than-air aircraft capable of vertical takeoff, vertical landing, and low speed flight that depends principally on engine-driven lift devices or engine thrust for lift during these flight regimes and on nonrotating airfoil(s) for lift during horizontal flight.

(65) Powerplant. An engine that is used or intended to be used for propelling aircraft. It includes turbosuperchargers, appurtenances, and accessories necessary for its functioning, but does not include propellers.

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(66) Practical test. A competency test on the areas of operations for a licence, certificate, rating, or authorization that is conducted by having the applicant respond to questions and demonstrate manoeuvres in flight, in an approved flight simulator, or in an approved flight training device, or in a combination of these.

(67) Pre-flight inspection. The inspection carried out before flight to insure that the aircraft is fit for the intended flight.

(68) “Prescribed by the Authority” This phrase denotes a requirement where the Authority may, through Appendix, Advisory Circular or Operations Order, outline the steps and standards necessary to meet the requirement.

(69) Pressurized aircraft. For airman licensing purposes, means an aircraft that has a service ceiling or maximum operating altitude, whichever is lower, above 25,000 feet MSL.

(70) Propeller. A device for propelling an aircraft that has blades on a powerplant driven shaft and that, when rotated, produces by its action on the air, a thrust approximately perpendicular to its plane of rotation. It includes control components normally supplied by its manufacturer, but does not include main and auxiliary rotors or rotating airfoils of powerplants.

(71) Rating. An authorization entered on or associated with a licence or certificate and forming part thereof, stating special conditions, privileges or limitations pertaining to such licence or certificate.

(72) Repair. The restoration of an aircraft/aeronautical product to a serviceable condition in conformity with an approved standard.

(73) Second in command. A licenced pilot serving in a piloting capacity other than as pilot-in-command, who is designated as second in command and who meets second in command requirements of Schedule 10 of these Regulations.

(74) Small aeroplane. An aeroplane having a maximum certified take-off mass of less than 5,700 kg. (12,500 lbs.).

(75) Solo flight. Flight time during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft, or that flight time during which the student acts as a PIC of a gas balloon or an airship requiring more than one flight crew member.

(76) State of Registry. The Contracting State on whose registry an aircraft is entered.

(77) Technical log. A document carried on an aircraft that contains information to meet ICAO requirements; a technical log contains two independent sections: a journey record section and an aircraft maintenance record section.

(78) Training program. Program that consists of courses, courseware, facilities, flight training equipment, and personnel necessary to accomplish a specific training objective. It may include a core curriculum and a specialty curriculum.

(79) Training time. The time spent receiving from an authorized instructor flight training, ground training, or simulated flight training in an approved flight simulator or approved flight-training device.

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(80) Validation. The acceptance of a certificate, licence, approval, designation, or authorization issued by another ICAO Contracting State as the primary basis for the Authority’s issuance of a certificate, licence, approval, designation, or authorization containing the same or more restrictive privileges.

1.020 ACRONYMS (RESERVED) SUBPART B

GENERAL ADMINISTRATIVE RULES 1.025 DISPLAY AND INSPECTION OF LICENCES AND CERTIFICATES (a) Pilot licence:

(1) To act as a pilot of a civil aircraft of Bahamian registry, a pilot shall have in his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a valid pilot licence or special purpose authorization issued under these regulations.

(2) To act as a pilot of a civil aircraft of foreign registry within The Bahamas, a pilot shall be the holder of a valid pilot licence, and have the pilot licence in his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft.

(b) Flight instructor licence: A person who holds a flight instructor licence shall have that licence, or other documentation acceptable to the Authority, in that person’s physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that licence.

(c) Other airman licence: A person required by any part of these Regulations to have an airman’s licence shall have it in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft or at the work site when exercising the privileges of that licence.

(d) Medical certificate: A person required by any Schedule of these Regulations to have a current medical certificate shall have it in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft or at the work site when exercising the privileges of that certificate.

(e) Pilot School certificate and Aviation Maintenance Technician School certificate: Each holder of a Pilot School certificate or a provisional Pilot School certificate or Aviation Maintenance Technician School certificate shall display that certificate in a place in the school that is normally accessible to the public and that is not obscured.

(f) Training Centre Certificate: Each holder of a Training Centre certificate shall prominently display that certificate in a place accessible to the public in the principal business office of the training center.

(g) Aircraft Airworthiness Certificate: Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall display that certificate in the cabin of the aircraft or at the entrance to the aircraft flight deck.

(h) Approved Maintenance Organization (AMO) Certificate: Each holder of an AMO certificate shall prominently display that certificate in a place accessible to the public in the principal business office of the AMO.

(i) Inspection of licence: Each person who holds an airman or crew member licence, medical certificate, or authorization required by these Regulations shall present it for inspection upon a request from:

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(1) The Authority; or (2) Any national or local law enforcement officer.

1.030 CHANGE OF NAME (a) A holder of a licence or certificate issued under these Regulations may apply

to change the name on a licence or certificate. The holder shall include with any such request — (1) The current licence or certificate; and (2) A copy of the marriage licence, court order, or other document

verifying the name change. (b) The Authority will return to the airman the documents specified in paragraph

(a) of this subsection. 1.035 CHANGE OF ADDRESS (a) The holder of an airman licence or pilot school, training centre, or aviation

maintenance school certificate who has made a change in permanent mailing address may not, after 30 days from that date, exercise the privileges of the licence or certificate unless the holder has notified the Authority in writing of the new permanent mailing address, or current residential address if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number.

1.040 REPLACEMENT OF A LOST OR DESTROYED DCA-ISSUED DOCUMENT

(a) An applicant who has lost or destroyed one of the following documents issued under these Regulations shall request a replacement in writing from the office designated by the Authority: (1) An airman licence. (2) A medical certificate. (3) A knowledge test report.

(b) The airman or applicant shall state in the request letter — (1) The name of the airman or applicant; (2) The permanent mailing address, or if the permanent mailing address

includes a post office box number, the person’s current residential address; (3) The social security number or equivalent national identification number; (4) The date and place of birth of the airman or applicant; and (5) Any available information regarding the —

(i) Grade, number, and date of issuance of the licence, and the ratings, if applicable;

(ii) Date of the medical examination, if applicable; and (iii) Date the knowledge test was taken, if applicable.

(c) After receiving a facsimile from the Authority confirming that the lost or destroyed document was issued, an airman may carry the facsimile in lieu of the lost or destroyed document for up to 60 days pending the airman’s receipt of a duplicate document.

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1.045 FALSIFICATION, REPRODUCTION, OR ALTERATION OF REQUIRED DOCUMENTS

(a) No person may make or cause to be made concerning any licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization, application for or duplicate thereof, issued under these regulations: (1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement; (2) Any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, record, or

report that these regulations require, or used to show compliance with any requirement of these regulations;

(3) Any reproduction for fraudulent purpose; or (4) Any alteration.

(b) Any person who commits any act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section may have his or her airman licence, rating, certificate, qualification, or authorization revoked or suspended.

1.050 SURRENDER, SUSPENSION, OR REVOCATION OF LICENCE OR CERTIFICATE

(a) Any licence or certificate issued under these regulations ceases to be effective if it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.

(b) The holder of any licence or certificate issued under these regulations that has been suspended or revoked shall return that licence or certificate to the Authority when requested to do so by the Authority.

1.055 REAPPLICATION AFTER REVOCATION (a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, a person whose licence,

certificate, rating, or authorization has been revoked may not apply for any licence, certificate, rating, or authorization for 1 year after the date of revocation.

1.060 REAPPLICATION AFTER SUSPENSION (a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, a person whose licence has

been suspended may not apply for any licence, rating, or authorization during the period of suspension.

1.065 VOLUNTARY SURRENDER OR EXCHANGE OF LICENCE (a) The holder of a licence or certificate issued under these regulations may

voluntarily surrender it for: (1) Cancellation; (2) Issuance of a lower grade licence; or (3) Another licence with specific ratings deleted.

(b) An applicant requesting voluntary surrender of a licence shall include the following signed statement or its equivalent: “This request is made for my own reasons, with full knowledge that my (insert name of licence or rating, as appropriate) may not be reissued to me unless I again pass the tests prescribed for its issuance.”

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1.070 PROHIBITION ON PERFORMANCE DURING MEDICAL DEFICIENCY

(a) A person who holds a current medical certificate issued under these regulations shall not act in a capacity for which that medical certificate is required while that person: (1) Knows or has reason to know of any medical condition that would make

the person unable to meet the requirements for the required medical certificate; or

(2) Is taking medication or receiving other treatment for a medical condition that results in the person being unable to meet the requirements for the required medical certificate.

1.075 DRUG AND ALCOHOL TESTING AND REPORTING (a) An employee who performs any function requiring a licence, rating, qualification, or

authorization prescribed by these regulations directly or by contract for a certificate holder under the provisions of these regulations may — (1) Be denied any licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization for

a period of up to 1 year after the date of such refusal; and (2) Have his or her licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization

issued under these regulations suspended or revoked. (b) Any person subject to these regulations who is convicted for the violation of any

local or national statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances, may — (1) Be denied any licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization

issued under these regulations for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or

(2) Have his or her licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization issued under these regulations suspended or revoked.

(c) Any person subject to these regulations who refuses to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer, or refuses to furnish or to authorize the release of the test results requested by the Authority may — (1) Be denied any licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization

issued under these regulations for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal; or

(2) Have his or her licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization issued under these regulations suspended or revoked.

SUBPART C VALIDATION OF CERTIFICATES AND AUTHORIZATIONS

1.080 VALIDATIONGENERAL (a) The Authority may, with prescribed restrictions and after a process of technical

evaluation and confirmation, use a certificate, licence, approval, designation, or authorization issued by another ICAO Contracting State as the basis for the issuance of a certificate, licence, approval, designation or authorization containing the same or more restrictive privileges.

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(b) The Authority may not use the process of validation to abdicate its responsibility to ensure that the source documents used are valid and were issued in accordance with applicable ICAO Standards.

(c) The Authority may conduct any additional test or inspection deemed technically or administratively necessary to confirm the competency of the holder and the validity of the certificate, licence, approval, designation or authorization.

(d) The Authority will not use a document issued by another ICAO Contracting State through the process of validation as the primary basis for issuance of a Bahamian certificate.

1.085 TERM OF VALIDITY (a) Each certificate, licence, approval, designation or authorization issued by

the Authority through a validation process is subject to the same procedures for modification, suspension, revocation or termination applicable to other documents issued by the Authority.

(b) Unless otherwise prescribed, each certificate, licence, approval, designation or authorization issued by the Authority through a validation process will become invalid when the document used as the basis of issuance becomes invalid, non-current, or expires or is suspended or revoked by the ICAO Contracting State that originally issued it.

(c) The Authority must notify the Authority of the other ICAO Contracting State if, through the processes of certification, inspection, observation or investigation, it determines that the holder of a certificate, licence, approval, designation or authorization issued through the processes of validation is — (1) No longer qualified or competent to hold that document; (2) Not in conformance with the applicable ICAO Standards or national

regulations applicable to that document; or (3) Engaged in sub-standard practices with respect to the international

safety practices relevant to that document. 1.090 HOLDERS OF VALIDATED DOCUMENTS (a) No act of validation by the Authority relieves the holder of the certificate,

licence, approval, designation or authorization from conformance with these Schedules or the applicable laws of the ICAO Contracting State that issued the original document.

(b) No act of validation by the Authority relieves the holder of the certificate, licence, approval, designation or authorization from inspection and verification by the Authority for continued competency and conformance with the original basis for issuance.

(c) The holder of a certificate, licence, approval, designation, or authorization issued through the process of validation shall submit to any additional test or inspection deemed technically or administratively by the Authority to ensure the continued validity and competency of the holder of the certificate, licence, approval, designation or authorization.

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1.095 VALIDATION OF TYPE CERTIFICATES AND SUPPLEMENTAL TYPE CERTIFICATES

(a) With the exception of experimental or restricted certificates of airworthiness, all certificates of airworthiness issued by the Authority will conform to the Type Certificate and Supplemental Type Certificates issued by the State of Design or Manufacture.

1.100 VALIDATION OF CERTIFICATES OF AIRWORTHINESS

(a) Certificates of Airworthiness issued by the Authority may use as the primary basis for original issuance another ICAO Contracting State’s certificate, but the continued validity of the Bahamian certificate of airworthiness will not be linked to the other State’s certificate.

1.105 VALIDATION OF MEDICAL CERTIFICATES (a) Medical certificates issued by the Authority with validation of another ICAO

Contracting State’s certificate as the primary basis for issuance will be linked to the continued validity of the other State’s certificate.

1.110 VALIDATION OF AIRMAN CERTIFICATES AND RATINGS

(a) Airman certificates, ratings and limitations issued by the Authority to citizens of The Bahamas with validation of another ICAO Contracting State’s certificate as the primary basis for issuance will not be linked to the continued validity of the other State’s certificate.

(b) Airman certificates, ratings and limitations issued to persons not citizens of the Bahamas with valuation of another ICAO Contracting State’s certificate as the primary basis for issuance will be linked to the continued validity of the other State’s certificate.

1.115 VALIDATION OF AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATES. (a) Validation will never be used by the Authority as the primary basis for

issuance of an Air Operator Certificate to a Bahamian entity engaged in commercial air transport.

1.120 VALIDATION OF APPROVED ORGANIZATIONS (a) The holder of an Approved Maintenance Organization Certificate issued by

another ICAO Contracting State may be authorized by the Authority to perform maintenance and repair of aircraft registered in the Bahamas (or operated by the holder of AOC issued by the Bahamas) using as the primary basis the certificate, privileges and limitations issued by the other State.

(b) The holder of an Approved Training Organization Certificate issued by another ICAO Contracting State may be authorized by the Authority to provide training facilities, equipment, simulators, instructors and examiners to airmen and operators of the Bahamas, using as the primary basis the certificate, privileges, designation and limitations issued by the other State.

(c) Other organizations approved by an ICAO Contracting State may be authorized by the Authority to provide services to airmen and operators of The Bahamas, using as the primary basis the certificate, privileges and limitations issued by the other State.

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(d) The authorizations issued to these Approved Organizations by the Authority through the process of validation are linked to the continued validity of the certificates, privileges and limitations issued by the other State.

1.125 VALIDATION OF APPROVALS, AUTHORIZATIONS AND DESIGNATIONS

(a) Documents, facilities, equipment, training devices, simulators separately approved by an ICAO Contracting State through a technical certification process, and subject to continued inspection or revalidation, may be separately approved by the Authority for use of airmen and operators of The Bahamas, using as the primary basis the approval, privileges and limitations issued by the other State.

(b) Personnel holding an authorization from an ICAO Contracting State to perform certain functions on behalf of the Authority of that State, based on acceptable technical requirements, qualification processes and subject to continued inspection, may be authorized by the Authority for use of airmen and operators of The Bahamas, using as the primary basis the authorization, privileges and limitation issued by the other State.

(c) Personnel holding a designation from an ICAO Contracting State to perform certain functions on behalf of the Authority of that State, based on acceptable technical requirements, qualification processes and subject to continued inspection, may be designated by the Authority for use of airmen and operators of The Bahamas, using as the primary basis the designation, privileges and limitations issued by the other State.

(d) The approvals, authorizations and designations issued by the Authority through the process of validation are linked to the continued validity of the approvals, authorizations and designations issued by the other State.

SUBPART D EXEMPTIONS AND EQUIVALENT SAFETY CASE

1.130 EXEMPTIONS AND EQUIVALENT SAFETY CASE No person may introduce procedures contrary to those prescribed in these

regulations unless needed and an equivalent safety case has first been approved by the Authority.

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SCHEDULE 2

PENALTIES PART A

PROVISIONS REFERRED TO IN REGULATION 9.(5)

Regulation Subject Matter 5 Failure to comply with direction given under the regulations

7(2) Failure to surrender document 8(5) Failure to surrender permit

15(2) Failure to produce document or record 15(3) Failure to allow access 15(7) Intentional obstruction or impedance of authorised person

16(2)(a) Failure to grant access to an aerodrome 16(2)(b) Failure to grant access to aircraft or facilities for inspection 16(2)(c) Failure to allow inflight inspection

17(2) Obstruction or interference with the copying of documents 18 Failure to produce documents and records

20(1) Failure to produce reports of occurrences 21 Failure to carry proper documents 22 Failure to preserve documents 24 Aircraft flying unregistered 26 Aircraft flying with false or incorrect markings 27 Failure to conform to type certificate 30 Flight without appropriate maintenance

30(2) Failure to conform to maintenance program 31(1) Failure to keep aircraft maintenance records 31(2) Failure to enter defects in maintenance records 31(3) Failure to enter rectification of defects in maintenance

records 32 Flight without a release to service 39 Conducting operations without complying with the minimum

instruments and equipment requirements 42 Providing flying instruction without proper certificate 45 Flying when not properly qualified and current

46(1) Operations without a valid airman medical certificate 50 Careless or reckless actions

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Regulation Subject Matter 59 Failure to comply with requirements for operations in

controlled flight 61(1) Failure to comply with the terms of the aerial application

certificate 62(1) Failure to meet requirements for towing, picking up and

raising of articles and persons 64(1) Failure to obtain authorization for persons dropping or

jumping from aircraft 66 Failure to comply with requirements for exhibition of flying,

aircraft races or contests 68 Operations in commercial air transport without completing

the certification requirements for such operations 69 Failure to continue to comply with the authorizations and

limitations prescribed by the Authority for commercial air transport.

70 Operation of unauthorized aircraft in commercial air transport

71 Failure to comply with the security requirements applicable to commercial air transport

72 Failure to comply with the maintenance requirements applicable to commercial air transport

73 Failure to comply with minimum passenger carrying requirements for commercial air transport

74 Failure to comply with the minimum and recurring qualifications for persons involved in commercial air transport

75 Failure to comply with the maximum duty and flight time and minimum rest period requirements applicable to personnel in commercial air transport

76 Failure to comply with the flight release requirements of commercial air transport

77 Failure to comply with mass and balance and performance requirements for commercial air transport

80(1) Failure to make accident report 80(3) Failure to co-operate with an accident investigation

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PART B PROVISIONS REFERRED TO IN REGULATION 9.(6)

Regulation Subject Matter 14 Improper possession or use of Aviation Safety Inspector

Credential 15(2) False statement 15(5) Failure to comply with prevent flying order 20(5) False report 23(1)(a) Use of a document by a person not entitled to that document 23(1)(b) Allowing improper person to use personal licences and

certificates 23(1)(c) False representation for the purpose of acquiring a certificate

or document 23(2) Intentional alteration, damage, or destroying of document 23(2) False entries in documents 23(4) Issuance of document when not entitled to make that issue 28 Flight without a certificate of airworthiness 29 Failure to comply with airworthiness directives 33(1) Conducting business as an Approved Maintenance

Organization without obtaining required certificate. 49(1) Conducting business as an Approved Training Organization

without obtaining required certificate. 52 Interference with a crew member 67(1) Operations in commercial air transport without an Air

Operator Certificate 78 Unauthorized shipment or carriage of dangerous goods 79 Unauthorized carriage of munitions of war or weapons 80(2) False report regarding accident

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SCHEDULE 3 AIRCRAFT REGISTRATION

SUBPART A: GENERAL 3.001 Applicability 3.005 Definitions 3.010 Acronyms SUBPART B: REGISTRATION REQUIREMENTS 3.015 General 3.020 Registration Eligibility 3.025 Application SUBPART C: NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION MARKS 3.030 General 3.035 Display of Marks: General 3.040 Size of Marks 3.045 Deviations for Size and Location of Marks 3.050 Location of Marks on Fixed-wing Aircraft 3.055 Location of Marks on Rotorcraft 3.060 Location of Marks on Lighter-than-Air Aircraft 3.065 Sale of Aircraft: Removal of Marks 3.070 Identification Plate Required

SUBPART A GENERAL

3.001 APPLICABILITY (a) This Schedule prescribes the requirements for registration and marking of

Civil Aircraft under the provisions of The Bahamas Air Navigation Regulations.

3.005 DEFINITIONS (a) For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply:

(1) Fireproof material. A material capable of withstanding heat as well as or better than steel when the dimensions in both cases are appropriate for the specific purpose.

(2) Glider. A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight.

(3) Heavier-than-air aircraft. Any aircraft deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces.

(4) Lighter-than-air aircraft. Any aircraft supported chiefly by its buoyancy in the air.

(5) State of Registry. The State on whose register the aircraft is entered.

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3.010 ACRONYMS (a) The following acronyms are used in this Schedule:

(1) ADIZ — Air Defence Identification Zone (2) DEWIZ — Distant Early Warning Identification Zone

SUBPART B REGISTRATION REQUIREMENTS

3.015 GENERAL (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft that is eligible for registration under

the laws of The Bahamas unless it has been registered by its owner under the provisions of the laws of The Bahamas and the Authority has issued a Certificate of Aircraft Registration for that aircraft which shall be carried aboard that aircraft for all operations.

3.020 REGISTRATION ELIGIBILITY (a) An aircraft is eligible for registration if it is —

(1) Owned by a natural citizen, an individual citizen of a foreign State who is lawfully admitted for permanent residence in The Bahamas, a corporation lawfully organized and doing business under the laws of The Bahamas, or a government entity of The Bahamas; and

(2) Not registered under the laws of any foreign country. 3.025 APPLICATION (a) A person who wishes to register an aircraft in The Bahamas must submit an

application for aircraft registration to the Authority in a form and manner acceptable to the Authority. Each application shall — (1) Certify as to citizenship; (2) Show evidence identifying ownership; and (3) Be signed in ink.

(b) The fee provided for by law will be submitted for processing as prescribed by the Authority.

(c) Upon an applicant meeting all requirements for registration, a Certificate of Aircraft Registration will be issued by the Authority.

SUBPART C NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION MARKS

3.030 GENERAL (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft registered in The Bahamas unless it

displays nationality and registration marks in accordance with the requirements of this section. The letter or letters used to identify the nationality of the aircraft shall conform to the requirements outlined in ICAO Annex 7. This is to be followed by a series of numbers or letters assigned by the Authority.

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(b) Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, no person may place on any aircraft a design, mark, or symbol that modifies or confuses the nationality and registration marks. The marks shall not be confused with the International Five Letter Code of Signals or Distress Codes.

(c) Permanent marking of aircraft nationality and registration shall — (1) Be painted on the aircraft or affixed by other means insuring a similar

degree of permanence; (2) Have No Date ornamentation; (3) Contrast in color with the background; and (4) Be legible.

3.035 DISPLAY OF MARKS: GENERAL (a) Each owner shall display on that aircraft marks consisting of the Roman capital

letter denoting nationality of The Bahamas followed by the registration number of the aircraft in Arabic numerals. Each suffix letter used in the marks displayed must also be a Roman capital letter.

(b) If, because of the aircraft configuration, it is not possible to mark the aircraft in accordance with this Part, the owner may apply to the Authority for a different procedure.

3.040 SIZE OF MARKS (a) Each operator of an aircraft shall display marks on the aircraft meeting the size

requirements of this section. (b) Height. The character marks shall be of equal height and on —

(1) Fixed-wing aircraft must be at least 30 centimetres high; (2) Rotorcraft must be at least 30 centimetres high; and (3) Lighter-than-air and powered-lift aircraft at least 50 centimetres high.

(c) Width. Characters must be two-thirds as wide as they are high, except the number “1”, which must be one-sixth as wide as it is high, and the letters “M” and “W” which may be as wide as they are high.

(d) Thickness. Characters shall be formed by solid lines one-sixth as thick as the character is high.

(e) Spacing. The space between each character may not be less than one-fourth of the character width.

(f) Uniformity. The marks required by this Part for fixed-wing aircraft must have the same height, width, thickness, and spacing on both sides of the aircraft.

(g) Each operator of an aircraft penetrating an ADIZ or DEWIZ shall display on that aircraft temporary or permanent nationality and registration marks at least 30 centimeters high.

3.045 DEVIATIONS FOR SIZE AND LOCATION OF MARKS (a) If either one of the surfaces authorized for displaying required marks is large

enough for display of marks meeting the size requirements of this section and the other is not, the operator shall place full-size marks on the larger surface.

(b) If neither surface is large enough for full-size marks, the Authority may approve marks as large as practicable for display on the larger of the two surfaces.

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3.050 LOCATION OF MARKS ON FIXED-WING AIRCRAFT (a) The operator of a fixed-wing aircraft shall display the required marks on

either the vertical tail surfaces or the sides of the fuselage. (b) The marks required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be displayed as

follows: (1) If displayed on the vertical tail surfaces, horizontally on both surfaces,

horizontally on both surfaces of a single vertical tail or on the outer surfaces of a multi-vertical tail.

(2) If displayed on the fuselage surfaces, horizontally on both sides of the fuselage between the trailing edge of the wing and the leading edge of the horizontal stabilizer.

(3) If engine pods or other appurtenances are located in the area described in paragraph (b)(2) and are an integral part of the aircraft, the operator may place the marks on those pods or appurtenances.

3.055 LOCATION OF MARKS ON ROTORCRAFT (a) Each operator of a rotorcraft shall display marks horizontally on both

surfaces of the cabin, fuselage, boom, or tail, such that the rotorcraft can be readily identified.

3.060 LOCATION OF MARKS ON LIGHTER-THAN-AIR AIRCRAFT (a) Airships. The operator shall place marks on an airship to appear on —

(1) The hull, located lengthwise on each side of the hull and on its upper surface on the line of symmetry; or

(2) The horizontal and vertical stabilizers surfaces — (i) For the horizontal stabilizer, located on the right half of the

upper surface and on the left half of the lower surface, with the tops of the letters and numbers toward the leading edge; and

(ii) For the vertical stabilizer, located on each side of the bottom half stabilizer, with the letters and numbers placed horizontally.

(b) Spherical balloons (other than unmanned free balloons). The operator shall apply marks to appear in two places diametrically opposite each other and located near the maximum horizontal circumference of the balloon.

(c) Non-spherical balloons (other than unmanned free balloons). The operator shall apply marks to appear on each side, located near the maximum cross- section of the balloon immediately above either the rigging band or the points of attachment of the basket suspension cables.

(d) Lighter-than-air aircraft (other than unmanned free balloons). The operator shall apply side marks to be visible both from the sides and from the ground.

(e) Unmanned free balloons. The operator shall apply marks to appear on the identification plate.

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3.065 SALE OF AIRCRAFT: REMOVAL OF MARKS (a) When an aircraft that is registered in The Bahamas is sold, the holder of the

Certificate of Aircraft Registration shall remove, before its delivery to the purchaser, all nationality and registration marks of The Bahamas, unless the purchaser is a citizen or other legal entity.

3.070 IDENTIFICATION PLATE REQUIRED (a) The operator shall affix to each aircraft registered under the laws of The

Bahamas an identification plate — (1) Containing the aircraft type, model, serial number, marks of

nationality, and licence; (2) Made of fireproof metal or other fireproof material of suitable

physical properties; (3) Secured to the aircraft in a prominent position, near the main entrance,

or, in the case of a free balloon, affixed conspicuously to the exterior of the payload.

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SCHEDULE 4

AIRCRAFT AND COMPONENT ORIGINAL CERTIFICATION

SUBPART A: GENERAL 4.001 Applicability 4.005 Definitions 4.010 Acronyms SUBPART B: TYPE CERTIFICATES 4.015 Validation of Type Certificates 4.020 Type Certificate Issuance by The Bahamas 4.025 Validation of Supplemental Type Certificates SUBPART C: AIRCRAFT CERTIFICATION REGULATIONS 4.035 Applicable Aircraft Certification Regulations

SUBPART A GENERAL

4.001 APPLICABILITY (a) This Schedule prescribes the type-certificate and supplemental type certificate

standards that will be applied during the issuance and renewal of airworthiness certificates.

(b) This Schedule describes the policies of The Bahamas and the designation of applicable rules for original certification of aircraft and components.

4.005 DEFINITIONS (a) For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply —

(1) State of Design. The Contracting State which approved the original type certificate and any subsequent supplemental type certificates for an aircraft, or which approved the design of an aeronautical product or appliance.

(2) State of Manufacture. The Contracting State, under whose authority an aircraft was assembled, approved for compliance with the type certificate and all extant supplemental type certificates, test flown and approved for operation. The state of manufacture may or may not also be the state of design.

(3) State of Registry. The Contracting State on whose register the aircraft is entered.

4.010 ACRONYMS (a) The following acronyms are used in this Schedule:

(1) AOC — Air Operator Certificate (2) TSO — Technical Standard Order

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SUBPART B TYPE CERTIFICATES

4.015 VALIDATION OF TYPE CERTIFICATES (a) The Authority will validate the type certificate of the State of Design or State

of Manufacture when issuing an certificate of airworthiness for an aircraft on The Bahamas’ register.

(b) The Authority may, after technical evaluation to ensure that ICAO Standards are properly met, validate a type certificate issued by ICAO Contracting State other than the State of Design or Manufacture.

4.020 TYPE CERTIFICATE ISSUANCE BY THE BAHAMAS (a) The Authority will hold this Subpart reserved unfit such time as it has received

an application for Type Certificates, Production Certificates or other related approvals.

(b) Any applicant for a production certificate for any aircraft or aeronautical product thereof for manufacture in The Bahamas shall comply with the type certificate as required by the State of Design for approval.

(c) At such time as the application for production is presented the Authority will make available suitable schedules or provisions for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate, or airworthiness document as appropriate for the product concerned.

4.025 VALIDATION OF SUPPLEMENTAL TYPE CERTIFICATES

(a) Any person who alters a product by introducing a major change in type design, not great enough to require a new application for a type certificate, shall apply for a Supplemental Type Certificate to the regulatory agency of the State of Design that approved the type certificate for that product, or to the State of Registry of the aircraft. The applicant shall apply in accordance with the procedures prescribed by that State.

SUBPART C AIRCRAFT CERTIFICATION REGULATIONS

4.035 APPLICABLE AIRCRAFT CERTIFICATION REGULATIONS

(a) The Authority will apply the detailed and comprehensive aircraft certification regulations of the ICAO Contracting State which issued the type certificate to the determination of continued airworthiness of the aircraft, provided — (1) These regulations are in conformance with the Standards of ICAO Annex 8; (2) These regulations are in English or certified translation to English; (3) A copy of these regulations are provided with the application for the

airworthiness certificate; and (4) There is a satisfactory method of updating the Authority’s copy of these

regulations throughout the period of time the aircraft is registered in the Bahamas.

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(b) The aircraft certification regulations which are available to and applied by the Authority in the determination for issuance of a certificate of airworthiness and continuing airworthiness are those of the — (1) United States Federal Aviation Administration; (2) European Joint Aviation Authorities; and (3) Canadian Ministry of Transport.

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SCHEDULE 5 CONTINUING AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT

SUBPART A: GENERAL 5.001 Applicability 5.005 Definitions 5.010 Acronyms SUBPART B: AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATES 5.015 Applicability 5.020 Eligibility 5.025 Classifications of Airworthiness Certificates 5.030 Amendment of Airworthiness Certificate 5.035 Transfer or Surrender of Airworthiness Certificate 5.040 Effective Dates of Airworthiness Certificate 5.045 Aircraft Identification 5.050 Issue of Standard Airworthiness Certificates 5.055 Airworthiness Directives 5.060 Issue of Noise Certificate 5.065 Issue of Special Airworthiness Certificates SUBPART C: CONTINUED AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT AND

COMPONENTS 5.070 Applicability 5.075 Responsibility 5.080 General 5.085 Reporting of Failures, Malfunctions, and Defects SUBPART D: AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE REQUIREMENTS 5.090 Applicability 5.095 General 5.097 Repair Assessment for Pressurized Fuselages 5.100 Maintenance Required 5.105 Inspections 5.110 Progressive inspection 5.115 Changes to Aircraft Maintenance Programs SUBPART E: PERFORMANCE STANDARDS 5.135 Applicability 5.140 Persons Authorised to Perform Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and

Modifications 5.145 Persons Authorised to Perform Maintenance 5.150 Authorised Personnel to Approve for Return to Service 5.155 Persons Authorised to Perform Inspections 5.160 Performance Rules: Maintenance 5.165 Performance Rules: Inspections 5.170 Performance Rules: Airworthiness Limitations

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SUBPART F: MAINTENANCE RECORDS AND ENTRIES 5.200 Owner Maintenance Records 5.205 Owner Maintenance Records Retention 5.210 Transfer of Maintenance Records by Owner 5.215 Maintenance and Modification Record Entries 5.220 Entries Required Following Overhaul and Rebuilding 5.225 Entries for Approval for Return to Service 5.230 Content and Form for Entries Following Inspection SUBPART G: MAINTENANCE PERSONNEL LIMITATIONS, PRIVILEGES

AND RECENCY 5.250 Rest and Duty Limitations for Persons Performing

Maintenance Functions 5.255 AMT Privileges and Limitations 5.260 AMT Recent Experience Requirements 5.265 Inspection Authorisation Privileges and Limitations 5.270 Aviation Repair Specialist Licences: Privileges and Limitations APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 5.005: Major Modifications (Definition) Appendix 2 to 5.005: Major Repairs (Definition) Appendix 3 to 5.005: Preventive Maintenance (Definition) Appendix 1 to 5.105: Altimeter System Tests and Inspections

Table I to Appendix 1 to 5.105 Table II to Appendix 1 to 5.105: Test Tolerances Table III to Appendix 1 to 5.105: Friction Table IV to Appendix 1 to 5.5105: Pressure/Altitude Difference

Appendix 2 to 5.105: Transponder Tests and Inspections Appendix 3 to 5.105: VOR Receiver Tests and Inspections Appendix 1 to 5.165: Performance Rules: 100-Hour Inspections Appendix 1 to 5.215: Recording of Major Repairs and Major Modifications

SUBPART A GENERAL

5.001 APPLICABILITY (a) This Schedule prescribes the requirements for —

(1) Certification of aircraft and aeronautical components; (2) Issuance of Airworthiness certificates and other certifications for aero-

nautical products; (3) Continued airworthiness of aircraft and aeronautical components; (4) Rebuilding and modifications of aircraft and aeronautical components; (5) Maintenance and preventive maintenance of aircraft and aeronautical

components; (6) Aircraft inspection requirements; and (7) Air operator aircraft maintenance and inspection requirements.

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5.005 DEFINITIONS (a) For the purpose of the Schedule, the following definitions shall apply —

(1) Major modification. Described in Appendix 1 to 5.005 (2) Major repair. Described in Appendix 2 to 5.005. (3) Modification. The alteration of an aircraft/aeronautical product in

conformity with an approved standard. (4) Preventative maintenance. Described in Appendix 3 to 5.005. (5) Overhaul. The restoration of an aircraft/aeronautical product using methods,

techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority, including disassembly, cleaning, and inspection as permitted, repair as necessary, and reassembly; and tested in accordance with approved standards and technical data, or in accordance with current standards and technical data acceptable to the Authority, which have been developed and documented by the State of Design, holder of the type certificate, supplemental type certificate, or a material, part, process, or appliance approval under Parts Manufacturing Authorisation (PMA) or Technical Standard Order (TSO).

(6) Rebuild. The restoration of an aircraft/aeronautical product by using methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority, when it has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected as permitted, repaired as necessary, reassembled, and tested to the same tolerances and limits as a new item, using either new parts or used parts that conform to new part tolerances and limits. This work will be performed by only the manufacturer or an organization approved by the manufacturer, and authorised by the State of Registry.

(7) Required inspection items. Maintenance items and/or alterations that must be inspected by a person other than the one performing the work, and include at least those that could result in a failure, malfunction, or defect endangering the safe operation of the aircraft, if not properly performed or if improper parts or materials are used.

(8) State of Design. The Contracting State which approved the original type certificate and any subsequent supplemental type certificates for an aircraft, or which approved the design of an aeronautical product or appliance.

(9) State of Manufacture. The Contracting State, under whose authority an aircraft was assembled, approved for compliance with the type certificate and all extant supplemental type certificates, test flown and approved for operation. The state of manufacture may or may not also be the state of design.

(10) State of Registry. The Contracting State on whose register the aircraft is entered.

5.010 ACRONYMS (a) The following acronyms are used in this Schedule:

(1) AOC — Air Operator Certificate (2) AMO — Approved Maintenance Organization (3) MEL — Minimum Equipment List

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(4) PIC — Pilot in command (5) TSO — Technical Standard Order

SUBPART B AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATES

5.015 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart prescribes procedures required for the issue of airworthiness

certificates. 5.020 ELIGIBILITY (a) Any registered owner of a Bahamian registered aircraft, or agent of the owner,

may apply for an airworthiness certificate for that aircraft. (b) Each applicant for an airworthiness certificate shall apply in a form and manner

acceptable to the Authority. 5.025 CLASSIFICATIONS OF AIRWORTHINESS

CERTIFICATES (a) Standard Airworthiness Certificates will be issued for aircraft in the specific

category and model designated by the State of Design in the type certificate. (b) The Authority may issue a Special Airworthiness Certificate in the form of a

restricted certificate or special flight permit. 5.030 AMENDMENT OF AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATE (a) The Authority may amend or modify an Airworthiness Certificate:

(1) Upon application from an operator. (2) On its own initiative.

5.035 TRANSFER OR SURRENDER OF AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATE

(a) An owner shall transfer an Airworthiness Certificate — (1) To the lessee upon lease of an aircraft within or outside The Bahamas. (2) To the buyer upon sale of the aircraft within The Bahamas.

(b) An owner shall surrender the Airworthiness Certificate for the aircraft to the issuing Authority upon sale of that aircraft outside of The Bahamas.

5.040 EFFECTIVE DATES OF AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATE

(a) Airworthiness Certificates are effective as follows unless sooner surrendered, suspended or revoked, or a special termination date is otherwise established by the Authority — (1) A special flight permit is valid for the period of time specified in the permit. (2) A Certificate of Airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid,

subject to the laws of the State of Registry, provided that the State of Registry shall require that the continuing airworthiness of the aircraft shall be determined by a periodical inspection at appropriate intervals having regard to lapse of time and type of service.

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(b) When an aircraft imported for registration in The Bahamas has a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by another Contracting State, The Bahamas may, as an alternative to issuance of its own Certificate of Airworthiness, establish validity by suitable authorisation to be carried with the former Certificate of Airworthiness accepting it as the equivalent of a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by The Bahamas. The validity of the authorisation shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the Certificate of Airworthiness or one year, whichever is less.

5.045 AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION (a) Each applicant for an airworthiness certificate shall show that the aircraft is

properly registered and marked, including identification plates. 5.050 ISSUE OF STANDARD AIRWORTHINESS

CERTIFICATES (a) The Authority will issue a Standard Airworthiness certificate if —

(1) The applicant presents evidence to the Authority that the aircraft conforms to a type design approved under a type certificate or a supplemental type certificate and to the applicable Airworthiness Directives of the State of Manufacture;

(2) The aircraft has been inspected in accordance with the performance rules of this schedule for inspections and found airworthy by persons authorised by the Authority to make such determinations within the last 30 calendar days; and

(3) The Authority finds after an inspection that the aircraft conforms to type design and is in condition for safe operation.

(b) The Authority may validate an airworthiness certificate issued by another Contracting State upon registration of the aircraft in The Bahamas for the period specified in that certificate.

5.055 AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES (a) Upon registration of an aircraft in The Bahamas, the Authority will notify

the State of Design of the aircraft of the registration in The Bahamas, and request that the Authority receives any and all airworthiness directives addressing that aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part.

(b) Whenever the State of Design considers that a condition in an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part is unsafe as shown by the issuance of an airworthiness directive by that State, the Authority will make the requirements of such directives apply to The Bahamas registered civil aircraft of the type identified in that airworthiness directive.

(c) The Authority may identify manufacturer’s service bulletins and other sources of data, or develop and prescribe inspections, procedures and limitations, for mandatory compliance pertaining to affected aircraft in The Bahamas.

(d) No person may operate any The Bahamas registered civil aircraft to which the measures of this subsection apply, except in accordance with the applicable directives.

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5.060 ISSUE OF NOISE CERTIFICATE (a) The Authority will issue a noise certificate for each aircraft to be used in

international operations. 5.065 ISSUE OF SPECIAL AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATES (a) The Authority may issue a Special Airworthiness Certificate to the aircraft that

does not qualify for a Standard Certificate. (b) Aircraft holding Special Airworthiness Certificates shall be subject to operating

limitations within The Bahamas and may not make international flights. The Authority shall issue specific operating limitations for each Special Airworthiness Certificate.

(c) The Authority may issue Special Flight Permits to an aircraft that is capable of safe flight, but unable to meet applicable airworthiness requirements, for the purpose of — (1) Flying to a base where repairs, modifications, maintenance, or inspections

are to be performed, or to a point of storage; (2) Testing after repairs, modifications, or maintenance have been performed; (3) Delivering or exporting the aircraft; (4) Evacuating aircraft from areas of impending danger; and (5) Operating at weight in excess of the aircraft’s maximum Certified

Takeoff Weight for flight beyond normal range over water or land areas where adequate landing facilities or appropriate fuel is not available. The excess weight is limited to additional fuel, fuel-carrying facilities, and navigation equipment necessary for the flight.

(d) The Authority may issue a special flight permit with continuing authorisation issued to an aircraft that may not meet applicable airworthiness requirements but are capable of safe flight, for the purpose of flying aircraft to a base where maintenance or alterations are to be performed. The permit issued under this paragraph is an authorisation, including conditions and limitations for flight, which is set forth in the AOC Holder’s specific operating provisions. This permit under this paragraph may be issued to an AOC Holder certificated under Schedule 12.

(e) In the case of Special Flight Permits, the Authority shall require a properly executed maintenance endorsement in the aircraft permanent record by a person or organization, authorised in accordance with this Schedule, stating that the subject aircraft has been inspected and found to be safe for the intended flight.

(f) The operator shall obtain all required overflight authorisations from countries to be overflown on flights outside The Bahamas.

SUBPART C CONTINUED AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT AND COMPONENTS

5.070 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart prescribes rules governing the continued airworthiness of civil

aircraft registered in The Bahamas whether operating inside or outside the borders of The Bahamas.

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5.075 RESPONSIBILITY (a) The owner of an aircraft or, in the case of a leased aircraft, the lessee, shall be

responsible for maintaining the aircraft in an airworthy condition by ensuring that — (1) All maintenance, overhaul, modifications and repairs which affect air-

worthiness are performed as prescribed by the State of Registry; (2) Maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft main-

tenance records certifying that the aircraft is airworthy; (3) The approval for return to service (maintenance release) is completed

to the effect that the maintenance work performed has been completed satisfactorily and in accordance with the prescribed methods; and

(4) In the event there are open discrepancies, the maintenance release includes a list of the uncorrected maintenance items and these items are made a part of the aircraft permanent record.

5.080 GENERAL (a) No person may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or

modifications on an aircraft other than as prescribed in this schedule. (b) No person may operate an aircraft for which a manufacturer’s maintenance

manual or instructions for continued airworthiness has been issued that contains an airworthiness limitation section unless the mandatory replacement times, inspection intervals, and related procedures specified in that section or alternative inspection intervals and related procedures set forth in the specific operating provisions approved under Schedule 12, or in accordance with the inspection program approved under this Schedule has been complied with.

(c) No person may operate an aeronautical product to which an Airworthiness Directive applies, issued either by the State of Design, or State of Manufacture and adopted for The Bahamas-registered aircraft by the Authority, or by the State of Registry for aircraft operated within The Bahamas, except in accordance with the requirements of that Airworthiness Directive.

(d) When the Authority determines that an airframe or aeronautical product has exhibited an unsafe condition and that condition is likely to exist or to develop in other products of the same type design, the Authority may issue an Airworthiness Directive prescribing inspections and the conditions and limitations, if any, under which those products may continue to be operated.

5.085 REPORTING OF FAILURES, MALFUNCTIONS, AND DEFECTS

(a) Owners or operators of aircraft over 5,700 kg maximum take-off weight shall report to the Authority any failures, malfunctions, or defects that result in at least the following — (1) Fires during flight and whether the related fire-warning system properly

operated; (2) Fires during flight not protected by a related fire-warning system; (3) False fire warning during flight; (4) An engine exhaust system that causes damage during flight to the engine,

adjacent structure, equipment, or components;

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(5) An aircraft component that causes accumulation or circulation of smoke, vapour, or toxic or noxious fumes in the crew compartment or passenger cabin during flight;

(6) Engine shutdown during flight because of flameout; (7) Engine shutdown during flight when external damage to the engine or

aircraft structure occurs; (8) Engine shutdown during flight due to foreign object ingestion or icing; (9) Shutdown during flight of more than one engine; (10) A propeller feathering system or ability of the system to control overspeed

during flight; (11) A fuel or fuel-dumping system that affects fuel flow or causes hazardous

leakage during flight; (12) An unintended landing gear extension or retraction, or opening or closing

of landing gear doors during flight; (13) Brake system components that result in loss of brake actuating force

when the aircraft is in motion on the ground; (14) Aircraft structure that requires major repair; (15) Cracks, permanent deformation, or corrosion of aircraft structure, if more

than the maximum acceptable to the manufacturer or the Authority; (16) Aircraft components or systems malfunctions that result in taking

emergency actions during flight (except action to shut down an engine); (17) Each interruption to a flight, unscheduled change of aircraft en route, or

unscheduled stop or diversion from a route, caused by known or suspected technical difficulties or malfunctions;

(18) Any abnormal vibration or buffeting caused by a structural or system malfunction, defect, or failure;

(19) A failure or malfunction of more than one attitude, airspeed, or altitude instrument during a given operation of the aircraft.

(20) The number of engines removed prematurely because of malfunction, failure or defect, listed by make and model and the aircraft type in which it was installed; or

(21) The number of propeller featherings in flight, listed by type of propeller and engine and aircraft on which it was installed.

(b) Each report required by this Subsection shall — (1) Be made within 3 days after determining that the failure, malfunction,

or defect required to be reported has occurred; and (2) Include as much of the following information as is available and

applicable — (i) Aircraft serial number;

(ii) When the failure, malfunction, or defect is associated with an article approved under a TSO authorisation, the article serial number and model designation, as appropriate;

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(iii) When the failure, malfunction or defect is associated with an engine or propeller, the engine or propeller serial number, as appropriate;

(iv) Product model; (v) Identification of the part, component, or system involved, including

the part number; and (vi) Nature of the failure, malfunction, or defect.

(c) The Authority, if the State of Registry of the aircraft, will submit all such reports upon receipt to the State of Design.

(d) The Authority, if not the State of Registry of the aircraft, will submit all such reports upon receipt to the State of Registry

SUBPART D AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE REQUIREMENTS

5.090 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart prescribes the rules governing the maintenance and inspection of

Bahamian registered civil aircraft operating within or outside The Bahamas. (b) Unless otherwise approved by the Authority, this Subpart prescribes the

minimum requirements that apply to aircraft operated by the holder of an AOC issued by The Bahamas.

(c) Subsections 5.105 and 5.110 do not apply to aircraft subject to an approved continuous maintenance program approved by the Authority for an AOC holder in Schedule 12.

5.095 GENERAL (a) The registered owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for

maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with all airworthiness directives and mandatory service bulletins issued by the State of Design or Manufacture.

(b) No person may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations on an aircraft other than as prescribed in this Schedule and other applicable Schedules.

(c) No person may operate an aircraft for which a manufacturer’s maintenance manual or instructions for continued airworthiness has been issued that contains an airworthiness limitations section unless the mandatory replacement times, inspection intervals and related procedures set forth in specific operating provisions approved by the Authority under Schedule 12 or in accordance with an inspection program approved under this Schedule.

5.097 REPAIR ASSESSMENT FOR PRESSURIZED FUSELAGES (a) No person may operate an aeroplane with a gross takeoff weight of 5700 kg

beyond the flight cycles prescribed by the Authority for such aircraft unless repair assessment guidelines applicable to the fuselage pressure boundary (fuselage skin, door skin and bulkhead webs) that have been approved by the competent Authority of the State of Design or Manufacture having cognizance over the type certificate for the affected aeroplane are incorporated within its inspection program.

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5.100 MAINTENANCE REQUIRED (a) Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall —

(1) Have that aircraft inspected as prescribed in this Schedule and discrepancies repaired as prescribed in the Performance Rules of this Schedule;

(2) Repair, replace, remove, or inspect any inoperative instruments or items of equipment at the next required inspection, except when permitted under the provisions of an Minimum Equipment List (MEL);

(3) Ensure that a placard has been installed on the aircraft when listed discrepancies include inoperative instruments or equipment; and

(4) Ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service.

5.105 INSPECTIONS (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c), no person may operate an aircraft

unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, the aircraft has had — (1) An annual inspection in accordance with this Schedule and has been

approved for return to service by a person authorised under this Schedule; or (2) An inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate in

accordance with this Schedule. Note: No inspection performed under paragraph (b) of this section may be substituted for any inspection required by this paragraph unless it is performed by a person authorised to perform annual inspections and is entered as an “annual” inspection in the required maintenance record.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c), no person may operate an aircraft carrying any person (other than a crew member) for hire, and no person may give flight instruction for hire in an aircraft which that person provides, unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service: (1) The aircraft has received an annual or 100-hour inspection and been

approved for return to service in accordance with this Schedule; or (2) Has received an inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness

certificate in accordance with this Schedule. Note: The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while en route to reach a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place where the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.

(c) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to — (1) An aircraft that carries a special flight permit, a current experimental

certificate, or a provisional airworthiness certificate; (2) An aircraft subject to the requirements of subsection 5.110 of this

section; or (3) Turbine-powered rotorcraft when the operator elects to inspect that

rotorcraft in accordance with 5.110 of this section. (d) Other Inspections. The altimeter, altimeter system, transponder and VOR

inspections required by Schedule 10 should accomplished as prescribed by the Authority.

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For these tests and inspections, see Appendix 1 to 5.105 for the altimeter system; Appendix 2 to 5.105 for the ATC transponder, Appendix 3 to 5.105 for the VOR receiver.

5.110 PROGRESSIVE INSPECTION (a) Each registered owner or operator of an aircraft desiring to use a progressive

inspection program shall submit a written request to the Authority, and shall provide — (1) A licenced mechanic holding an inspection authorisation in accordance

with Schedule 8, an AMO appropriately rated in accordance with Schedule 6, or the manufacturer of the aircraft to supervise or conduct the progressive inspection;

(2) A current inspection procedures manual available and readily understandable to pilot and maintenance personnel containing, in detail — (i) An explanation of the progressive inspection, including the

continuity of inspection responsibility, the making of reports, and the keeping of records and technical reference material;

(ii) An inspection schedule, specifying the intervals in hours or days when routine and detailed inspections will be performed and including instructions for exceeding an inspection interval by not more than 10 hours while en route and for changing an inspection interval because of service experience;

(iii) Sample routine and detailed inspection forms and instructions for their use; and

(iv) Sample reports and records and instructions for their use; (3) Enough housing and equipment for necessary disassembly and proper

inspection of the aircraft; and (4) Appropriate current technical information for the aircraft.

Note: The frequency and detail of the progressive inspection shall provide for the complete inspection of the aircraft within each 12 calendar months and be consistent with the current manufacturer’s recommendations, field service experience, and the kind of operation in which the aircraft is engaged. The progressive inspection schedule shall ensure that the aircraft, at all times, will be airworthy and will conform to all applicable aircraft specifications, type certificate data sheets, airworthiness directives, and other approved data acceptable to the Authority. If the progressive inspection is discontinued, the owner or operator shall immediately notify the Authority, in writing, of the discontinuance. After the discontinuance, the first annual inspection under Schedule 10 is due within 12 calendar months after the last complete inspection of the aircraft under the progressive inspection. The 100-hour inspection under this Subpart is due within 100 hours after that complete inspection. A complete inspection of the aircraft, for the purpose of determining when the annual and 100- hour inspections are due, requires a detailed inspection of the aircraft and all its components in accordance with the progressive inspection. A routine inspection of the aircraft and a detailed inspection of several components is not considered to be a complete inspection.

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(b) The registered owner or operator of each large aeroplane, turbojet multi- engine aeroplane, turbo propeller-powered multi-engine aeroplane, and turbine-powered rotorcraft shall select, identify in the aircraft maintenance records, and use one of the following programs for the inspection of the aircraft — (1) A current inspection program recommended by the manufacturer; (2) A continuous maintenance program that is part of a continuous

maintenance program for that make and model of aircraft currently approved by the Authority for use by an AOC holder; or

(3) Any other inspection program established by the registered owner or operator of that aircraft and approved by the Authority.

(c) Each owner/operator shall include in the selected program the name and address of the person responsible for the scheduling of the inspections required by the program and provide a copy of the program to the person performing inspection on the aircraft.

(d) No aircraft shall be approved for return to service unless the replacement times for life-limited parts specified in the aircraft specification-type data sheets are complied with and the aeroplane, including airframe, engines, propellers, rotors, appliances, and survival and emergency equipment, is inspected in accordance with an inspection program selected.

(e) Each person wishing to establish or change an approved inspection program shall submit the program for approval by the Authority and shall include in writing — (1) Instructions and procedures for the conduct of inspection for the

particular make and model aircraft, including necessary tests and checks. The instructions shall set forth in detail the parts and areas of the aeronautical products, including survival and emergency equipment required to be inspected; and

(2) A schedule for the inspections that shall be performed expressed in terms of time in service, calendar time, number of system operations or any combination of these.

(f) When an operator changes from one inspection program to another, the operator shall apply the time in service, calendar times, or cycles of operation accumulated under the previous program, in determining time the inspection is due under the new program.

5.115 CHANGES TO AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE PROGRAMS (a) Whenever the Authority finds that revisions to an approved inspection

program are necessary for the continued adequacy of the program, the owner or operator shall, after notification by the Authority, make any changes in the program found to be necessary.

(b) The owner or operator may petition the Authority to reconsider the notice, within 30 days after receiving that notice.

(c) Except in the case of an emergency requiring immediate action in the interest of safety, the filing of the petition stays the notice pending a decision by the Authority.

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SUBPART E PERFORMANCE STANDARDS

5.135 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart prescribes performance standards governing the maintenance

and inspection of any aircraft having a Airworthiness Certificate issued by the Bahamas or associated aeronautical products.

5.140 PERSONS AUTHORISED TO PERFORM MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE, AND MODIFICATIONS

(a) The persons authorised to perform maintenance subject to this Subpart include — (1) A pilot licenced by the Authority; (2) A person performing maintenance under the supervision of an aviation

maintenance technician; (3) An aviation maintenance technician; (4) An AOC holder approved to perform maintenance under an equivalent

system; and (5) An AMO.

(b) This Subpart outlines the privileges and limitations of these entities with respect to the extent and type of work they may perform regarding — (1) Maintenance; (2) Preventive Maintenance; (3) Modification; (4) Inspection; and (5) Approvals for return to service.

5.145 PERSONS AUTHORISED TO PERFORM MAINTENANCE (a) No person may perform any task defined as maintenance on an aircraft or

aeronautical products, except as provided in the following — (1) A pilot licenced by the Authority may perform preventive maintenance

on any aircraft owned or operated by that pilot so long as the aircraft is not listed for use by an AOC holder.

(2) A person working under the supervision of a aviation maintenance technician, may perform the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and modifications that the supervisory aviation maintenance technician is authorised to perform — (i) If the supervisor personally observes the work being done to the

extent necessary to ensure that it is being done properly, and (ii) If the supervisor is readily available, in person, for consultation.

(3) A licenced aviation maintenance technician may perform or supervise the maintenance or modification of an aircraft or aeronautical product for which he or she is rated subject to the limitation of this Schedule.

(4) An AMO may perform aircraft maintenance within the limits specified by the Authority.

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(5) The AOC holder may perform aircraft maintenance as specified by the Authority.

(6) A manufacturer holding an AMO may — (i) Rebuild or alter any aeronautical product manufactured by that

manufacturer under a type or production certificate; (ii) Rebuild or alter any aeronautical product manufactured by that

manufacturer under a TSO Authorisation, a Parts Manufacturer Approval by the State of Design, or Product and Process Specification issued by the State of Design; and

(iii) Perform any inspection required by this Schedule on aircraft it manufacturers, while currently operating under a production certificate or under a currently approved production inspection system for such aircraft.

5.150 AUTHORISED PERSONNEL TO APPROVE FOR RETURN TO SERVICE

(a) No person or entity, other than the Authority, may approve an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part for return to service after it has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or modification, except as provided in the following: (1) A pilot licenced by the Authority may return his or her aircraft to service

after performing authorised preventive maintenance. (2) A licenced aviation maintenance technician may approve aircraft and

aeronautical products for return to service after he or she has performed, supervised, or inspected its maintenance subject to the limitations of this Schedule.

(3) An AMO may approve aircraft and aeronautical products for return to service as provided in the specifications approved by the Authority.

(4) An AOC holder may approve aircraft and aeronautical products for return to service as specified by the Authority.

5.155 PERSONS AUTHORISED TO PERFORM INSPECTIONS (a) No person, other than the Authority, may perform the inspections required in

this Schedule for aircraft and aeronautical products prior to or after it has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or modification, except as provided in the following: (1) An aviation maintenance technician may conduct the required inspections

of aircraft and aeronautical products for which he or she is rated and current.

(2) An AMO may perform the required inspections of aircraft and aeronautical products as provided in the specifications approved by the Authority.

(3) An AOC holder may perform the required inspections of aircraft and aeronautical products in accordance with specifications issued by the Authority.

5.160 PERFORMANCE RULES: MAINTENANCE (a) Each person performing maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modification

on an aeronautical product shall use the methods, techniques, and practices prescribed in —

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(1) The current manufacturer’s maintenance manual or instructions for Continued Airworthiness prepared by its manufacturer; and

(2) Additional methods, techniques and practices required by the Authority; or methods, techniques and practices designated by the Authority where the manufacturer’s documents were not available.

(b) Each person shall use the tools, equipment, and test apparatus necessary to assure completion of the work in accordance with accepted industry practices. If the manufacturer involved recommends special equipment or test apparatus, the person performing maintenance shall use that equipment or apparatus or its equivalent acceptable to the Authority.

(c) Each person performing maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modification on an aeronautical product shall do that work in such a manner, and use materials of such a quality, that the condition of the aeronautical product worked on will be at least equal to its original or properly altered condition with regard to aerodynamic function, structural strength, resistance to vibration and deterioration, and other qualities affecting airworthiness.

(d) The methods, techniques, and practices contained in an AOC holder’s maintenance control manual and continuous maintenance program, as approved by the Authority, will constitute an acceptable means of compliance with the requirements of this subsection.

(e) Each person performing a major modification or repair defined in this Schedule will use data approved by the Authority — (1) The approved data used must be referenced on the form or log entry

used to approved the modification or repair for return to service. (2) Acceptable “approved data” is data specifically approved by the following

for the modification or repair — (i) The Authority;

(ii) The State of Manufacture; (iii) A Designee authorized by the State of Manufacture for that type

modification or repair; (iv) The State of Design; or (v) A Designee authorized by the State of Design for that type

modification or repair. 5.165 PERFORMANCE RULES: INSPECTIONS (a) General. Each person performing an inspection required by the Authority

shall — (1) Perform the inspection so as to determine whether the aircraft, or portion(s)

thereof under inspection, meets all applicable airworthiness requirements; and

(2) If there is an inspection program required or accepted for the specific aircraft being inspected, perform the inspection in accordance with the instructions and procedures set forth in the inspection program.

(b) Rotorcraft. Each person performing an inspection required on a rotorcraft shall inspect the following systems in accordance with the maintenance manual or Instructions for Continued Airworthiness of the manufacturer concerned —

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(1) The drive shafts or similar systems; (2) The main rotor transmission gear box for obvious defects; (3) The main rotor and centre section (or the equivalent area); and (4) The auxiliary rotor on helicopters.

(c) Annual and 100-hour inspections. (1) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall use a

checklist while performing the inspection. The checklist may be of the person’s own design, one provided by the manufacturer of the equipment being inspected, or one obtained from another source. This checklist shall include the scope and detail of the items prescribed by the Authority. Appendix 1 to 5.165 lists the components to be included in an annual or 100-hour inspection.

(2) Each person approving a reciprocating-engine-powered aircraft for return to service after an annual or 100-hour inspection shall, before that approval, run the aircraft engine or engines to determine satisfactory performance in accordance with the current manufacturer’s recommendations of —

(i) Power output (static and idle rpm); (ii) Magnetos;

(iii) Fuel and oil pressure; and (iv) Cylinder and oil temperature.

(3) Each person approving a turbine-engine-powered aircraft for return to service after an annual or 100-hour inspection shall, before that approval, run the aircraft engine or engines to determine satisfactory performance in accordance with the current manufacturer’s recommendations.

5.170 PERFORMANCE RULES: AIRWORTHINESS LIMITATIONS (a) Each person performing an inspection or other maintenance specified in an

airworthiness limitations section of a current manufacturer’s maintenance manual, or Instructions for Continued Airworthiness, shall perform the inspection or other maintenance in accordance with that section, or in accordance with specifications approved by the Authority.

SUBPART F MAINTENANCE RECORDS AND ENTRIES

5.200 OWNER MAINTENANCE RECORDS (a) The owner/operator of an aircraft shall keep a maintenance record of —

(1) The entire aircraft to include — (i) Total time in service (hours, calendar time and cycles, as

appropriate) of the aircraft and all life limited parts; (ii) Current inspection status of the aircraft, including the time since

required or approved inspections were last performed; (iii) Current empty mass and the location of the centre of gravity when

empty;

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(iv) Addition or removal of equipment; (v) Type and extent of maintenance and alteration, including the time in

service and date; (vi) When work was performed; and (vii) A chronological list of compliance with Airworthiness Directives,

including methods of compliance. (2) Life limited products —

(i) Total time in service; (ii) Date of the last overhaul; (iii) Time in service since the last overhaul; and (iv) Date of the last inspection.

(3) Instruments and equipment, the serviceability and operating life of which are determined by their time in service — (i) Records of the time in service as are necessary to determine their

serviceability or to compute their operating life; and (ii) Date of last inspection.

5.205 OWNER MAINTENANCE RECORDS RETENTION (a) Except for records maintained by an AOC holder, each registered owner or

operator shall retain the following records until the work is repeated or superseded by other work of equivalent scope and detail, or for one year after the work is performed — (1) Records of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, minor modifications,

and records of the 100-hour, annual, and other required or approved inspections, as appropriate, for each aircraft (including the airframe) and each engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance of an aircraft to include — (i) A description (or reference to data acceptable to the Authority)

of the work performed; (ii) The date of completion of the work performed; and (iii) The signature and certificate number of the person approving the

aircraft for return to service. (2) Records containing the following information —

(i) The total time-in-service of the airframe, each engine, each propeller, and each rotor;

(ii) The current status of all life-limited aeronautical products; (iii) The time since last overhaul of all items installed on the aircraft

which are required to be overhauled on a specified time basis; (iv) The current inspection status of the aircraft, including the time since

the last inspection required by the inspection program under which the aircraft and its appliances are maintained;

(v) The current status of applicable Airworthiness Directives including, for each, the method of compliance, the Airworthiness Directive number, and revision date. If the Airworthiness Directive involves recurring action, the time and date when the next action is required.

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(vi) Copies of the forms prescribed by this chapter for each major modification to the airframe and currently installed engines, rotors, propellers, and appliances.

(b) The records specified in paragraph (a) of this section shall be retained and transferred with the aircraft at the time the aircraft is sold or leased.

(c) A list of defects shall be retained until the defects are repaired and the aircraft is approved for return to service.

(d) The owner or operator shall make all maintenance records required by this subsection available for inspection by the Authority.

5.210 TRANSFER OF MAINTENANCE RECORDS BY OWNER (a) Any owner or operator who sells or leases a Bahamian registered aircraft shall

transfer to the purchaser/lessor, at the time of sale or lease, the records identified in this Subpart for that aircraft, in plain language form or in coded form at the election of the purchaser/lessor if the coded form provides for the preservation and retrieval of information in a manner acceptable to the Authority.

5.215 MAINTENANCE AND MODIFICATION RECORD ENTRIES (a) Each person who maintains, performs preventive maintenance, rebuilds, or

modifies an aircraft or aeronautical product shall, when the work is performed satisfactorily, make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment as follows — (1) A description (or reference to data acceptable to the Authority) of work

performed; (2) Completion date of the work performed; (3) Name, signature, certificate number, and kind of licence held by the person

approving the work. Note: The signature constitutes the approval for return to service only for the work performed.

(b) The person performing the work shall enter records of major repairs and major modifications, and dispose of that form in the manner prescribed by the Authority. Appendix 1 to 5.215 provides the maintenance form requirements and a sample major repair and modification form.

(c) A person working under supervision of an aviation maintenance technician may not perform any inspection required in this Schedule or any inspection performed after a major repair or modification.

5.220 ENTRIES REQUIRED FOLLOWING OVERHAUL AND REBUILDING (a) No person may describe in any required maintenance entry or form, an

aeronautical product as being overhauled unless — (1) It has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected as permitted, repaired as

necessary, and reassembled using methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority; and

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(2) It has been tested in accordance with approved standards and technical data, or in accordance with current standards and technical data acceptable to the Authority, which have been developed and documented by the holder of the type certificate, supplemental type certificate, or a material, part, process, or appliance manufacturing approval.

(b) No person may describe in any required maintenance entry or form an aircraft or other aeronautical product as being rebuilt unless it has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected as permitted, repaired as necessary, reassembled, and tested to the same tolerances and limits as a new item, using either new parts or used parts that conform to new part tolerances and limits.

5.225 ENTRIES FOR APPROVAL FOR RETURN TO SERVICE (a) No person may approve for return to service or execute a maintenance release

for any aeronautical product that has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or modification unless — (1) The appropriate maintenance record entry has been made; (2) The repair or modification form authorised by or furnished by the

Authority has been executed in a manner prescribed by the Authority; (3) If a repair or modification results in any change in the aircraft operating

limitations or flight data contained in the approved aircraft flight manual, those operating limitations or flight data are appropriately revised and set forth as prescribed. Appendix 1 to 5.215 provides the repair or modification requirements and form.

5.230 CONTENT AND FORM FOR ENTRIES FOLLOWING INSPECTION (a) Maintenance record entries. The person approving or disapproving the return to

service of an aeronautical product after any inspection performed in accordance with this Schedule, shall make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment containing the following information — (1) Type of inspection and a brief description of the extent of the inspection; (2) Date of the inspection and aircraft total time in service; (3) Signature, the licence number, and kind of licence held by the person

approving or disapproving for return to service the aeronautical product; (4) If the aircraft is found to be airworthy and approved for return to service, the

following or a similarly worded statement — “I certify that this aircraft has been inspected in accordance with (insert type) inspection and was determined to be in airworthy condition”;

(5) If the aircraft is not approved for return to service because of needed maintenance, non-compliance with the applicable specifications, airworthiness directives, or other approved data, the following or a similarly worded statement — “I certify that this aircraft has been inspected in accordance with (insert type) inspection and a list of discrepancies and unairworthy items dated (date) has been provided for the aircraft owner or operator; and

(6) If an inspection is conducted under an inspection program provided for in this Schedule, the person performing the inspection shall make an entry identifying the inspection program accomplished, and containing a statement that the inspection was performed in accordance with the inspections and procedures for that particular program.

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(b) Listing of discrepancies. The person performing any inspection required in this Schedule who finds that the aircraft is not airworthy or does not meet the applicable type certificate data sheet, airworthiness directives or other approved data upon which its airworthiness depends, shall give the owner/operator a signed and dated list of those discrepancies.

SUBPART G MAINTENANCE PERSONNEL LIMITATIONS, PRIVILEGES AND

RECENCY 5.250 REST AND DUTY LIMITATIONS FOR PERSONS PERFORMING

MAINTENANCE FUNCTIONS (a) No person may assign, nor shall any person perform maintenance functions

for aircraft, unless that person has had a minimum rest period of 8 hours prior to the beginning of duty.

(b) No person may schedule a person performing maintenance functions for aircraft for more than 12 consecutive hours of duty.

(c) In situations involving unscheduled aircraft unserviceability, persons performing maintenance functions for aircraft may be continued on duty for — (4) Up to 16 consecutive hours; or (5) 20 hours in 24 consecutive hours.

(d) Following unscheduled duty periods, the person performing maintenance functions for aircraft shall have a mandatory rest period of 10 hours.

(e) An AMO or AOC holder shall relieve the person performing maintenance functions from all duties for 24 consecutive hours during any 7 consecutive day period.

5.255 AMT PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS (a) Except as specified in paragraph (d) of this subsection, a licenced AMT

may perform or supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modification of, or after inspection, approve for return to service, any aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part thereof, for which he or she is rated, provided the licenced AMT has — (1) Satisfactorily performed the work at an earlier date; (2) Demonstrated the ability to perform the work to the satisfaction of the

Authority; (3) Received training acceptable to the Authority on the tasks to be performed;

or (4) Performed the work while working under the direct supervision of a licenced

AMT or a licenced aviation repair specialist (ARS) who is appropriately rated and has —

(i) Had previous experience in the specific operation concerned; or (ii) Received training acceptable to the Authority on the task to be

performed.

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(b) Except as specified in paragraph (d) of this subsection, a licenced AMT with an airframe rating may after he/she has performed the 100-hour inspection required by this Schedule on an airframe, or any related part or appliance, and approve and return it to service.

(c) Except as specified in paragraph (d) of this subsection, a licenced AMT with a powerplant rating may perform the 100-hour inspection required by this Schedule on a powerplant or propeller or any related part or appliance, and approve and return it to service.

(d) An AMT with an airframe and/or powerplant rating may not — (1) Supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modification of,

or approve and return to service, any aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part thereof, for which he/she is rated unless he/she has satisfactory performed the work concerned at an earlier date.

(2) Perform or supervise (unless under the direct supervision and control of an AOC holder that is authorised to perform maintenance, preventative maintenance, or modifications under an equivalent system in accordance with Schedule 12: (i) A major repair or major modification of a propeller; or

(ii) Any repair or alteration of instruments; (3) Approve for return to service —

(i) Any aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part thereof after completion of a major alteration or major repair; or

(ii) Any instrument after completion of any repair or alteration; (4) Exercise the privileges of the licence unless the licenced AMT understands

the current instructions for continued airworthiness and the maintenance instructions for the specific operation concerned.

5.260 AMT RECENT EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS (a) A licenced AMT may not exercise the privileges of his/her licence or rating

unless, within the preceding 24 months — (1) The Authority has found that he/she is able to do that work; or (2) For at least 6 months within the preceding 24 months —

(i) Served as an AMT under his/her licence and rating; (ii) Technically supervised other AMTs; (iii) Provided aviation maintenance instruction or served as the direct

supervisor of persons providing aviation maintenance instruction for an AMT course or program acceptable to the Authority;

(iv) Supervised the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration of any aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part thereof; or

(v) Been engaged in any combination of paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iv) of this subsection.

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5.265 INSPECTION AUTHORISATION PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

(a) Except as specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this subsection, the holder of an Inspection Authorisation (IA) may: (1) Inspect and approve for return to service any aircraft, airframe, aircraft

engine, propeller appliance, component, or part thereof after completion of a major repair or major alteration performed in accordance with this Schedule and done in accordance with technical data approved by the Authority.

(2) Perform an annual inspection, or perform or supervise a progressive inspection, according to this Schedule on any aircraft, except those aircraft on a continuous maintenance program, and approve the aircraft for return to service.

(b) The holder of an IA with a current and valid AMT licence may not inspect and approve for return to service any aircraft over 5,700 kg maximum take-off weight or any airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part thereof which is subject to a maintenance program under this Schedule or Schedule 12.

(c) The holder of an IA with a current and valid AMT licence may not inspect and approve for return to service any aircraft maintained in accordance with a continuous maintenance program approved under this Schedule or Schedule 12.

(d) When exercising the privileges of an IA, the holder shall keep it available for inspection by the aircraft owner and the AMT submitting the aircraft, repair, or alteration for approval (if any), and shall present it at the request of the Authority or an authorised representative of the Director General, or at the request of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.

(e) If the holder of an Inspection Authorisation changes his or her fixed base of operation, the holder may not exercise the privileges of the authorisation until he or she has notified the Authority in writing of the change.

(f) No person may exercise any privilege of an Inspection Authorisation whenever that person no longer — (1) Has a fixed base of operation; (2) Has the equipment, facilities, or inspection data required by Schedule 6; or (3) Holds a current and valid AMT licence.

5.270 AVIATION REPAIR SPECIALIST LICENCES: PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

(a) An aviation repair specialist may perform or supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration of aircraft, airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, components, and parts appropriate to the designated speciality area for which the aviation repair specialist is licenced and rated, but only in connection with employment by an AMO approved under Schedule 6 or an AOC holder that is authorised to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications under an equivalent system in accordance with Schedule 12.

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(b) An aviation repair specialist may not perform or supervise duties unless the aviation repair specialist understands the current instructions of the employing certificate holder and the instructions for continued airworthiness, which relate to the specific operations concerned.

APPENDICES APPENDIX 1 TO 5.005

MAJOR MODIFICATIONS (DEFINITION) (a) Airframe Major Modifications. Major modifications include modifications to

the listed aircraft parts, or the listed types of modifications (when not included in the applicable aircraft specifications) — (1) Wings. (2) Tail surfaces. (3) Fuselage. (4) Engine mounts. (5) Control system. (6) Landing gear. (7) Hull or floats. (8) Elements of an airframe including spars, ribs, fittings, shock absorbers,

bracing, cowlings, fairings, and balance weights. (9) Hydraulic and electrical actuating system of components. (10) Rotor blades. (11) Changes to the empty weight or empty balance which result in an increase

in the maximum Certified weight or centre of gravity limits of the aircraft. (12) Changes to the basic design of the fuel, oil, cooling, heating, cabin

pressurisation, electrical, hydraulic, de-icing, or exhaust systems. (13) Changes to the wing or to fixed or movable control surfaces which affect

flutter and vibration characteristics. (b) Powerplant Major Modifications. Major powerplant modifications, even when

not listed in the applicable engine specifications, include — (1) Conversion of an aircraft engine from one approved model to another,

involving any changes in compression ratio, propeller reduction gear, impeller gear ratios or the substitution of major engine parts which requires extensive rework and testing of the engine.

(2) Changes to the engine by replacing aircraft engine structural parts with parts not supplied by the original manufacturer or parts not specifically approved by the Authority.

(3) Installation of an accessory which is not approved for the engine. (4) Removal of accessories that are listed as required equipment on the

aircraft or engine specification.

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(5) Installation of structural parts other than the type of parts approved for the installation.

(6) Conversions of any sort for the purpose of using fuel of a rating or grace other than that listed in the engine specifications.

(c) Propeller Major Modifications. Major propeller modifications, when not authorised in the applicable propeller specifications, include — (1) Changes in blade design. (2) Changes in hub design. (3) Changes in the governor or control design. (4) Installation of a propeller governor or feathering system. (5) Installation of propeller de-icing system. (6) Installation of parts not approved for the propeller.

(d) Appliance Major Modifications. Modifications of the basic design not made in accordance with recommendations of the appliance manufacturer or in accordance with applicable Airworthiness Directive are appliance major modifications. In addition, changes in the basic design of radio communication and navigation equipment approved under type certification or other authorisation that have an effect on frequency stability, noise level, sensitivity, selectivity, distortion, spurious radiation, AVC characteristics, or ability to meet environmental test conditions and other changes that have an effect on the performance of the equipment are also major modifications.

APPENDIX 2 TO 5.005 MAJOR REPAIRS (DEFINITION)

(a) Airframe Major Repairs. Repairs to the following parts of an airframe and repairs of the following types, involving the strengthening, reinforcing, splicing, and manufacturing of primary structural members of their replacement, when replacement is by fabrication such as riveting or welding, are airframe major repairs: (1) Box beams. (2) Monocoque or semimonocoque wings or control surfaces. (3) Wing stringers or chord members. (4) Spars. (5) Spar flanges. (6) Members of truss-type beams. (7) Thin sheet webs of beams. (8) Keel and chine members of boat hulls or floats. (9) Corrugated sheet compression members which act as flange material of

wings or tail surfaces. (10) Wing main ribs and compression members. (11) Wing or tail surface brace struts. (12) Engine mounts.

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(13) Fuselage longerons. (14) Members of the side truss, horizontal truss, or bulkheads. (15) Main seat support braces and brackets. (16) Landing gear brace struts. (17) Axles. (18) Wheels. (19) Parts of the control system such as control columns, pedals, shafts,

brackets, or horns. (20) Repairs involving the substitution of material. (21) The repair of damaged areas in metal or plywood stressed covering

exceeding six inches in any direction. (22) The repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams. (23) The splicing of skin sheets. (24) The repair of three or more adjacent wing or control surface ribs or the

leading edge of wings and control surfaces, between such adjacent ribs. (25) Repair of fabric covering involving an area greater than that required to

repair two adjacent ribs. (26) Replacement of fabric on fabric covered parts such as wings, fuselages,

stabilisers, and control surfaces. (27) Repairing, including rebottoming, of removable or integral fuel tanks and

oil tanks. (b) Powerplant Major Repairs. Repairs of the following parts of an engine and

repairs of the following types, are powerplant major repairs — (1) Separation or disassembly of a crankcase or crankshaft of a reciprocating

engine equipped with an integral supercharger. (2) Separation or disassembly of a crankcase or crankshaft of a reciprocating

engine equipped with other than spur-type propeller reduction gearing. (3) Special repairs to structural engine parts by welding, plating, metalising, or

other methods. (c) Propeller Major Repairs. Repairs of the following types to a propeller are

propeller major repairs — (1) Any repairs to or straightening of steel blades. (2) Repairing or machining of steel hubs. (3) Shortening of blades. (4) Retipping of wood propellers. (5) Replacement of outer laminations on fixed pitch wood propellers. (6) Repairing elongated bolt holes in the hub of fixed pitch wood propellers. (7) Inlay work on wood blades. (8) Repairs to composition blades. (9) Replacement of tip fabric. (10) Replacement of plastic covering.

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(11) Repair of propeller governors. (12) Overhaul of controllable pitch propellers. (13) Repairs to deep dents, cuts, scars, nicks, etc., and straightening of

aluminium blades. (14) The repair or replacement of internal elements of blades.

(d) Appliance Major Repairs. Repairs of the following types to appliances are appliance major repairs — (1) Calibration and repair of instruments. (2) Calibration of avionics or computer equipment. (3) Rewinding the field coil of an electrical accessory. (4) Complete disassembly of complex hydraulic power valves. (5) Overhaul of pressure type carburettors, and pressure type fuel, oil, and

hydraulic pumps. APPENDIX 3 TO 5.005

PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE (DEFINITION) (a) Preventive Maintenance. Preventive maintenance is limited to the following

work, provided it does not involve complex assembly operations: (1) Removal, installation and repair of landing gear tires. (2) Replacing elastic shock absorber cords on landing gear. (3) Servicing landing gear shock struts by adding oil, air, or both. (4) Servicing landing gear wheel bearings, such as cleaning and greasing. (5) Replacing defective safety wiring or cotter keys. (6) Lubrication not requiring disassembly other than removal of non-

structural items such as cover plates, cowlings, and fairings. (7) Making simple fabric patches not requiring rib stitching or the

removal of structural parts or control surfaces. (8) Replenishing hydraulic fluid in the hydraulic reservoir. (9) Refinishing decorative coating of fuselage, wings, tail group surfaces

(excluding balanced control surfaces), fairings, cowling, landing gear, cabin, or cockpit interior when removal or disassembly of any primary structure or operating system is not required.

(10) Applying preservative or protective material to components where no disassembly of any primary structure or operating system is involved and where such coating is not prohibited or is not contrary to good practices.

(11) Repairing upholstery and decorative furnishings of the cabin or cockpit when the repairing does not require disassembly of any primary structure or operating system or interfere with an operating system or affect primary structure of the aircraft.

(12) Making small simple repairs to fairings, non-structural cover plates, cowlings, and small patches and reinforcements not changing the contour so as to interfere with proper airflow.

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(13) Replacing side windows where that work does not interfere with the structure of any operating system such as controls, electrical equipment, etc.

(14) Replacing safety belts. (15) Replacing seats or seat parts with replacement parts approved for the

aircraft, not involving disassembly of any primary structure or operating system.

(16) Troubleshooting and repairing broken circuits in landing light wiring circuits.

(17) Replacing bulbs, reflectors, and lenses of position and landing lights. (18) Replacing wheels and skis where no weight and balance computation is

involved. (19) Replacing any cowling not requiring removal of the propeller or

disconnection of flight controls. (20) Replacing or cleaning spark plugs and setting of spark plug gap clearance. (21) Replacing any hose connection except hydraulic connections. (22) Replacing prefabricated fuel lines. (23) Cleaning fuel and oil strainers. (24) Replacing and servicing batteries. (25) Replacement or adjustment of non-structural fasteners incidental to

operations. (26) The installation of anti-misfueling devices to reduce the diameter of fuel

tank filler openings provided the specific device has been made a part of the aircraft type certificate data by the aircraft manufacturer, the manufacturer has provided appropriately approved instructions acceptable to the Authority for the installation of the specific device, and installation does not involve the disassembly of the existing filler opening.

APPENDIX 1 TO 5.105 ALTIMETER SYSTEM TESTS AND INSPECTIONS

(a) The Altimeter system and altitude reporting equipment tests and inspections must be conducted by — (1) The manufacturer of the airplane, or helicopter, on which the tests and

inspections are to be performed; (2) (2) A certificated repair station properly equipped to perform those

functions and holding — (i) An instrument rating, Class I;

(ii) A limited instrument rating appropriate to the make and model of appliance to be tested;

(iii) A limited rating appropriate to the test to be performed; (iv) An airframe rating appropriate to the airplane, or helicopter, to

be tested; or

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(3) A certificated mechanic with an airframe rating (static pressure system tests and inspections only).

(b) Altimeter and altitude reporting equipment approved under Technical Standard Orders are considered to be tested and inspected as of the date of their manufacture.

(c) Each person performing the altimeter system tests and inspections required by schedule 10 shall comply with the following: I. Static pressure system: (1) Ensure freedom from entrapped moisture and restrictions. (2) Determine that leakage is within the tolerances established in the aircraft

certification rule. (3) Determine that the static port heater, if installed, is operative. (4) Ensure that no alterations or deformations of the airframe surface have

been made that would affect the relationship between air pressure in the static pressure system and true ambient static air pressure for any flight condition.

II. Altimeter: (5) Test by an appropriately rated repair facility in accordance with the

following subparagraphs. Unless otherwise specified, each test for performance may be conducted with the instrument subjected to vibration. When tests are conducted with the temperature substantially different from ambient temperature of approximately 25 degrees C, allowance shall be made for the variation from the specified condition.

(i) Scale error. With the barometric pressure scale at 29.92 inches of mercury, the altimeter shall be subjected successively to pressures corresponding to the altitude specified in Table I up to the maximum normally expected operating altitude of the airplane in which the altimeter is to be installed. The reduction in pressure shall be made at a rate not in excess of 20,000 feet per minute to within approximately 2,000 feet of the test point. The test point shall be approached at a rate compatible with the test equipment. The altimeter shall be kept at the pressure corresponding to each test point for at least 1 minute, but not more than 10 minutes, before a reading is taken. The error at all test points must not exceed the tolerances specified in Table I.

(ii) Hysteresis. The hysteresis test shall begin not more than 15 minutes after the altimeter’s initial exposure to the pressure corresponding to the upper limit of the scale error test prescribed in subparagraph (i); and while the altimeter is at this pressure, the hysteresis test shall commence. Pressure shall be increased at a rate simulating a descent in altitude at the rate of 5,000 to 20,000 feet per minute until within 3,000 feet of the first test point (50 percent of maximum altitude). The test point shall then be approached at a rate of approximately 3,000 feet per minute. The altimeter shall be kept at this pressure for at least 5 minutes, but not more than 15 minutes, before the test reading is taken. After the reading has been taken, the pressure shall be increased further, in the same manner as before, until the pressure corresponding to the second test

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point (40 percent of maximum altitude) is reached. The altimeter shall be kept at this pressure for at least 1 minute, but not more than 10 minutes, before the test reading is taken. After the reading has been taken, the pressure shall be increased further, in the same manner as before, until atmospheric pressure is reached. The reading of the altimeter at either of the two test points shall not differ by more than the tolerance specified in Table II from the reading of the altimeter for the corresponding altitude recorded during the scale error test prescribed in paragraph (b)(i).

(iii) After effect. Not more than 5 minutes after the completion of the hysteresis test prescribed in paragraph (b)(ii), the reading of the altimeter (corrected for any change in atmospheric pressure) shall not differ from the original atmospheric pressure reading by more than the tolerance specified in Table II.

(iv) Friction. The altimeter shall be subjected to a steady rate of decrease of pressure approximating 750 feet per minute. At each altitude listed in Table III, the change in reading of the pointers after vibration shall not exceed the corresponding tolerance listed in Table III.

(v) Case leak. The leakage of the altimeter case, when the pressure within it corresponds to an altitude of 18,000 feet, shall not change the altimeter reading by more than the tolerance shown in Table II during an interval of 1 minute.

(vi) Barometric scale error. At constant atmospheric pressure, the barometric pressure scale shall be set at each of the pressures (falling within its range of adjustment) that are listed in Table IV, and shall cause the pointer to indicate the equivalent altitude difference shown in Table IV with a tolerance of 25 feet.

(6) Altimeters which are the air data computer type with associated computing systems, or which incorporate air data correction internally, may be tested in a manner and to specifications developed by the manufacturer which are acceptable to the Administrator.

III. Integration Test Automatic Pressure Altitude Reporting Equipment and ATC Transponder System Integration Test. The test must be conducted by an appropriately rated person under the conditions specified in paragraph (a). Measure the automatic pressure altitude at the output of the installed ATC transponder when interrogated on Mode C at a sufficient number of test points to ensure that the altitude reporting equipment, altimeters, and ATC transponders perform their intended functions as installed in the aircraft. The difference between the automatic reporting output and the altitude displayed at the altimeter shall not exceed 125 feet. IV. Records Comply with the provisions of Schedule 5 as to content, form, and disposition of the records. The person performing the altimeter tests shall record on the altimeter the date and maximum altitude to which the altimeter has been tested and the persons approving the airplane for return to service shall enter that data in the airplane log or other permanent record.

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TABLE I TO APPENDIX 1 TO 5.105

Altitude Equivalent pressure Tolerance ±(feet) –1,000 31.018 20 0 29.921 20 500 29.385 20 1,000 28.856 20 1,500 28.335 25 2,000 27.821 30 3,000 26.817 30 4,000 25.842 35 6,000 23.978 40 8,000 22.225 60 10,000 20.577 80 12,000 19.029 90 14,000 17.577 100 16,000 16.216 110 18,000 14.942 120 20,000 13.750 130 22,000 12.636 140 25,000 11.104 155 30,000 8.885 180 35,000 7.041 205 40,000 5.538 230 45,000 4.355 255 50,000 3.425 280

TABLE II TO APPENDIX 1 TO 5.105: TEST TOLERANCES

Test Tolerance (feet) Case Leak Test ±100 Hysteresis Test First Test Point (50 percent of maximum altitude) 75 Second Test Point (40 percent of maximum altitude) 75 After Effect Test 30

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TABLE III TO APPENDIX 1 TO 5.105: FRICTION

Altitude (feet) Tolerance (feet) 1,000 ±70 2,000 70 3,000 70 5,000 70 10,000 80 15,000 90 20,000 100 25,000 120 30,000 140 35,000 160 40,000 180 50,000 250

TABLE IV TO APPENDIX 1 TO 5.5105: PRESSURE/ALTITUDE DIFFERENCE

Pressure (inches of Hg) Altitude difference (feet) 28.10 -1,727 28.50 -1,340 29.00 -863 29.50 -392 29.92 0 30.50 +531 30.90 +893 30.99 +974

APPENDIX 2 TO 5.105 TRANSPONDER TESTS AND INSPECTIONS

(a) Following any installation or maintenance on an ATC transponder where data correspondence error could be introduced, the integrated system has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with paragraph (c), of Appendix 1 to 5.105.

(b) The tests and inspections specified in this section must be conducted by — (1) An Approved Maintenance Organization properly equipped to

perform those functions and holding — (i) A radio rating, Class III;

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(ii) A limited radio rating appropriate to the make and model transponder to be tested;

(iii) A limited rating appropriate to the test to be performed; or (2) A holder of a continuous airworthiness maintenance program as provided in

Schedule 12; or (3) The manufacturer of the aircraft on which the transponder to be tested is

installed, if the transponder was installed by that manufacturer. The ATC transponder tests may be conducted using a bench check or portable test equipment and must meet the requirements prescribed in paragraphs (a) through (j) of this appendix. If portable test equipment with appropriate coupling to the aircraft antenna system is used, operate the test equipment for ATCRBS transponders at a nominal rate of 235 interrogations per second to avoid possible ATCRBS interference. Operate the test equipment at a nominal rate of 50 Mode S interrogations per second for Mode S. An additional 3 dB loss is allowed to compensate for antenna coupling errors during receiver sensitivity measurements conducted in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) when using portable test equipment.

(c) Radio Reply Frequency: (1) For all classes of ATCRBS transponders, interrogate the transponder and

verify that the reply frequency is 1090 ±3 Megahertz (MHz). (2) For classes 1B, 2B, and 3B Mode S transponders, interrogate the

transponder and verify that the reply frequency is 1090 ±3 MHz. (3) For classes 1B, 2B, and 3B Mode S transponders that incorporate the

optional 1090 ±1 MHz reply frequency, interrogate the transponder and verify that the reply frequency is correct.

(4) For classes 1A, 2A, 3A, and 4 Mode S transponders, interrogate the transponder and verify that the reply frequency is 1090 ±1 MHz.

(d) Suppression: When Classes 1B and 2B ATCRBS Transponders, or Classes 1B, 2B, and 3B Mode S transponders are interrogated Mode 3/A at an interrogation rate between 230 and 1,000 interrogations per second; or when Classes 1A and 2A ATCRBS Transponders, or Classes 1B, 2A, 3A, and 4 Mode S transponders are interrogated at a rate between 230 and 1,200 Mode 3/A interrogations per second: (1) Verify that the transponder does not respond to more than 1 percent of

ATCRBS interrogations when the amplitude of P2 pulse is equal to the P1 pulse.

(2) Verify that the transponder replies to at least 90 percent of ATCRBS interrogations when the amplitude of the P2 pulse is 9 dB less than the P1 pulse. If the test is conducted with a radiated test signal, the interrogation rate shall be 235 ±5 interrogations per second unless a higher rate has been approved for the test equipment used at that location.

(e) Receiver Sensitivity: (1) Verify that for any class of ATCRBS Transponder, the receiver minimum

riggering level (MTL) of the system is -73 ±4 dbm, or that for any class of Mode S transponder the receiver MTL for Mode S format (P6 type) interrogations is -74 ±3 dbm by use of a test set either:

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(i) Connected to the antenna end of the transmission line; (ii) Connected to the antenna terminal of the transponder with a

correction for transmission line loss; or (iii) Utilized radiated signal.

(2) Verify that the difference in Mode 3/A and Mode C receiver sensitivity does not exceed 1 dB for either any class of ATCRBS transponder or any class of Mode S transponder.

(f) Radio Frequency (RF) Peak Output Power. (1) Verify that the transponder RF output power is within specifications for the

class of transponder. Use the same conditions as described in (c)(1)(i), (ii), and (iii) above: (i) For Class 1A and 2A ATCRBS transponders, verify that the minimum

RF peak output power is at least 21.0 dBw (125 watts). (ii) For Class 1 B and 2B ATCRBS Transponders, verify that the

minimum RF peak output power is at least 18.5 dBw (70 watts). (iii) For Class 1A, 2A, 3A, and 4 and those Class 1B, 2B, and 3B Mode S

transponders that include the optional high RF peak output power, verify that the minimum RF peak output power is at least 21.0 dBw (125 watts).

(iv) For Classes 1B, 2B, and 3B Mode S transponders, verify that the minimum RF peak output power is at least 18.5 dBw (70 watts).

(v) For any class of ATCRBS or any class of Mode S transponders, verify that the maximum RF peak output power does not exceed 27.0 dBw (500 watts).

Note: The tests in (e) through (j) apply only to Mode S transponders. (g) Mode S Diversity Transmission Channel Isolation: For any class of Mode S

transponder that incorporates diversity operation, verify that the RF peak output power transmitted from the selected antenna exceeds the power transmitted from the nonselected antenna by at least 20 dB.

(h) Mode S Address: Interrogate the Mode S transponder and verify that it replies only to its assigned address. Use the correct address and at least two incorrect addresses. The interrogations should be made at a nominal rate of 50 interrogations per second.

(i) Mode S Formats: Interrogate the Mode S transponder with uplink formats (UF) for which it is equipped and verify that the replies are made in the correct format. Use the surveillance formats UF = 4 and 5. Verify that the altitude reported in the replies to UF = 4 are the same as that reported in a valid ATCRBS Mode C reply. Verify that the identity reported in the replies to UF = 5 are the same as that reported in a valid ATCRBS Mode 3/A reply. If the transponder is so equipped, use the communication formats UF = 20, 21, and 24.

(j) Mode S All-Call Interrogations: Interrogate the Mode S transponder with the Mode S only all-call format UF =11, and the ATCRBS/Mode S all-call formats (1.6 microsecond P4 pulse) and verify that the correct address and capability are reported in the replies (downlink format DF =11):

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(i) ATCRBS Only All-Call Interrogation: Interrogate the Mode S transponder with the ATCRBS only all-call interrogation (0.8 microsecond P4 pulse) and verify that no reply is generated.

(ii) Squitter: Verify that the Mode S transponder generates a correct squitter approximately once per second.

(iii) Records: Comply with the provisions of Schedule 5 as to content, form, and disposition of the records.

APPENDIX 3 TO 5.105 VOR RECEIVER TESTS AND INSPECTIONS

(a) Each VOR system of radio navigation used in IFR operations must be: (1) Maintained, checked, and inspected under an approved procedure; or (2) Has been operationally checked within the preceding 30 days, and was

found to be within the limits of the permissible indicated bearing error set forth in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, each person conducting a VOR check under paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall — (1) Use, at the airport of intended departure, an approved test signal or a

test signal radiated by a certificated and appropriately rated radio approved maintenance organization or, outside the Bahamas a test signal operated or approved by an appropriate authority to check the VOR equipment (the maximum permissible indicated bearing error is ±4°); or

(2) Use, at the airport of intended departure, a point on the airport surface designated as a VOR system checkpoint by the Authority, or, outside the Bahamas, by an appropriate authority (the maximum permissible bearing error is ±4°);

(3) If neither a test signal nor a designated checkpoint on the surface is available, use an airborne checkpoint designated by the Authority or, outside the Bahamas, by an appropriate authority (the maximum permissible bearing error is ±6°); or

(4) If no check signal or point is available, while in flight — (i) Select a VOR radial that lies along the centerline of an

established VOR airway; (ii) Select a prominent ground point along the selected radial

preferably more than 20 nautical miles from the VOR ground facility and manoeuvre the aircraft directly over the point at a reasonably low attitude; and

(iii) Note the VOR bearing indicated by the receiver when over the ground point (the maximum permissible variation between the published radial and the indicated bearing is 6°).

(c) If dual system VOR (units independent of each other except for the antenna) is installed in the aircraft, the person checking the equipment may check one system against the other in place of the check procedures specified in paragraph

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(b) of this section. Both systems shall be tuned to the same VOR ground facility and note the indicated bearings to that station. The maximum permissible variation between the two indicated bearings is 4°.

(d) Each person making the VOR operational check, as specified in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, shall enter the date, place, bearing error, and sign the aircraft log or other record. In addition, if a test signal radiated by an approved maintenance organization, as specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, is used, an entry must be made in the aircraft log or other record by the organization’s representative certifying to the bearing transmitted by the approved maintenance organization for the check and the date of transmission.

APPENDIX 1 TO 5.165 PERFORMANCE RULES: 100-HOUR INSPECTIONS

(a) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall, before that inspection, thoroughly clean the aircraft and aircraft engine and remove or open all necessary inspection plates, access doors, fairings, and cowlings.

(b) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect, where applicable, the following components — (1) Fuselage and hull group —

(i) Fabric and skin — for deterioration, distortion, other evidence of failure, and defective or insecure attachment of fittings.

(ii) Systems and components — for improper installation, apparent defects, and unsatisfactory operation.

(iii) The cabin and cockpit group. (iv) Generally — for uncleanness and loose equipment that might foul

the controls. (v) Seats and safety belts — for poor condition and apparent defects. (vi) Windows and windshields — for deterioration and breakage.

(vii) Instruments — for poor condition, mounting, marking, and (where practicable) for improper operation.

(viii) Flight and engine controls — for improper installation and improper operation.

(ix) Batteries — for improper installation and improper charge. (x) All systems — for improper installation, poor general condition,

apparent and obvious defects, and insecurity of attachment. (2) Engine and nacelle group —

(i) Engine section — for visual evidence of excessive oil, fuel, or hydraulic leaks, and sources of such leaks.

(ii) Studs and nuts — for improper torquing and obvious defects. (iii) Internal engine — for cylinder compression and for metal particles

or foreign matter on screens and sump drain plugs. If there is weak cylinder compression, for improper internal condition and improper internal tolerances.

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(iv) Engine mount — for cracks, looseness of mounting, and looseness of engine to mount.

(v) Flexible vibration dampeners — for poor condition and deterioration. (vi) Engine controls — for defects, improper travel, and improper

safetying. (vii) Lines, hoses, and clamps — for leaks, improper condition, and

looseness. (viii) Exhaust stacks — for cracks, defects, and improper attachment.

(ix) Accessories — for apparent defects in security of mounting. (x) All systems — for improper installation, poor general condition,

defects, and insecure attachment. (xi) Cowling — for cracks and defects.

(3) Landing gear group — (i) All units — for poor condition and insecurity of attachment.

(ii) Shock absorbing devices — for improper oleo fluid level. (iii) Linkage, trusses, and members — for undue or excessive wear, fatigue,

and distortion. (iv) Retracting and locking mechanism — for improper operation. (v) Hydraulic lines — for leakage.

(vi) Electrical system — for chafing and improper operation of switches. (vii) Wheels — for cracks, defects, and condition of bearings. (viii) Tires — for wear and cuts.

(ix) Brakes — for improper adjustment. (x) Floats and skis — for insecure attachment and obvious or apparent

defects. (4) Wing and centre section assembly for —

(i) Poor general condition. (ii) Fabric or skin deterioration.

(iii) Distortion. (iv) Evidence of failure. and (v) Insecurity of attachment.

(5) Complete empennage assembly for — (i) Poor general condition;

(ii) Fabric or skin deterioration; (iii) Distortion; (iv) Evidence of failure; (v) Insecure attachment;

(vi) Improper component installation; and (vii) Improper component operation.

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(6) Propeller group — (i) Propeller assembly — for cracks, nicks, binds, and oil leakage.

(ii) Bolts — for improper torquing and lack of safety. (iii) Anti-icing devices — for improper operations and obvious defects.

and (iv) Control mechanisms — for improper operation, insecure mounting,

and restricted travel. (7) Avionics/instrument group —

(i) Avionics/instruments equipment — for improper installation and insecure mounting.

(ii) Wiring and conduits — for improper routing, insecure mounting, and obvious defects.

(iii) Bonding and shielding — for improper installation and poor condition. (iv) Antenna including trailing antenna — for poor condition, insecure

mounting, and improper operation. (8) Electronic/electrical group —

(i) Wiring and conduits — for improper routing, insecure mounting, and obvious defects.

(ii) Bonding and shielding — for improper installation and poor condition. (9) Each installed miscellaneous item that is not otherwise covered by this

listing and/or has instructions for continued airworthiness — for improper installation and improper operation.

APPENDIX 1 TO 5.215 RECORDING OF MAJOR REPAIRS AND MAJOR

MODIFICATIONS (a) Each person performing a major repair or major modification shall —

(1) Execute the DCA MR-MR&M Form prescribed by the Authority at least in duplicate that references the approved data used; Note: See sample form on page 31.

(2) Give a signed copy of that form to the aircraft owner/operator; and (3) Forward a copy of that form to the Authority, in accordance with

Authority instructions, within 48 hours after the aeronautical product is approved for return to service.

(b) In place of the requirements of paragraph (a), major repairs made in accordance with a manual or specifications acceptable to the Authority, an AMO may — (1) Use the customer’s work order upon which the repair is recorded; (2) Give the aircraft owner a signed copy of the work order and retain a

duplicate copy for at least one year from the date of approval for return to service of the aeronautical product;

(3) Give the aircraft owner a maintenance release signed by an authorised representative of the AMO and incorporating the following information — (i) Identity of the aeronautical product;

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(ii) If an aircraft, the make, model, serial number, nationality and registration marks, and location of the repaired area;

(iii) If an aeronautical product, give the manufacturer’s name, name of the part, model, and serial numbers (if any); and

(4) Include the following or a similarly worded statement — The aeronautical product identified above was repaired, overhauled and inspected in accordance with currently effective, applicable instructions of the State of Design and regulatory requirements of the Authority, and is approved for return to service.

Pertinent details of the repair are on file at this maintenance organization.

Order No.................................................... Date ..................................................

Signed................................................................................................................... (Signature of authorised representative)

.............................................................................................................................. (Facility Name) (AMO Certificate Number)

............................................................................................................................... (Address)

...............................................................................................................................

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c) The following sample form may be used to record major alterations and repairs. The Bahamas For CAA Use Only

MAJOR REPAIR AND MODIFICATION (Airframe, Powerplant, Propeller, or Appliance)

Office Identification INSTRUCTIONS: Print or all entries. See Schedule 5 for instructions and disposition of this form.

Make Model

1. Aircraft Serial Number Nationality and Registration Mark

2. Owner

Name (As shown on registration certificate) Address (As shown on registration Certificate

3. For Authority Use Only

5. Unit Identification 5. Type Unit Make Model Serial Number Repair Modification

Airframe ---------------(As described in item 1 above)--------------- Powerplant Propeller

Type Appliance

Manufacture 6. Conformity Statement

A. Organization Name and Address B. Kind of Licence/Organization C. Certificate/Licence Number  Licenced (AMT) A  P or  A/P  Approved Maintenance Organization  Manufacturer

(For an AMO include the appropriate ratings issued for the major repair or modification)

D. I certify that the repair and/or modification made to the units) identified in item 4 above and described on the reverse or attachments hereto have been made in accordance with the requirements of Schedule 5 of the BASRs and that the information furnished herein is true and correct to the best of my knowledge.

Date Signature of Authorised Individual

7. Approval for Return To Service Pursuant to the authority given persons specified below, the unit(s) identified in item 4 was inspected in the manner prescribed by the Director of the Civil Aviation Authority and  is APPROVED  REJECTED

 CAA Inspector  Inspection Autorisation By

 Maintenance Organization  Other Other (Specify)

Date of Approval or Rejection Certificate or Designation Number

Signature of Authorised Individual

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NOTICE Weight and balance or operating limitation changes shall be entered in the appropriate aircraft record. A modification must be compatible with all previous modifications to assure continued conformity with the applicable airworthiness requirements.

8. Description of Work Accomplished (If more space is required, attach additional sheets. Identify each page with aircraft nationality and registration mark and date work completed.)

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SCHEDULE 6 APPROVED MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATIONS

SUBPART A: GENERAL 6.001 Applicability 6.005 Definitions 6.010 Acronyms SUBPART B: AMO CERTIFICATE 6.016 Issue of Certification 6.020 Certificate and Operations Specifications 6.025 Advertising 6.030 Deviation Authority SUBPART C: CERTIFICATION 6.035 Application for an AMO Certificate 6.040 Issuance of an AMO Certificate 6.045 Duration and Renewal of Certificate 6.050 Continued Validity of Approval 6.055 Changes to the AMO and Certificate Amendments 6.060 Ratings of the AMO 6.065 AMO Limited Ratings SUBPART D: HOUSING, FACILITIES, EQUIPMENT & MATERIALS 6.070 General 6.075 Housing and Facility Requirements 6.080 Equipment, Tools, and Material SUBPART E: ADMINISTRATION 6.085 Personnel and Training Requirements 6.090 Record of Certifying Staff SUBPART F: AMO OPERATING RULES 6.095 Maintenance Organization Procedures Manual 6.100 Maintenance Procedures and Independent Quality Assurance System 6.105 Capability List 6.110 Privileges of the Approved Maintenance Organization 6.115 Limitations on the AMO 6.120 Return to Service 6.125 Maintenance Records 6.130 Airworthiness Data 6.135 Reporting of Unairworthy Conditions 6.140 Inspections By Authority 6.145 Performance Standards

APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 6.060: Expanded Requirements of AMO Ratings Appendix 1 to 6.075: Housing and Facility Requirements Appendix 1 to 6.080: Equipment, Tools, and Material Appendix 1 to 6.085: Personnel Requirements

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Appendix 1 to 6.090: Records of Certifying Staff Appendix 1 to 6.095: Contents of a Maintenance Organization Procedures Manual Appendix 1 to 6.120: Certification of Return to Service Appendix 1 to 6.130: Airworthiness Data

SUBPART A GENERAL

6.001 APPLICABILITY (a) This Schedule prescribes the requirements for issuing approvals to

organizations for the maintenance preventive maintenance, and modifications of aircraft and aeronautical products and prescribes the general operating rules for an Approved Maintenance Organization (AMO). The approval, when granted, shall apply to the whole organization and shall be headed by the accountable manager.

6.005 DEFINITIONS (a) For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply —

(1) Accountable manager (Maintenance). The manager who has corporate authority for ensuring that all maintenance, preventive maintenance, and modification required by the aircraft owner/operator can be financed and carried out to the standard required by the Authority. The accountable manager may delegate to another person in the organization, in writing, to become the accountable manager, when authorised by the Authority.

(2) Approval for return to service. A certification by an approved maintenance organization representative that the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modification performed on an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part thereof was accomplished using the methods, techniques, and practices, prescribed in the current manufacturer’s maintenance manual or instructions for continued airworthiness prepared by its manufacturer, or by using other methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority.

(3) Approved data. Technical information approved by the Authority. (4) Article. Any item, including but not limited to, an aircraft, airframe,

aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, accessory, assembly, subassembly, system, subsystem, component, unit, product, or part.

(5) Calibration. A set of operations, performed in accordance with a definite documented procedure, that compares the measurement performed by a measurement device or working standard for the purpose of detecting and reporting or eliminating by adjustment errors in the measurement device, working standard, or aeronautical product tested.

(6) AMO. Means approved by the Authority. (7) Composite. Structural materials made of substances, including, but not

limited to, wood, metal, ceramic, plastic, fiber-reinforced materials, graphite, boron, or epoxy, with built-in strengthening agents that may by in the form of filaments, foils, powders, or flakes, of a different material.

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(8) Computer system. Any electronic or automated system capable of receiving, storing, and processing external data, and transmitting and presenting such data in a usable form for the accomplishment of a specific function.

(9) Facility. A physical plant, including land, buildings, and equipment, which provide the means for the performance of maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of any article.

(10) Housing. Buildings, hangers, and other structures to accommodate the necessary equipment and materials of a maintenance organization that — (i) Provide working space for the performance of maintenance,

preventive maintenance, or modifications for which the maintenance organization is certificated and rated; and

(ii) Provide structures for the proper protection of aircraft, airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, components, parts, and subassemblies thereof during disassembly, cleaning, inspection, repair, modification, assembly, and testing; and

(iii) Provide for the proper storage, segregation, and protection of materials, parts, and supplies.

(11) Return to service. A maintenance organization document signed by an authorised maintenance organization representative that states that the article worked on is approved for return to service for the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modification performed.

(12) Measurement Device. A calibrated calibrator, standard, equipment and test equipment that is intended to be used to test, measure, or calibrate other measurement devices. It is not to be used to test, measure, or calibrate an aeronautical product.

(13) Primary Standard. A standard defined and maintained by a State Authority and used to calibrate secondary standards.

(14) Reference Standard. A standard that is used to maintain working standards.

(15) Secondary Standards. A standard maintained by comparison with a primary standard.

(16) Signature. An individual’s unique identification used as a means of authenticating a maintenance record entry or maintenance record. A signature may be hand-written, electronic, or any other form acceptable to the Authority.

(17) Specialised maintenance. Any maintenance not normally performed by an AMO (e.g., tire retreating, plating, etc.)

(18) Operations Specifications. Also identified as “Operations Specifications”, the Operations Specifications describe the ratings (Class and/or Limited) in detail and will contain or reference material and process specifications used in performing repair work, along with any limitations applied to the maintenance organization. The accountable manager and the Authority sign this document.

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(19) Standard. An object, artifact, tool, test equipment, system, or experiment that stores, embodies, or otherwise provides a physical quantity, which serves as the basis for measurement of the quantity. It also includes a document describing the operations and process that must be performed in order for a particular end to be achieved.

(20) Tools, Equipment and Test Equipment. Used by an AMO for the performance of maintenance or calibration on an aircraft or aeronautical product. See also working standard.

(21) Traceability. A characteristic of a calibration, analogous to a pedigree. A traceable calibration is achieved when each Measurement Device and Working Standard, in a hierarchy stretching back to the National Standard, was itself properly calibrated, and the results properly documented. The documentation provides the information needed to show that all calibrations in the chain of calibrations were properly performed.

(22) Transfer Standard. Any standard that is used to compare a measurement process, system, or device at one location or level with another measurement process, system or device at another location or level.

(23) Working Standard. A calibrated standard that is used in the performance of maintenance and/or calibrations in any work area for the purpose of forming the basis for product acceptance or for making a finding of airworthiness (approval for return to service) to an aircraft or aeronautical product. A working standard may be maintained by comparison with primary standards, secondary standards, reference standards or transfer standards, as appropriate. A working standard is not to be used to test, measure, or calibrate other working standards or measurement devices.

6.010 ACRONYMS (a) The following acronyms are used in this Schedule:

(1) AMO — Approved Maintenance Organization (2) PMA — Parts Manufacturing Authorization (3) TSO — Technical Standard Order

SUBPART B AMO CERTIFICATE

6.016 ISSUE OF CERTIFICATION (a) The issue of a maintenance organization certificate shall be dependent on the

organization completing initial certification and demonstrating conformance to the requirements of this Schedule to the Authority.

6.020 CERTIFICATE AND OPERATIONS SPECIFICATIONS (a) The AMO certificate will consist of two documents —

(1) A one page certificate signed by the Authority; and (2) A multi-page Operations Specifications signed by the Accountable

Manager and the Authority containing the terms, conditions, and authorizations.

(b) No person may operate as an AMO without, or in violation of, a maintenance organization certificate issued under this Schedule.

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(c) An AMO may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications on an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part thereof only for which it is rating and within the limitations placed in its specific operating limitations.

(d) The AMO certificate will contain — (1) The certificate number specifically assigned to the AMO; (2) The name and location (main place of business) of the AMO; (3) The date of issue and period of validity; (4) The ratings issued to the AMO; and (5) Authority signature.

(e) The AMO Operations Specifications will contain — (1) The certificate number specifically assigned to the AMO; (2) The class or limited ratings issued in detail, including special approvals and

limitations issued; (3) The date issued or revised; (4) Accountable manager and Authority signatures.

(f) The certificate issued to each AMO must be available in the premises for inspection by the public and the Authority.

6.025 ADVERTISING (a) No maintenance organization may advertise as a AMO until a maintenance

organization certificate has been issued to that facility. (b) No AMO may make any statement, either in writing or orally, about itself that is

false or is designed to mislead any person. (c) Whenever the advertising of a maintenance organization indicates that it is

certificated, the advertisement must clearly state the maintenance organization’s certificate number.

6.030 DEVIATION AUTHORITY (a) The Authority may, upon consideration of the circumstances of a particular

maintenance organization, issue a deviation providing relief from specified sections of this Schedule, provided that the Authority finds that the circumstances presented warrant the deviation and that a level of safety will be maintained equal to that provided by the rule from which the deviation is sought. This deviation authority will be issued as a Letter of Deviation Authority.

(b) A Letter of Deviation Authority may be terminated or amended at any time by the Authority.

(c) A request for deviation authority must be made in a form and manner acceptable to the Authority and submitted to the Authority at least 60days before the date the deviation from specified sections in this part is necessary for the intended maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modification. A request for deviation authority must contain complete statement of the circumstances and justifications for the deviation requested, and show that a level of safety will be maintained equal to that provided by the rule from which the deviation is sought.

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(d) Each AMO that receives a Letter of Deviation Authority must have a means of notifying the appropriate management, certifying staff, and personnel of the deviation, including the extent of the deviation and when the deviation is terminated or amended.

SUBPART C CERTIFICATION

6.035 APPLICATION FOR AN AMO CERTIFICATE (a) The Authority will require an applicant for an AMO certificate to submit the

following — (1) An application in a form and manner prescribed by the Authority; (2) Its maintenance procedures manual in duplicate; (3) A list of the maintenance functions to be performed for it, under contract, by

another AMO; (4) A list of all AMO certificates and ratings pertinent to those certificates

issued by any contracting State other than The Bahamas; and (5) Any additional information the Authority requires the applicant to submit.

(b) An application for the amendment of an existing AMO certificate shall be made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Authority. If applicable, the AMO shall submit the required amendment to the maintenance procedure manual to the Authority for approval.

6.040 ISSUANCE OF AN AMO CERTIFICATE (a) An applicant may be issued an AMO certificate if, after investigation, the

Authority finds that the applicant — (1) Meets the applicable regulations and standards for the holder of an AMO;

and (2) Is properly and adequately equipped for the performance of maintenance of

aircraft or aeronautical product for which it seeks approval. 6.045 DURATION AND RENEWAL OF CERTIFICATE (a) A certificate or rating issued to a maintenance organization located in The

Bahamas is effective from the date of issue until the maintenance organization surrenders it or the Authority suspends or revokes it.

(b) A certificate or rating issued to a maintenance organization located outside The Bahamas is effective from the date of issue until — (1) The last day of the 24th month after the date on which it was issued; (2) The maintenance organization surrenders the certificate; or (3) The Authority suspends or revokes the certificate.

(c) The holder of a certificate that expires or is surrendered, suspended, or revoked by the Authority must return the certificate and Operations Specifications to the Authority.

(d) An AMO located outside The Bahamas that applies for a renewal of its maintenance organization certificate for aircraft registered in The Bahamas must:

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(1) Submit its request for renewal no later than 90 days before the maintenance organization’s current certificate expires. If a request for renewal is not made within this period, the maintenance organization must follow the application procedure prescribed by the Authority.

(2) Send its request for renewal to the Authority that has jurisdiction over the maintenance organization.

6.050 CONTINUED VALIDITY OF APPROVAL (a) Unless the approval has previously been surrendered, superseded, suspended,

revoked or expired by virtue of exceeding any expiration date that may be specified in the approval certificate, the continued validity of approval is dependent upon — (1) The AMO remaining in compliance with this Schedule; (2) The Authority being granted access to the organization’s facilities to

determine continued compliance with this regulation; and (3) The payment of any charges prescribed by the Authority.

(b) The holder of an AMO certificate that expires or is surrendered, suspended, or revoked, shall return it to the Authority.

6.055 CHANGES TO THE AMO AND CERTIFICATE AMENDMENTS (a) To enable the Authority to determine continued compliance with this Schedule, the

AMO shall provide written notification to the Authority either prior to, or within a time period determined by the Authority to be as soon as practicable after, any of the following changes — (1) The name of the organization; (2) The location of the organization; (3) The housing, facilities, equipment, tools, material, procedures, work scope and

certifying staff that could affect the AMO rating or ratings; (4) The ratings held by the AMO, whether granted by the Authority or held

through an AMO certification issued by another contracting State; (5) Additional locations of the organization; (6) The accountable manager; or (7) The list of management personnel identified as described in the maintenance

procedure manual. (b) The Authority will amend the AMO certificate if the AMO notifies the

Authority of a change in — (1) Location or housing and facilities; (2) Additional locations of the organization; (3) Rating, including deletions; (4) Name of the organization with same ownership; or (5) Ownership.

(c) The Authority may amend the AMO certificate if the AMO notifies the Authority of a change in — (1) The accountable manager; or

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(2) The list of management personnel identified as described in the maintenance procedure manual.

(d) When the Authority issues an amendment to an AMO certificate because of new ownership of the AMO, the Authority will assign a new certificate number to the amended AMO certificate.

(e) The Authority may — (1) Prescribe, in writing, the conditions under which the AMO may continue to

operate during any period of implementation of the changes noted in subparagraph (a); and

(2) Hold the AMO certificate in abeyance if the Authority determines that approval of the AMO certificate should be delayed; the Authority will notify the AMO certificate holder, in writing, of the reasons for any such delay.

(f) If changes are made by the AMO to the items listed in subparagraph (a) without notification to the Authority, the AMO certificate may be suspended.

6.060 RATINGS OF THE AMO (a) The following ratings are issued under this Subpart:

(1) Airframe ratings. An aircraft rating on a maintenance organization certificate permits that maintenance organization to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications on an aircraft, including work on the powerplant(s) of that aircraft up to, but not including, overhaul as that term defined in Schedule 5 under the following classes:

(i) Class 1: Aircraft (other than rotorcraft and aircraft composed primarily of composite material) of 5,700 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight or less.

(ii) Class 2: Aircraft (other than rotorcraft and aircraft composed primarily of composite material) over 5,700 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight and up to, and including, 34,200 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight.

(iii) Class 3: Aircraft, (other than rotorcraft and aircraft composed primarily composite material) over 34,200 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight.

(iv) Class 4: Rotorcraft (other than rotorcraft composed primarily of composite material) of 2,736 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight or less.

(v) Class 5: Rotorcraft (other than rotorcraft composed primarily of composite material) over 2,736 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight.

(vi) Class 6: Aircraft composed primarily of composite material, of 5,700 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight or less.

(vii) Class 7: Aircraft composed primarily of composite material, over 5,700 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight

(2) Powerplant ratings. A powerplant rating on a maintenance organization certificate permits that maintenance organization to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of powerplants under the following classes:

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(i) Class 1: Reciprocating engines. (ii) Class 2: Turbopropeller and turboshaft engines. (iii) Class 3: Turbojet and turbofan engines.

(3) Propeller ratings. A propeller rating on a maintenance organization certificate permits that maintenance organization to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of propellers under the following classes: (i) Class 1: Fixed-pitch and ground-adjustable propellers.

(ii) Class 2: Variable-pitch propellers. (4) Avionics ratings. An avionics rating on a maintenance organization certificate

permits that maintenance organization to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of avionics equipment under the following ratings: (i) Class 1: Communication equipment: Any radio transmitting

equipment or receiving equipment, or both, used in aircraft to send or receive communications, regardless of carrier frequency or type of modulation used; including auxiliary and related aircraft interphone systems, amplifier systems, electrical or electronic intercrew signalling devices, and similar equipment; but not including equipment used for navigation of the aircraft or as an aid to navigation, equipment for measuring altitude or terrain clearance, other measuring equipment operated on radio or radar principles, or mechanical, electrical, gyroscopic, or electronic instruments that are a part of communications avionics equipment.

(ii) Class 2: Navigational equipment: Any avionics system used in aircraft for en route or approach navigation, except equipment operated on radar or pulsed radio frequency principles, but not including equipment for measuring altitude or terrain clearance or other distance equipment operated on pulsed radio frequency principles.

(iii) Class 3: Pulsed equipment: Any aircraft electronic system operated on pulsed radio frequency principles.

(5) Computer systems ratings. A computer systems rating on a maintenance organization certificate permits that maintenance organization to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of digital computer systems and components thereof, that have the function of receiving external data, processing such data, and transmitting and presenting the processed data under the following classes: (i) Class 1: Aircraft computer systems.

(ii) Class 2: Powerplant computer systems. (iii) Class 3: Avionics computer systems.

(6) Instrument ratings. An instrument rating on a maintenance organization certificate permits that maintenance organization to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of instruments under the following classes:

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(i) Class 1: Mechanical: Any diaphragm, bourdon tube, aneroid, optical, or mechanically driven centrifugal instrument that is used on aircraft or to operate aircraft, including tachometers, airspeed indicators, pressure gauges, drift sights, magnetic compasses, altimeters, or similar mechanical instruments.

(ii) Class 2: Electrical: Any self-synchronous and electrical indicating instruments and systems, including remote indicating instruments, cylinder head temperature gauges, or similar electrical instruments.

(iii) Class 3: Gyroscopic: Any instrument or system using gyroscopic principles and motivated by air pressure or electrical energy, including automatic pilot control units, turn and bank indicators, directional gyros, and their parts, and flux gate and gyrosyn compasses.

(iv) Class 4: Electronic: Any instruments whose operation depends on electron tubes, transistors, or similar devices including capacitance type quantity gauges, system amplifiers, and engine analysers.

(7) Accessory ratings. An accessory rating on a maintenance organization certificate permits that maintenance organization to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of accessory equipment under the following classes:

(i) Class 1: Mechanical. The accessories that depend on friction, hydraulics, mechanical linkage, or pneumatic pressure for operation.

(ii) Class 2: Electrical. The accessories that depend on electrical energy. (iii) Class 3: Electronic. The accessories that depend on the use of an

electron tube transistors, lasers, fiber optics, solid-state, integrated circuits, vacuum tubes, or similar electronic controls.

(iv) Class 4: Auxiliary power units (APUs) that may be installed on aircraft as self-contained units to supplement the aircraft’s engines as a source of hydraulic, pneumatic, or electrical power.

6.065 AMO LIMITED RATINGS (a) Whenever the Authority finds it appropriate, it may issue a limited rating to an

AMO that maintains or alters only a particular type of airframe, powerplant, propeller, radio, instrument, or accessory, or parts thereof, or performs only specialised maintenance requiring equipment and skills not ordinarily found in an AMO. Such a rating may be limited to a specific model aircraft, engine, or constituent part, or to any number of parts made by a particular manufacturer.

(b) Limited ratings are issued for — (1) Aircraft; (2) Airframe; (3) Powerplants; (4) Propellers; (5) Avionics equipment; (6) Computer systems; (7) Instruments; (8) Accessories; and

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(9) Any other purpose for which the Authority finds the applicant’s request appropriate.

(c) Specialised service ratings. A specialised service rating may be issued to a maintenance organization to perform specific maintenance or processes. The Operations Specifications of the maintenance organization must identify the specification used in performing that specialised service. The specification may be — (1) A civil or military specification that is currently used by industry and

approved by the Authority; or (2) A specification developed by the maintenance organization and approved by

the Authority. SUBPART D

HOUSING, FACILITIES, EQUIPMENT & MATERIALS 6.070 GENERAL (a) An AMO must provide personnel, facilities, equipment, and materials in

quantity and quality that meet the standards required for the issuance of the certificate and ratings that the maintenance organization holds.

6.075 HOUSING AND FACILITY REQUIREMENTS (a) Housing and facilities shall be provided appropriate for all planned work

ensuring, in particular, protection from weather. (b) All work environments shall be appropriate for the task carried out and shall

not impair the effectiveness of personnel. (c) Office accommodation shall be appropriate for the management of planned

work including, in particular, the management of quality, planning, and technical records.

(d) Specialised workshops and bays shall be segregated, as appropriate, to insure that environmental and work area contamination is unlikely to occur.

(e) Storage facilities shall be provided for parts, equipment, tools and material. (f) Storage conditions shall be provided security for serviceable parts, segregation

of serviceable from unserviceable parts, and prevent deterioration of and damage to stored items. See Appendix 1 to 6.075 for detailed requirements pertaining to housing and facilities.

6.080 EQUIPMENT, TOOLS, AND MATERIAL (a) The AMO shall have available the necessary equipment, tools, and material to

perform the approved scope of work and these items shall be under full control of the AMO. The availability of equipment and tools means permanent availability except in the case of any tool or equipment that is so rarely needed that its permanent availability is not necessary.

(b) The Authority may exempt an AMO from possessing specific tools and equipment for maintenance or repair of an aircraft or aeronautical product specified in the AMO’s approval, if these items can be acquired temporarily, by prior arrangement, and be under full control of the AMO when needed to perform required maintenance or repairs.

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Note: The Authority may elect not to amend the approval to delete the aircraft or aeronautical product on the basis that it is a temporary situation and there is a formal agreement from the AMO to re-acquire tools, equipment, etc. before performing any maintenance or repair.

(c) The AMO shall control all applicable tools, equipment, and test equipment used for product acceptance and/or for making a finding of airworthiness.

(d) The AMO shall ensure that all applicable tools, equipment, and test equipment used for product acceptance and/or for making a finding of airworthiness are calibrated to ensure correct calibration to a standard acceptable to the Authority and traceable to the State National Standards.

(e) The AMO shall keep all records of calibrations and the standards used for calibration. See Appendix 1 to 6.080 for detailed requirements pertaining to tools, equipment, and test equipment.

SUBPART E ADMINISTRATION

6.085 PERSONNEL AND TRAINING REQUIREMENTS (a) A management person or group of persons acceptable to the Authority, whose

responsibilities include ensuring that the AMO is in compliance with these regulations, shall be nominated.

(b) The person or persons nominated as manager shall represent the maintenance management structure of the AMO, and be responsible for all functions specified in this Schedule.

(c) Nominated managers shall be directly responsible to an accountable manager who shall be acceptable to the Authority.

(d) The AMO shall employ sufficient personnel to plan, perform, supervise and inspect and release the work in accordance with the approval.

(e) The competence of personnel involved in maintenance shall be established in accordance with a procedure and to a standard acceptable to the Authority.

(f) The person signing return to service or an approval for return to service shall be qualified in accordance with Schedules 5 and 8 as appropriate to the work performed and is acceptable to the Authority.

(g) The maintenance personnel and the certifying staff shall meet the qualification requirements and receive initial and continuation training to their assigned tasks and responsibilities in accordance with a program acceptable to the Authority. The training program established by the AMO shall include training in knowledge and skills related to human performance, including co-ordination with other maintenance personnel and flight crew. See Appendix 1 to 6.085 for detailed personnel requirements.

6.090 RECORD OF CERTIFYING STAFF (a) The AMO shall maintain a roster of all certifying staff, which includes details of

the scope of their authorization.

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(b) Certifying staff shall be notified in writing of the scope of their authorization. See Appendix 1 to 6.090 for detailed requirements pertaining to records of certifying staff.

SUBPART F AMO OPERATING RULES

6.095 MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATION PROCEDURES MANUAL Note: The purpose of the Maintenance Organization Procedures Manual is to set forth the procedures, the means, and methods of the AMO. Compliance with its contents will assure compliance with the requirements of this Schedule, which is a prerequisite to obtaining and retaining an AMO certificate. (a) The maintenance organization shall provide for the use and guidance of

maintenance personnel concerned a procedures manual containing the contents specified by the Authority. See Appendix 1 to 6.095 for the required contents of a Maintenance Organizations Procedures Manual.

(b) The maintenance organization shall ensure that the procedures manual is amended as necessary to keep the information contained therein up-to-date.

(c) The AMO Maintenance Procedure Manual and any subsequent amendments thereto shall be approved by the Authority prior to use.

(d) This manual and all amendments shall be furnished promptly to all organizations or persons accomplishing any activity for which the manual applies.

(e) The AMO Maintenance Procedures Manual shall specify the scope of work required of the AMO in order to satisfy the relevant requirements needed for an approval of an aircraft or aeronautical product for return to service.

(f) The procedures manual and any other manual it identifies must: (1) Include instructions and information necessary to allow the personnel

concerned to perform their duties and responsibilities with a high degree of safety;

(2) Be in a form that is easy to revise and contains a system which allows personnel to determine current revision status;

(3) Have the date of the last revision printed on each page containing the revision;

(4) Not be contrary to any applicable Bahamian regulation or the AMO’s Operations Specifications; and

(5) Include a reference to appropriate civil aviation regulations. See Appendix 6.095 for the required contents of the maintenance organization procedures manual.

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6.100 MAINTENANCE PROCEDURES AND INDEPENDENT QUALITY ASSURANCE SYSTEM

(a) The AMO shall establish procedures acceptable to the Authority to insure good maintenance practices and compliance with all relevant requirements in these regulations such that aircraft and aeronautical products may be properly released to service.

(b) The AMO shall establish an independent quality assurance system, acceptable to the Authority, to monitor compliance with and adequacy of the procedures and by providing a system of inspection to ensure that all maintenance is properly performed. Note: The quality assurance system may be an independent system under the control of the quality manager that evaluates the maintenance procedures and the correctness of the Equivalent Safety Case process.

(c) The quality assurance system shall include a procedure to initially qualify and periodically perform audits on persons performing work on behalf of the AMO.

(d) Compliance monitoring shall include a feedback system to the designated management person or group of persons directly responsible for the quality system and ultimately to the accountable manager to ensure, as necessary, corrective action.

(e) The maintenance procedures shall cover all aspects of maintenance activity and describe standards to which the AMO intends to work. The aircraft/aircraft component design AMO standards and aircraft operator standards must be taken into account.

(f) The maintenance procedures should address the provisions and limitations of this Schedule.

(g) The AMO’s quality system shall be sufficient to review all maintenance procedures as described in the Procedures Manual in accordance with an approved program once a year for each aircraft type maintained.

(h) The AMO’s quality system shall indicate when audits are due, when completed, and establish a system of audit reports, which can be seen by visiting Authority staff on request. The audit system shall clearly establish a means by which audit reports containing observations about non-compliance or poor standards are communicated to the accountable manager. See Appendix 1 to 6.100 for detailed requirements pertaining to the quality system, including a sample of inspection items.

6.105 CAPABILITY LIST (a) Each AMO must prepare and retain a current capability list approved by the

Authority. The maintenance organization may not perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications on an article until the article has been listed on the capability list in accordance with this Schedule.

(b) The capability list must identify each article by make and model, part number, or other nomenclature designated by the article’s manufacturer.

(c) An article may be listed on the capability list only if the article is within the scope of the ratings and classes of the maintenance organization’s certificate, and only after the maintenance organization has performed a self-evaluation in accordance with this Schedule. The maintenance organization must perform the self-evaluation described in this paragraph to determine that the

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maintenance organization has all of the facilities, equipment, material, technical data, processes, housing, and trained personnel in place to perform the work on the article as required by this Schedule. If the maintenance organization makes that determination, it may list the article on the capability list.

(d) The document of the evaluation described in paragraph (c) of this section must be signed by the accountable manager and must be retained on file by the maintenance organization.

(e) Upon listing an additional article on its capability list, the maintenance organization must send a copy of the list to the Authority having jurisdiction over the maintenance organization.

(f) The capability list(s) must be available in the premises for inspection by the public and the Authority.

(g) The self-evaluations must be available in the premises for inspection by the Authority.

(h) The AMO shall retain the capability list(s) and self-evaluation(s) for two years from the date accepted by the accountable manager.

6.110 PRIVILEGES OF THE APPROVED MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATION

(a) The AMO shall carry out the following tasks as permitted by and in accordance with the AMO maintenance procedures manual — (1) Maintain any aircraft or aeronautical product for which it is rated at

the location identified in the approval certificate; (2) Maintain any aircraft for which it is rated at any location subject to the

need for such maintenance arising from unserviceability of the aircraft;

(3) Describe the activities in support of a specific AOC holder where that AOC has requested the services of the AMO at locations other than the location identified on the AMO certificate and the AMO has been rated to maintain the aircraft of that specific AOC holder at the requested location in the AMO operating provisions approved by the Authority; and

(4) Issue an approval for return to service or a return to service in respect of subparagraphs (a)(1), (2), and (3) of this subsection upon completion of maintenance in accordance with limitations applicable to the AMO.

(b) An AMO may not contract out the maintenance, preventative maintenance, modification or alteration of a complete type-certificated product, and it may not provide only approval for return to service of a product following contract maintenance.

(c) The AMO may maintain or alter any article for which it is rated at a place other than the AMO, if — (1) The function would be performed in the same manner as when

performed at the AMO and in accordance with this Subpart; (2) All necessary personnel, equipment, material, and technical and/or

approved standards are available at the place where the work is to be done; and

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(3) The maintenance procedure manual of the station sets forth approved procedures governing work to be performed at a place other than the AMO.

6.115 LIMITATIONS ON THE AMO (a) The AMO shall maintain an aircraft or aeronautical product for which it is

approved only when all necessary housing, facilities, equipment, tools, material, approved technical data and certifying staff are available.

6.120 RETURN TO SERVICE (a) A return to service shall be issued by appropriately authorised certifying

staff when satisfied that all required maintenance of the aircraft or aeronautical product has been properly carried out by the AMO in accordance with the maintenance procedure manual.

Note: An aeronautical product which has been maintained off the aircraft requires the issue of a return to service for such maintenance and another return to service in regard to being installed properly on the aircraft, when such action occurs.

(b) A return to service shall contain — (1) Basic details of the maintenance carried out; (2) The date such maintenance was completed; (3) The identity, including the authorization reference, of the AMO; and (4) The identity of the person or persons signing the release.

See Appendix 7 to 6.120 for detailed requirements concerning a return to service, along with a sample form.

6.125 MAINTENANCE RECORDS (a) The AMO shall record, in a form acceptable to the Authority, all details for

maintenance work performed. (b) The AMO shall provide a copy of each return to service to the aircraft

operator, together with a copy of any specific airworthiness data used for repairs/modifications performed.

(c) The AMO shall retain a copy of all detailed maintenance records and any associated airworthiness data for two years from the date the aircraft or aeronautical product to which the work relates was released from the AMO.

Note: Where an AOC holder contracts an AMO to keep the aircraft operator’s certificates of return to service and any associated airworthiness data, the retention period will be that required by Schedule 5.

(d) Each person who maintains, performs preventive maintenance, rebuilds, or modifies an aircraft/aeronautical product shall make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment: (1) A description and reference to data acceptable to the Authority of

work performed. (2) The date of completion of the work performed. (3) The name of the person performing the work if other than the person

specified in this subsection. (4) If the work performed on the aircraft/aeronautical product has been

performed satisfactorily, the signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work.

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(5) The authorised signature, the AMO certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving or disapproving for return to service the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component part, or portions thereof.

(6) The signature constitutes the approval for return to service only for the work performed.

(7) In addition to the entry required by this paragraph, major repairs and major modifications shall be entered on a form in the manner prescribed by the Authority.

(e) No person shall describe in any required maintenance entry or form an aircraft or aeronautical component as being overhauled unless: (1) Using methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority,

it has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected as permitted, repaired as necessary, and reassembled; and

(2) It has been tested in accordance with approved standards and technical data, or in accordance with current standards and technical data acceptable to the Authority, which have been developed and documented by the holder of the type certificate, supplemental type certificate, or a material, part, process, or appliance approval under a TSO.

Note: For definitions of overhaul see Schedule 5. (f) No person may describe in any required maintenance entry or form, an

aircraft or other aeronautical product as being rebuilt unless it has been — (1) Disassembled, cleaned, inspected as permitted; (2) Repaired as necessary; and (3) Reassembled and tested to the same tolerances and limits as a

new item, using either new parts or used parts that either conforms to new part tolerances and limits, or to approve oversized or undersized dimensions.

Note: For definitions of rebuild see Schedule 5. (g) No person may approve for return to service any aircraft or aeronautical

product that has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or modification unless: (1) The appropriate maintenance record entry has been made; (2) The repair or modification form authorised by or furnished by

the Authority has been executed in a manner prescribed by the Authority.

(h) If a repair or modification results in any change in the aircraft operating limitations or flight data contained in the approved aircraft flight manual, those operating limitations or flight data shall be appropriately revised and set forth as prescribed by the Authority.

(i) Maintenance record entries for inspections. The person approving or disapproving for return to service an aircraft/aeronautical product, after any inspection performed in accordance with this regulation, shall make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment containing the following information: (1) The type of inspection and a brief description of the extent of the

inspection; (2) The date of the inspection and aircraft total time in service; and

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(3) The authorised signature, the AMO certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving or disapproving for return to service the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine propeller appliance, component part, or portions thereof;

(4) If the aircraft is found to be airworthy and approved for return to service, the following or a similarly worded statement — “I certify that this aircraft has been inspected in accordance with (insert type) inspection and was determined to be in airworthy condition”;

(5) If the aircraft is not approved for return to service because of needed maintenance, non-compliance with the applicable specifications, airworthiness directives, or other approved data, the following or a similarly worded statement — “I certify that this aircraft has been inspected in accordance with (insert type) inspection and a list of discrepancies and unairworthy items dated (date) has been provided for the aircraft owner or operator”; and

(6) If an inspection is conducted under an inspection program provided for in this regulation, the entry shall identify the inspection program accomplished, and contains a statement that the inspection was performed in accordance with the inspections and procedures for that particular program.

(j) Listing of discrepancies. If the person performing any inspection required by this regulation finds that the aircraft is not airworthy or does not meet the applicable type certificate data sheet, airworthiness directives, or other approved data upon which its airworthiness depends, that person shall give the owner or lessee a signed and dated list of those discrepancies.

6.130 AIRWORTHINESS DATA (a) The AMO shall be in receipt of all airworthiness data appropriate to support

the work performed from the Authority, the aircraft/aeronautical product design organization, and any other approved design organization in the State of Manufacture or State of Design, as appropriate.

Note: The Authority may classify data from another authority or organization as mandatory and may require the AMO to hold such data.

(b) Where the AMO modifies airworthiness data specified in paragraph (a) to a format or presentation more useful for its maintenance activities, the AMO shall submit to the Authority an amendment to the maintenance procedure manual for any such proposed modifications for acceptance.

(c) All airworthiness data used by the AMO shall be kept current and made available to all personnel who require access to that data to perform their duties.

See Appendix 1 to 6.130 for detailed requirements concerning airworthiness data.

6.135 REPORTING OF UNAIRWORTHY CONDITIONS (a) The AMO shall report to the Authority and the aircraft design organization of

the State of Design any identified condition that could present a serious hazard to the aircraft.

(b) Reports shall be made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Authority and contain all pertinent information about the condition known to the AMO.

(c) Where the AMO is contracted by an AOC holder to carry out maintenance, that AMO shall report to the AOC holder any condition affecting the aircraft or aeronautical product.

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(d) Reports shall be made as soon as practicable, but in any case within three days of the AMO identifying the condition to which the report relates.

6.140 INSPECTIONS BY AUTHORITY Each AMO must allow the Authority to inspect that maintenance organization and any of its contract maintenance facilities at any time to determine compliance with this Schedule. Arrangements for maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications by a contractor must include provisions for inspections of the contractor by the Authority. 6.145 PERFORMANCE STANDARDS (a) Each AMO that performs any maintenance, preventive maintenance,

modifications for an air operator certificated under Schedule 12 having an approved maintenance program and approved continuous maintenance program shall perform that work in accordance with the air operator’s manuals.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (a), each AMO shall perform its maintenance and modification operations in accordance with the applicable standards in Schedule 5. It shall maintain, in current condition, all manufacturer’s service manuals, instructions, and service bulletins that relate to the articles that it maintains or modifies.

(c) In addition, each AMO with an avionics rating shall comply with those sections in Schedule 5 that apply to electronic systems, and shall use materials that conform to approved specifications for equipment appropriate to its rating. It shall use test apparatus, shop equipment, performance standards, test methods, modifications, and calibrations that conform to the manufacturer’s specifications or instructions, approved specification, and if not otherwise specified, to accepted good practices of the aircraft avionics industry.

APPENDICES APPENDIX 1 TO 6.060

EXPANDED REQUIREMENTS OF AMO RATINGS Except for job functions that are contracted out, each AMO must provide equipment and material so that the job functions listed in this Appendix, as appropriate to the class or limited rating held or applied for, can be performed as required. The job functions are as follows: (a) For an aircraft rating:

(1) Classes 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5: (i) Metal skin and structural components:

(A) Repair and replace steel tubes and fittings using the proper welding techniques, when appropriate.

(B) Apply anticorrosion treatment to the interior and exterior of parts. (C) Perform simple machine operations. (D) Fabricate steel fittings. (E) Repair and replace metal skin. (F) Repair and replace alloy members and components.

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(G) Assemble and align components using jigs or fixtures. (H) Make up forming blocks or dies. (I) Repair or replace ribs.

(ii) Wood Structure: (A) Splice wood spars. (B) Repair ribs and spars. (C) Align interior of wings. (D) Repair or replace plywood skin. (E) Apply treatment against wood decay.

(iii) Fabric covering: (A) Repair fabric surfaces.

(iv) Aircraft control systems: (A) Repair and replace control cables. (B) Rig complete control system. (C) Replace and repair all control system components. (D) Remove and install control system units and components.

(v) Aircraft systems: (A) Replace and repair landing gear hinge-point components and

attachments. (B) Maintain elastic shock absorber units. (C) Conduct landing gear retraction cycle tests. (D) Maintain electrical position indicating and wiring systems. (E) Repair and fabricate fuel, pneumatic, hydraulic, and oil lines. (F) Diagnose electrical and electronic malfunctions. (G) Repair and replace electrical wiring and electronic data

transmission lines. (H) Install electrical and electronic equipment. (I) Perform bench check of electrical and electronic

components. (This check is not to be confused with the more complex functional test after repair or overhaul.)

(vi) Assembly operations: (A) Assemble aircraft components or parts, such as landing gear,

wings, and controls. (B) Rig and align aircraft components, including the complete

aircraft and control system. (C) Install powerplants. (D) Install instruments and accessories. (E) Assemble and install cowlings, fairings, and panels. (F) Maintain and install windshields and windows.

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(G) Jack or hoist complete aircraft. (H) Balance flight control surfaces.

(vii) Non-destructive inspection and testing using dye penetrants and magnetic, ultrasonic, radiographic, fluorescent, or holographic inspection techniques.

(viii) Inspection of metal structures: (A) Inspect metal structures, using appropriate inspection

equipment to perform the inspections required on an aircraft. (2) Classes 6 and 7:

(i) In addition to having the capability to perform the appropriate functions set forth for class 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5 aircraft ratings, a maintenance organization holding a class 6 or 7 aircraft rating for composite aircraft must have the following equipment: (A) Autoclave capable of providing positive pressure and

temperature consistent with materials used. (B) Air circulating oven with vacuum capability. (C) Storage equipment, such as freezer, refrigerator, and

temperature-control cabinets or other definitive storage areas.

(D) Honeycomb core cutters. (E) Non-destructive inspection equipment such as x-ray,

ultrasonic, or other types of acoustic test equipment as recommended by the manufacturer.

(F) Cutting tools, such as diamond or carbide saws or router bits, suitable for cutting and trimming composite structures.

(G) Scales adequate to ensure proper proportioning by weight of epoxy adhesive and resins.

(H) Mechanical pressure equipment such as vacuum bagging or sand bags, as appropriate.

(I) Thermocouple probes necessary to monitor core temperatures.

(J) Hardness testing equipment using heat guns that are thermostatically controlled for curing repairs.

(ii) Appropriate inspection equipment to perform inspection of composite structures as recommended by the manufacturer and as required for inspection of an aircraft under this section.

(3) List of maintenance functions that may be contracted out: (i) For all classes of airframe ratings:

(A) Metal plating or anodizing. (B) Complex machine operation involving the use of

planners, shapers, milling machines, etc. (C) Abrasive air blasting and chemical cleaning operations. (D) Heat treatment. (E) Magnetic inspection.

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(F) Repair or rebuilt metal tanks (G) Fabricate alloy members and components such as tubes,

channels, cowlings, fittings, attach angles, etc. (H) Fabricate wood spars. (I) Overhaul and repair hydraulic-pneumatic shock absorber

units. (J) Overhaul and repair brake system components. (K) Overhaul and repair hydraulic system components (L) Conduct aircraft weight and balance operation (this function

will be conducted in a draft-free area). (M) Fluorescent inspection of alloy components. (N) Recovering and refinishing of components and entire

aircraft. (b) Powerplant rating:

(1) Class 1: (i) Maintain and alter powerplants, including

replacement of parts: (A) Perform chemical and mechanical cleaning. (B) Perform disassembly operations. (C) Replace bushings, bearings, pins, and inserts. (D) Perform heating operations that may involve the use of

recommended techniques that require controlled heating facilities.

(E) Perform chilling or shrinking operations. (F) Remove and replace studs. (G) Inscribe or affix identification information. (H) Paint powerplants and components. (I) Apply anticorrosion treatment for parts.

(ii) Inspect all parts, using appropriate inspection aids: (A) Determine precise clearances and tolerances of all parts. (B) Inspect alignment of connecting rods, crankshafts, and

impeller shafts. (iii) Accomplish routine machine work:

(A) Ream inserts, bushings, bearings, and other similar components.

(B) Reface valves. (iv) Accomplish assembly operations:

(A) Perform valve and ignition-timing operations. (B) Fabricate and test ignition harnesses. (C) Fabricate and test rigid and flexible fluid lines. (D) Prepare engines for long or short term storage. (E) Hoist engines by mechanical means.

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(2) Classes 2 and 3: (i) In addition to having the capability to perform the appropriate functions as

required for class 1 powerplant rating, a maintenance organization holding a class 2 or a class 3 powerplant rating must have the following equipment: (A) Testing equipment. (B) Surface treatment antigallant equipment.

(ii) Functional and equipment requirements recommended by the manufacturer; and

(iii) Appropriate inspection equipment. (3) List of maintenance functions that may be contracted out:

(i) Class 1 and 2 Powerplant (Reciprocating). (ii) Replacement of valve guides and seats. (iii) Plating operations (copper, silver, cadmium, etc.). (iv) Replacement and repair of powerplant alloy sheet metal and steel

components such as air baffles, etc.) (v) Magnetic, fluorescent and other acceptable inspection aids. (vi) Balancing of parts, including crankshafts, impeller shafts, etc. (vii) Precision grinding, honing and lapping operations (including crankshaft,

cylinder barrels, etc.) (viii) Precision drilling, tapping, boring, milling, and cutting operations. (ix) Functional check powerplant accessories (this check is not to be confused

with the more complex performance test of overhaul). (x) Install engines in aircraft. (xi) Align and adjust engine controls.

(c) Propeller Rating: (1) Class 1:

(i) Remove and install propellers. (ii) Maintain and alter propellers, including installation and replacement of parts:

(A) Replace bladed tipping. (B) Refinish wood propellers. (C) Make wood inlays. (D) Refinish plastic blades. (E) Straighten bent blades within repairable tolerances. (F) Modify blade diameter and profile. (G) Polish and buff. (H) Perform painting operations.

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(iii) Inspect components using appropriate inspection aids: (A) Inspect propellers for conformity with manufacturer’s

drawings and specifications. (B) Inspect hubs and blades for failures and defects using all

visual aids, including the etching of parts. (C) Inspect hubs for wear of splines or keyways or any other

defect. (iv) Balance propellers:

(A) Test for proper track on aircraft. (B) Test for horizontal and vertical unbalance using precision

equipment. (2) Class 2:

(i) Remove and install aircraft propellers, which may include installation and replacement of parts: (A) Perform all functions listed under Class 1 propellers when

applicable to the make and model propeller in this class. (B) Properly lubricate moving parts. (C) Assemble complete propeller and subassemblies using

special tools when required. (ii) Inspect components using appropriate inspection aids for those

functions listed for class 1 propellers under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this Implementing Standard when applicable to the make and model of the propeller being worked on.

(iii) Repair or replace components or parts: (A) Replace blades, hubs, or any of their components. (B) Repair or replace anti-icing devices. (C) Remove nicks or scratches from metal blades. (D) Repair or replace electrical propeller components.

(iv) Balance propellers, including those functions listed for class 1 propellers under paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this Implementing Standard when applicable to the make and model of the propeller being worked on.

(v) Test propeller pitch-changing mechanism: (A) Test hydraulically operated propellers and components. (B) Test electrically operated propellers and components.

(3) List of maintenance functions that may be contracted out: (i) Class 1 Propeller:

(A) Inspect hubs and blades for failures and defects, using magnetic or fluorescent inspection devices.

(ii) Class 2 Propeller: (A) Test of constant speed devices.

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(d) Avionics rating: (1) Class 1, 2, and 3:

(A) Perform physical inspection of avionics systems and components by visual and mechanical inspection.

(B) Perform electrical inspection of avionics systems and components by means of appropriate electrical and/or electronic test equipment.

(C) Check aircraft wiring, antennas, connectors, relays, and other associated avionics components to detect installation faults.

(D) Check engine ignition systems and aircraft accessories to determine sources of electrical interference.

(E) Check aircraft power supplies for adequacy and proper functioning.

(F) Remove, repair, and replace aircraft antennas. (G) Measure transmission line attenuation. (H) Measure avionics component values such as inductance,

capacitance, and resistance. (I) Determine waveforms and phase in avionics equipment when

applicable. (J) Determine proper aircraft avionics antenna, lead-in, and

transmission-line characteristics and determine proper locations for type of avionics equipment to which the antenna is connected.

(K) Determine the operational condition of avionics equipment installed in aircraft by using appropriate portable test apparatus.

(L) Test all types of transistors: solid-state, integrated circuits; or similar devices in equipment appropriate to the class rating.

(M) Test avionics indicators. (2) Class 1:

(i) In addition to having the capability to perform the job functions listed in paragraph (d)(1):

(A) Test and repair headsets, speakers, and microphones. (B) Measure radio transmitter power output. (C) Measure modulation values, noise, and distortion in

communication equipment. (3) Class 2:

(i) In addition to having the capability to perform the job functions listed in paragraph (d)(1):

(A) Test and repair headsets. (B) Test speakers. (C) Measure loop antenna sensitivity by appropriate methods. (D) Calibrate to approved performance standards any radio

navigational equipment, en route and approach aids, or similar equipment, as appropriate to this rating.

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(4) Class 3: (i) In addition to having the capability to perform the job functions

listed in paragraph (d)(1): (A) Measure transmitter power output.

(5) List of maintenance functions that may be contracted out: (i) Class 2 Avionics:

(A) Repair of speakers. (ii) Class 3 Avionics:

(A) Metal plating of transmission lines, wave guides, and similar equipment in accordance with appropriate specifications.

(iii) For all Class of Avionics ratings: (A) Test avionics indicators. (B) Overhaul, test, and check dynamotors, inverters, and other

radio electrical apparatus. (C) Paint and refinish equipment containers. (D) Accomplish appropriate methods of marking calibrations,

or other information on avionics control panels and other components, as required.

(E) Make and reproduce drawings, wiring diagrams, and other similar material required to record alteration and/or modifications to avionics (photographs may be used in lieu of drawings when they will serve as an equivalent or better means of recording).

(F) Fabricate tuning shaft assemblies, brackets, cable assemblies, and other similar components used in avionics or aircraft avionics installations.

(G) Install complete avionics systems in aircraft and prepare weight and balance reports (that phase of avionics installation requiring modifications to the aircraft structure must be performed, supervised, and inspected by appropriately qualified and authorised person).

(e) Computer systems rating: (1) Class 1, 2, and 3:

(A) Maintain computer systems in accordance with manufacturer’s specifications, test requirements, and recommendations.

(B) Remove, maintain, and replace computer systems in aircraft. (C) Inspect, test, and calibrate computer system equipment,

including software. (f) Instrument rating:

(1) Class 1: (i) Diagnose instrument malfunctions on the following instruments:

(A) Rate-of-climb indicators. (B) Altimeters.

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(C) Airspeed indicators. (D) Vacuum indicators. (E) Oil pressure gauges. (F) Hydraulic pressure gauges. (G) De-icing pressure gauges. (H) Pitot-static tube. (I) Direct indicating compasses. (J) Accelerometer. (K) Direct indicating tachometers. (L) Direct reading fuel quantity gauges.

(ii) Inspect, test, and calibrate the instruments listed under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this IS on and off the aircraft, as appropriate.

(2) Class 2: (i) Diagnose instrument malfunctions of the following instruments:

(A) Tachometers. (B) Synchroscope. (C) Electric temperature indicators. (D) Electric resistance-type indicators. (E) Moving magnet-type indicators. (F) Warning units (oil and fuel). (G) Selsyn systems and indicators. (H) Self-synchronous systems and indicators. (I) Remote indicating compasses. (J) Quantity indicators. (K) Avionics indicators. (L) Ammeters. (M) Voltmeters. (N) Frequency meters.

(ii) Inspect, test, and calibrate instruments listed under paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this IS on and off the aircraft, as appropriate.

(3) Class 3: (i) Diagnose instrument malfunctions of the following instruments:

(A) Turn and bank indicators. (B) Directional gyros. (C) Horizon gyros. (D) Auto pilot control units and components.

(ii) Inspect, test, and calibrate instruments listed under paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this IS on and off the aircraft, as appropriate.

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(4) Class 4: (i) Diagnose instrument malfunctions of the following instruments.

(A) Capacitance-type quantity gauge. (B) Laser gyros. (C) Other electronic instruments.

(ii) Inspect, test, and calibrate instruments listed under paragraph (f)(4)(i) of this IS on and off the aircraft, as appropriate.

(g) Accessory rating: (1) Class 1, 2, 3, and 4:

(i) Perform the following functions in accordance with the manufacturers specifications and recommendations: (A) Diagnose accessory malfunctions. (B) Maintain and alter accessories, including installing and

replacing parts. (C) Inspect, test, and calibrate accessories on and off the

aircraft as appropriate.

APPENDIX 1 TO 6.075 HOUSING AND FACILITY REQUIREMENTS

(a) For ongoing maintenance of aircraft, aircraft hangars shall be available and large enough to accommodate aircraft during maintenance activities.

(b) Where the hangar is not owned by the AMO, it is recommended to: (1) Establish proof of tenancy; (2) Demonstrate sufficiency of hangar space to carry out planned base

maintenance by preparing a projected aircraft hangar visit plan relative to the maintenance program;

(3) Update the aircraft hangar visit plan on a regular basis; (4) Ensure, for aircraft component maintenance, aircraft component

workshops are large enough to accommodate the components on planned maintenance;

(5) Ensure aircraft hangar and aircraft component workshop structures prevent the ingress of rain, hail, ice, snow, wind and dust, etc.;

(6) Ensure workshop floors are sealed to minimise dust generation; and (7) Demonstrate access to hangar accommodation for usage during

inclement weather for minor scheduled work and/or lengthy defect rectification.

(c) Aircraft maintenance staff shall be provided with an area where they may study maintenance instructions and complete maintenance records in a proper manner.

Note: It is acceptable to combine any or all of the above requirements into one office subject to the staff having sufficient room to carry out assigned tasks.

(d) Hangars used to house aircraft together with office accommodation shall be such as to insure a clean, effective and conformable working environment.

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(1) Temperatures should be maintained at a comfortable level. (2) Dust and any other airborne contamination should be kept to a

minimum and not permitted to reach a level in the work task area where visible aircraft/component surface contamination is evident.

(3) Lighting should be such as to ensure each inspection and maintenance task can be carried out.

(4) Noise levels should not be permitted to rise to the point of distracting personnel from carrying out inspection tasks. Where it is impractical to control the noise source, such personnel should be provided with the necessary personal equipment to stop excessive noise causing distraction during inspection tasks.

(e) Where a particular maintenance task requires the application of specific environmental conditions different to the foregoing, then such conditions shall be observed. (Specific conditions are identified in the approved maintenance instructions.)

(f) Where the working environment for line maintenance deteriorates to an unacceptable level with respect to temperature, moisture, hail, ice, snow, wind, light, dust/other airborne contamination; the particular maintenance or inspection tasks shall be suspended until satisfactory conditions are re- established.

(g) For both base and line maintenance where dust or other airborne contamination results in visible surface contamination, all susceptible systems shall be sealed until acceptable conditions are re-established.

(h) Storage facilities for serviceable aircraft components shall be clean, well ventilated and maintained at an even dry temperature to minimise the effects of condensation.

(i) Manufacturer and standards recommendations shall be followed for specific aircraft components.

(j) Storage racks shall provide sufficient support for large aircraft components such that the component is not distorted.

(k) All aircraft components, wherever practicable, shall remain packaged in protective material to minimise damage and corrosion during storage.

APPENDIX 1 TO 6.080 EQUIPMENT, TOOLS, AND MATERIAL

(a) All applicable tools, equipment, and test equipment used for product acceptance and/or for making a finding of airworthiness shall be traceable to the Standards approved by the Authority.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (a), in the case of foreign manufactured tools, equipment, and test equipment, the standard provided by the county of manufacture may be used if approved by the Authority.

(c) Where the manufacturer specifies a particular tool, equipment, or test equipment then that tool, equipment, or test equipment shall be used unless the manufacturer has identified the use of an equivalent.

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(d) Except as provided in paragraph (c), tools, equipment, or test equipment other than that recommended by the manufacturer will be acceptable based on at least the following: (1) The AMO shall have a procedure in the Maintenance Procedure

Manual if it intends to use equivalent tools, equipment, or test equipment other than that recommended by the manufacturer.

(2) The AMO shall have a program to include: (i) A description of the procedures used to establish the

competence of personnel that make the determination of equivalency to tools, equipment, or test equipment.

(ii) Conducting and documenting the comparison made between the specification of the tool, equipment or test equipment recommended by the manufacturer and the equivalent tool, equipment, or test equipment proposed.

(iii) Ensuring that the limitations, parameters, and reliability of the proposed tool, equipment, or test equipment are equivalent to the manufacturer’s recommended tools, equipment, or test equipment.

(iv) Ensuring that the equivalent tool, equipment, or test equipment is capable of performing the appropriate maintenance function, all normal tests, or calibrations, and checking all parameters of the aircraft or aeronautical product undergoing maintenance or calibration.

(3) The AMO shall have full control of the equivalent tool, equipment, or test equipment (i.e. ownership, lease, etc.).

(e) An AMO approved for base maintenance shall have sufficient aircraft access equipment and inspection platforms/docking such that the aircraft may be properly inspected.

(f) The AMO shall have a procedure to inspect/service and, where appropriate, calibrate tools, equipment, and test equipment on a regular basis and indicate to users that an item is within any inspection or service or calibration time limit.

(g) The AMO shall have a procedure if it uses a standard (primary, secondary or transfer standards) for performing calibration, that standard cannot be used to perform maintenance.

(h) A clear system of labelling all tooling, equipment, and test equipment shall be used to give information on when the next inspection or service or calibration is due, and if the item is unserviceable for any other reason where it may not be obvious.

(i) A clear system of labelling all tooling, equipment, and test equipment shall be used to give information on when such tooling, equipment, and test equipment is not used for product acceptance and/or for making a finding of airworthiness.

(j) A register shall be maintained for all calibrated tools, equipment and test equipment together with a record of calibrations and standards used.

(k) Inspection, service, or calibration on a regular basis shall be in accordance with the equipment manufacturers’ instructions except where the AMO can show by results that a different time period is appropriate in a particular case and is acceptable to the Authority.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 6.085 PERSONNEL REQUIREMENTS

(a) The AMO functions shall be subdivided under individual managers or combined in any number of ways, dependent upon the size of the AMO.

(b) The AMO shall have, dependent upon the extent of approval, the following: (1) A base maintenance manager; (2) A line maintenance manager; (3) A workshop manager and a quality manager, all of whom should

report to the accountable manager. Note: In small AMOs, one or more of the above positions may be combined subject to approval by the Authority.

(c) The Accountable Manager shall be responsible for ensuring that all necessary resources are available to accomplish maintenance required to support the AMO’s approval.

(d) The Base Maintenance Manager shall be responsible for: (1) Ensuring that all maintenance required to be carried out in the

hangar, plus any defect rectification carried out during base maintenance, is carried out to specified design and quality standards; and

(2) Any corrective action resulting from quality compliance monitoring.

(e) The Line Maintenance Manager shall be responsible for: (1) Ensuring that all maintenance required to be carried out on the

line, including line defect rectification, is performed to the required standards; and

(2) Any corrective action resulting from quality compliance monitoring.

(f) The Workshop Manager shall be responsible for: (1) Ensuring that all work on aircraft components is performed to

required standards; and (2) Any corrective action resulting from quality compliance

monitoring. (g) The Quality Manager shall be responsible for:

(1) Monitoring the AMO’s compliance with this Schedule; and (2) Requesting remedial action as necessary by the base

maintenance manager/line maintenance manager/workshop manager or the accountable manager, as appropriate.

(h) The AMO may adopt any title for managerial positions, but shall identify to the Authority the titles and persons chosen to carry out these functions.

(i) Where an AMO chooses to appoint managers for all or any combination of the identified functions because of the size of the undertaking, these managers shall report ultimately through either the Base Maintenance Manager or Line Maintenance Manager or Workshop Manager or Quality Manager, as appropriate, to the accountable manager.

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(j) The managers specified in this subsection shall be identified and their credentials submitted to the Authority. To be accepted, such managers shall have relevant knowledge and satisfactory experience related to aircraft/aircraft component maintenance as appropriate in accordance with these regulations.

Note: Certifying staff may report to any of the managers specified depending upon which type of control the AMO uses (for example-licenced engineers, independent inspection/dual function supervisors, etc.) so long as the quality compliance monitoring staff remain independent.

(k) The AMO shall have a production man-hours plan showing that it has sufficient man-hours for the intended work.

(l) If an AMO is approved for base maintenance, the plan shall relate to the aircraft hangar visit plan.

(m) Man-hour plans shall regularly be updated. Note: Work performed on any aircraft registered outside The Bahamas

should be taken into account where it impacts upon the production man- hours plan.

(n) Quality monitoring compliance function man-hours shall be sufficient to meet the requirement of 6.6.1.2(b).

(o) Planners, mechanics, supervisors and certifying staff shall be assessed for competence by “on the job” evaluation or by examination relevant to their particular role within the AMO before unsupervised work is permitted.

(p) To assist in the assessment of competence, job descriptions are recommended for each position. The assessment shall establish that: (1) Planners are able to interpret maintenance requirements into

maintenance tasks, and have an appreciation that they have no authority to deviate from the aircraft maintenance program.

(2) Mechanics are able to carry out maintenance tasks to any standard specified in the maintenance instructions and will notify supervisors of mistakes requiring rectification to re-establish required maintenance standards.

(3) Supervisors are able to ensure that all required maintenance tasks are carried out and where not done or where it is evident that a particular maintenance task cannot be carried out to the maintenance instructions, then such problems will be reported to and agreed by the quality organization.

(4) Certifying staff are able to determine when the aircraft or aircraft component is and is not ready to return to service.

(q) In the case of planners, supervisors, and certifying staff, knowledge of AMO procedures relevant to their particular role shall be demonstrated.

(r) Training of certifying staff shall be performed by the AMO or by an institute selected by the AMO. In either case, the AMO shall establish the curriculum and standards for training, as well as pre-qualification standards for the personnel intended for training. Pre-qualification standards are intended to insure that the trainee has a reasonable chance of successfully completing any course.

(s) Examinations shall be set at the end of each training course.

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(t) Initial training shall cover: (1) Basic engineering theory relevant to the airframe structure and

systems fitted to the class of aircraft the AMO intends to maintain; (2) Specific information on the actual aircraft type on which the person is

intended to become a certifying person including the impact of repairs and system/structural defects; and

(3) Company procedures relevant to the certifying staff’s tasks. (u) Continuation training should cover changes in AMO procedures and

changes in the standard of aircraft and/or aeronautical products maintained. (v) The training program shall include details of the number of personnel who

will receive initial training to qualify as certifying staff over specified time periods.

(w) The training program established for maintenance personnel and certifying staff by the AMO shall include training in knowledge and skills related to human performance including co-ordination with other maintenance personnel and flight crew.

APPENDIX 1 TO 6.090 RECORDS OF CERTIFYING STAFF

(a) The following minimum information shall be kept on record in respect of each certifying person: (1) Name; (2) Date of birth; (3) Basic training; (4) Type training; (5) Continuation training; (6) Experience; (7) Qualifications relevant to the approval; (8) Scope of the authorization; (9) Date of first issue of the authorization; (10) Expiration date of the authorization (if appropriate); (11) Identification number of the authorization.

(b) Records of certifying staff shall be controlled, but not necessarily run by the AMO’s quality department.

(c) The number of persons authorised to access the system shall be limited to minimise the possibility of records being altered in an unauthorised manner and to limit confidential records from become accessible to unauthorised persons.

(d) A certifying person shall be given reasonable access on request to his or her records.

(e) The Authority is authorised to and may investigate the records system for initial and continued approval, or when the Authority has cause to doubt the competence of a particular certifying person.

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(f) The AMO shall keep the record of a certifying person for at least two years after that person has ceased employment with the AMO or upon withdrawal of his or her authorization. Upon request, the certifying staff shall be furnished with a copy of their record on leaving the AMO.

(g) The authorization document shall be in a style that makes its scope clear to certifying staff and any authorised person that may be required to examine the document. Where codes are used to define scope, an interpretation document shall be readily available.

(h) Certifying staff are not required to carry the authorization document at all times but shall produce it within a reasonable time of a request from an authorised person.

Note: Authorised persons, apart from the AMO’s quality department or maintenance supervisors/managers, include the Authority.

APPENDIX 1 TO 6.095 CONTENTS OF A MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATION

PROCEDURES MANUAL (i) The AMO shall provide a Maintenance Procedures Manual for use by the

organization, containing the following information — (1) A general description of the scope of work authorized under the

organization’s operations specifications; (2) A description of the organization’s procedures, acceptable to the

Authority, to ensure good maintenance practices and compliance with all relevant requirements;

(3) A description of the independent quality assurance system to monitor compliance with and adequacy of the procedures (or a system of inspection to ensure that maintenance is properly performed, to include procedures for self-evaluations, including methods and frequency of such evaluations, and procedures for reporting results to the accountable manager for review and action;

(4) A general description of the organization’s facilities; (5) The names and duties of the management person or persons whose

responsibilities included ensuring that the maintenance organization is in compliance with the requirements for an approved maintenance organization, to include an organization chart showing associated chains of responsibility of the management personnel. (The current list of the titles and names of the management personnel accepted by the Authority may be separate from the Procedures Manual but must be kept current and available for review by the Authority when requested);

(6) A description of the procedures used to establish the competence of maintenance personnel;

(7) A description of the method used for the completion and retention of maintenance records to show that all requirements for the signing of a return to service have been met;

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(8) A procedure to establish and maintain a current roster of certifying personnel;

Note: Any list required for the contents of the manual which changes regularly may be separate from the procedures manual but must be kept current and available for review by the Authority when requested. (9) A description of the procedure for preparing the return to service and

the circumstances under which the release is to be signed; (10) The personnel authorized to sign the release and the scope of their

authorization; (11) A description of the additional procedures for complying with an

operator’s maintenance procedures and requirements; (12) A description of the procedures for complying with the service

information reporting requirements of Schedule 5; (13) A description of the procedure for receiving, amending and distributing

within the maintenance organization all necessary airworthiness data from the type certificate holder or type design organization;

(14) A statement signed by the accountable manager confirming that the maintenance organization Procedures Manual and any associated manuals define the AMO’s compliance with this regulation and will be complied with at all times;

(15) A list which describes the duties and responsibility of the management personnel and which matters on which they may deal directly with the Authority on behalf of the AMO;

(16) A description of the procedures used to establish the competence of maintenance personnel;

(17) A general description of manpower resources; (18) A description of the method used for the completion and retention of

the maintenance records; (19) A description of the procedure for preparing the return to service and

the circumstances under which the release is to be signed; (20) A general description of the facilities located at each address specified

in the AMO’s approval certificate; (21) The notification procedure for AMO to use when requesting the approval

of changes to the organization of the AMO from the Authority; (22) The amendment procedure for the AMO procedures manual, including

the submission to the Authority; (23) A list of operators, if appropriate, to which the AMO provides an

aircraft maintenance service; (24) A list of organizations performing maintenance on behalf of the

AMO; and (25) The AMO shall specify in the Procedures Manual who should amend

the manual, particularly in the case where the manual consists of several parts.

(26) The maintenance procedures covering all aspects of how aircraft components may be accepted from outside sources and how aircraft will be maintained to the required standard;

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APPENDIX 1 TO 6.120 CERTIFICATION OF RETURN TO SERVICE

(a) A return to service is required for the following: (1) Before flight at the completion of any package of maintenance

scheduled by the approved aircraft maintenance program on the aircraft, whether such maintenance took place as base or line maintenance.

Note: Only in exceptional cases may scheduled maintenance be deferred and then only in accordance with procedures specified in the AMO’s procedures manual. In all cases, the AMO must provide the owner/operator with a list of any uncorrected defects that may exist. (2) Before flight at the completion of any defect rectification, while the

aircraft operates between scheduled maintenance. (3) At the completion of any maintenance on an aircraft component when

off the aircraft. (b) The return to service shall contain the following statement: “Certifies that

the work specified except as otherwise specified was carried out in accordance with current regulations and in respect to that work the aircraft/aircraft component is considered ready for return to service”.

(c) The return to service shall reference the data specified in the manufacturer’s or air carrier operator’s instructions or the aircraft maintenance program which itself may cross-reference to a manufacturer’s instruction in a maintenance manual, service bulletin, etc.

(d) Where instructions include a requirement to insure that a dimension or test figure is within a specific tolerance as opposed to a general tolerance, the dimension or test figure shall be recorded unless the instruction permits the use of GO/NO gauges. It is not normally sufficient to state that the dimension or the test figure is within tolerance.

(e) The date such maintenance was carried out shall include when the maintenance took place relative to any life or overhaul limitation in terms of date/flying hours/cycles/landings, etc., as appropriate.

(f) When extensive maintenance has been carried out, it is acceptable for the return to service to summarise the maintenance as long as there is a cross- reference to the work-pack containing full details of maintenance carried out. Dimensional information shall be retained in the work-pack record.

(g) The person issuing the return to service shall use a full signature and preferably a certification stamp except in the case where a computer return to service system is used. In this latter case, the Authority will need to be satisfied that only the particular person can electronically issue the return to service.

Note: One such method of compliance is the use of a magnetic or optical personal card in conjunction with a personal identity number (PIN) which is keyed into the computer and known only to the individual.

Note: An example of a model return to service is shown below. Not intended to be used as an import or export tag.

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1. The Bahamas

2. CAA FORM 308 Airworthiness Approval Tag Civil Aviation Administration

3. Systems Tracking Ref., No.

4. Organization Name and Address: 5. Work Order, Contract or Invoice Number

6. Item 7. Descrip- tion

8. Part Num- ber

9. Eligibility 10. Quantity

11. Serial/ Batch Number

12. Status/ Work

13. Remarks It is important to understand that the existence of this Document alone does not automatically constitute authority to install the part/component/assembly. Where the user/installer work in accordance with the national regulations of an Airworthiness Authority different than the Airworthiness Authority of the country specified in block 1 it is essential that the user/installer ensures that his/her Airworthiness Authority accepts parts/components/assemblies from the Airworthiness Authority of the country specified in block 1. Statement in block 14 and 19 do not constitute installation certification. In all cases aircraft maintenance records must contain an installation certification issued in accordance with the national regulations by the user/installer before the aircraft may be flown. Limited life parts must be accomplished by maintenance history including total time/total cycles/time since new 14. Return to Service in Accordance with BANR Schedule 5 Certifies that the work specified in block 13 (or attached) above was carried out in accordance with CAA airworthiness regulations and In respect to the work performed the part(s) is (are) approved for return to service. 16. Authorised Signature:

16. Certificate Number: 17. Name (Typed or Printed):

18. Date

CAA AAT (12/00)

LINE-BY-LINE INSTRUCTIONS FOR COMPLETION OF MODEL MO CAA FORM AAT: (a) Block 1. The Bahamas (Pre-printed) (b) Block 2. CAA 308, Airworthiness Approval Tag, and Civil Aviation

Administration. (Pre-printed) (c) Block 3. System Tracking Reference Number.

(1) Fill in the unique number established by the CAA-approved numbering system.

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(2) If the form is computer-generated, it may be produced as programmed by the computer.

Shippers must establish a numbering system for traceability in order to fill out block 3 of the form. This system must also provide a means of cross- referencing the number(s) and product(s) being shipped.

(d) Block 4. Organization. (1) Fill in the full name and address of the CAA-approved organization or

individual shipping the product(s)/part(s) as applicable: (i) Company name and address. (ii) Production Approval Holder (PAH) approval or certificate

numbers, when applicable (e.g., production certificate number, approved maintenance organization certificate numbers, air operator certificate number).

(2) When a supplier has direct ship authorization from a PAH, the following information should be entered:

(i) PAH name and address. (ii) PAH approval or certificate number. (iii) c/o Supplier name and address. NOTE: If an individual product/part is produced as a spare by a supplier,

the supplier must have either direct ship authority or hold a production approval (PMA/TSO authorization) for all products/parts shipped. If the supplier holds its own production approval, and the products/parts were manufactured and are being shipped under that approval, the information required in paragraph (1) above should be listed.

(e) Block 5. Work Order, Contract, or Invoice Number (1) Fill in the contract, work order, or invoice number related to the

shipment list, or return to service, and state the number of pages attached to the form, including dates, if applicable. If the shipment list contains the information required in Blocks 6 through 12, the respective blocks may be left blank if an original, or true copy, of the list is attached to the form. In this case, the following statement should be entered in Block 13: “This is the certification statement for the products/parts listed on the attached document dated _______, containing pages ______ through ________.”

(2) In addition, the shipment list must cross-reference the number located in Block 3. The shipment list may contain more than one item; but it is the responsibility of the shipper to determine if the CAA of the importing jurisdiction will accept bulk shipments under a single Model CAA Form [AAT]. If the CAA does not permit bulk shipments under a single form, Blocks 6 through 12 of each form must be filled in for each product shipped.

(f) Block 6. Item. When Model CAA Form AAT is issued a single item number or multiple item numbers may be used for the same part number. Multiple items should be numbered in sequence. If a separate listing is used, enter “List Attached”.

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NOTE: The blank form can be computer-generated. However, the format cannot be changed, nor can any words be added or deleted. Pre-printing of some information is permissible, i.e.; the information in blocks 1, 2, 3, 4, 14, and 19. The size of blocks may be varied slightly, but the form must remain readily recognisable. The form may also be reduced in overall size to facilitate placement of the wording on the back of the form onto the face of the document.

(g) Block 7. Description. Enter the name or description of the product/part as shown on the design data. For products/parts that do not have design data available, the name as referenced in a part catalog, overhaul manual, etc., can be used.

(h) Block 8. Part Number. Enter each part number of the product. (i) Block 9. Eligibility. State the aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller make and

model on which the PMA part is eligible for installation. If a part is eligible for installation on more than one model enter the words “to be verified by installer or TBV by installer”. Where parts are TSO articles, state “TSO Article N/A” since eligibility for installation for TSO articles is determined at the time of installation. NOTE: For TSO articles CAA Model Form [AAT] does not constitute authority to install a product on a particular aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller. The user or installer is responsible for confirming that the product is eligible for installation by reference to overhaul manuals, service bulletins, etc., as applicable. While the information in Block 9 is optional, it should be filled out whenever possible. When using CAA Model Form [AAT] for CONFORMITY of certification program products, enter N/A.

(j) Block 10. Quantity. State the quantity of each product/part shipped. NOTE: If a PAH or their inventory facilities require a Form 8130-3 for individual products/parts of a later date, the procedures in paragraph 8c of this order should be used.

(k) Block 11. Serial/Batch Number. State the serial number or equivalent (identified on the part) on the form for each product/part shipped. If a serial number or equivalent is not required on the part, enter “N/A”.

(l) Block 12. Status/work. Enter “Newly Overhauled” for those products that have not been operated or placed in service since overhaul. Enter “PROTOTYPE” for products/parts submitted to support type certification programs. Other permissible/appropriate terms to describe the status of the product/part are: “INSPECTED”, “REPAIRED”, “REBUILT”, or “ALTERED”.

(m) Block 13. Remarks. Enter any information or references to support documentation necessary for the user or installer to make a final determination of airworthiness of the products/parts listed in Block 7. Each statement must specify which item identified in Block 6 is related. Examples of information to be supplied are as follows: (1) Any restrictions (e.g., prototype only). (2) Alternative approved part number. (3) Compliance or non-compliance with airworthiness directives or

service bulletins. (4) Information on life-limited parts.

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(5) Manufacturing, cure, or shelf-life data. (6) Drawing and revision level. (7) When used for conformity the word “CONFORMITY” must be

entered in capital letters. In addition, an explanation of the products/parts use, e.g., pending approved data, TC pending, for test only, etc., should be provided. Information concerning a conformity inspection such as design data, revision level, date, project number, should also be provided.

(8) When used for spare parts identify whether the parts are PMA, TSO authorised. In addition, if the CAA Model Form [AAT] is for spare parts or sub components of an CAA approved modification or replacement part, the PMA or TSO authorization should be listed in Block 13.

(9) When used for return to service this block should contain the data required by Schedule. If other documents such as work orders or travellers, CAA Model Form in accordance with Model regulation IS 6.4.1.8, Return to Service Form, are used by the certificate holders to comply with Schedule 5, they should be specifically referenced in this block and be cross-referenced.

(n) Block 14. Return to Service. The information is already pre-printed in the block.

(o) Block 16. Signature. Signature of the individual authorised by the air agency, air carrier, or the manufacturer in accordance with 6.6.1.5 (a)(2), (3), and (4). The approval signature shall be manually applied at the time and place of issuance.

(p) Block 16. Certificate number. Enter the air agency or air carrier operating certificate number. For manufacturers returning to service after rebuilding products/parts the production approval number should be entered.

(q) Block 17. Name. The typed or printed name of the individual identified in Block 20.

(r) Block 18. Date. The date the Model CAA Form [AAT] is signed and the product are returned to service. This does not need to be the same as the shipping date, which may occur at a later date.

APPENDIX 1 TO 6.130 AIRWORTHINESS DATA

(a) The AMO shall be in receipt of all airworthiness data appropriate to support the work performed from the Authority, the aircraft/aeronautical product design organization, and any other approved design organization in the State of Manufacture or State of Design, as appropriate. Some examples of maintenance-related documents are: (1) Civil Aviation Regulations; (2) Associated advisory material; (3) Airworthiness directives; (4) Manufacturers’ maintenance manuals; (5) Repair manuals; (6) Supplementary structural inspection documents; (7) Service bulletins;

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(8) Service letters; (9) Service instructions; (10) Modification leaflets; (11) Aircraft maintenance program; (12) NDT Manual, etc. Note: Paragraph (a) primarily refers to maintenance data that has been transcribed from the Authority and all Type Certificate (TC) holders into the AMO’s format, such as customised maintenance cards or computer base data. Note: To obtain acceptance from the Authority, it is important that accuracy of transcription is assured.

(b) A procedure shall be established to monitor the amendment status of all data and maintain a check that all amendments are being received by being a subscriber to any document amendment scheme.

(c) Airworthiness data shall be made available in the work area in close proximity to the aircraft or aeronautical product being maintained and for supervisors, mechanics, and certifying staff to study.

(d) Where computer systems are used to maintain airworthiness data, the number of computer terminals shall be sufficient in relation to the size of the work program to enable easy access, unless the computer system can produce paper copies. Where microfilm or microfiche readers/printers are used, a similar requirement is applicable.

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SCHEDULE 7 REQUIRED INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT

SUBPART A: GENERAL 7.001 Applicability 7.005 Definitions (Reserved) 7.010 Acronyms 7.015 General Instrument and Equipment Requirements SUBPART B: AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT 7.020 Power Supply, Distribution, and Indication System 7.025 Engine Instruments — All Flights 7.030 Flight Instruments — All Flights 7.035 Flight Instruments — IFR and Controlled Flight 7.040 Instruments for Operations Requiring Two Pilots 7.045 Standby Altitude Indicator — Commercial Air Transport 7.050 System Requirements for IFR 7.055 AutoPilot 7.060 IFR Helicopter Stabilization System for Commercial Air Transport 7.065 Equipment for Night Flights 7.067 Equipment for Special Altimetry Accuracy (RVSM) 7.070 Windshield Wipers 7.075 Flight in Icing Conditions 7.080 Weather Radar — Commercial Air Transport 7.085 Special Seaplane Equipment SUBPART C: COMMUNICATIONS AND NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT 7.095 Radio Communication Equipment — General 7.100 Radio Communication Equipment — Commercial Air Transport 7.105 Boom Microphone — Commercial Air Transport 7.110 Altitude Reporting Transponder 7.115 Navigation Equipment — General 7.120 Special Navigation Accuracy (RNP and MNPS) 7.125 Navigation Equipment — IFR Approach SUBPART D: WARNING EQUIPMENT AND INDICATORS 7.130 Warning Systems — General 7.135 Landing Gear Aural Warning Device 7.140 Altitude Alerting System 7.145 Ground Proximity Warning System 7.150 Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS) 7.155 Forward Looking Wind Shear Warning System — TurboJet Aircraft 7.160 Radiation Indicator — Commercial Air Transport SUBPART E: RECORDERS 7.165 Flight Data and Voice Recorders — General 7.170 Flight Deck Voice Recorders 7.175 Flight Data Recorders

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SUBPART F: CREW PROTECTION EQUIPMENT 7.178 Security of the Flight Deck 7.180 Flight Crew Safety Harness 7.181 Quick Donning Type Oxygen Mask 7.182 Cabin Crew Seats and Safety Harness 7.183 Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE) SUBPART G: PASSENGER RELATED EQUIPMENT 7.185 Passenger Seats and Seat Belts 7.190 Passenger Information 7.195 Public Address System 7.200 Interphone Systems 7.205 Megaphones — Commercial Air Transport 7.210 Emergency Exits 7.215 Passenger Compartment And Exits 7.220 Materials for Cabin Interiors 7.225 Materials for Cargo and Baggage Compartments 7.230 Emergency Lighting System SUBPART H: EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT 7.235 Emergency Equipment: All Aircraft 7.240 First Aid Kit 7.245 Medical Kit — Commercial Air Transport 7.250 Portable Fire Extinguishers 7.255 Lavatory Fire Extinguisher 7.260 Lavatory Smoke Detector 7.265 Crash Axe — Commercial Air Transport 7.270 Oxygen Storage and Dispensing Apparatus 7.273 Individual Flotation Devices 7.275 Life Rafts 7.280 Survival Kit 7.285 Devices for Emergency Signaling 7.290 Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) 7.295 Helicopter Emergency Flotation Means 7.300 Marking of Break-In Points 7.305 First-Aid Oxygen Dispensing Units

APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 7.175: Parameters for Flight Deck Recorders Appendix 1 to 7.210: Emergency Exit Equipment Appendix 1 to 7.270: Supplemental Oxygen — Non-Pressurized Aircraft Appendix 2 to 7.270: Supplemental Oxygen — Pressurized Aircraft

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SUBPART A GENERAL

7.001 APPLICABILITY (a) This section outlines the instruments and equipment requirements that pertain

to all domestic and international flight operations of Bahamian-registered aircraft and all aircraft operated in commercial air transport by the holder of an Air Operator Certificate issued by The Bahamas.

7.005 DEFINITIONS (RESERVED) 7.010 ACRONYMS (a) The following acronyms are used in this Schedule:

(1) AOC — Air Operator Certificate (2) DME — Distance Measuring Equipment (3) ELT — Emergency Locator Transmitter (4) ILS — Instrument Landing System (5) IFR — Instrument Flight Rules (6) IMC — Instrument Meteorological Conditions (7) MEL — Minimum Equipment List (8) MNPS — Minimal Navigation Performance Specifications (9) PBE — Protective Breathing Equipment (10) RVSM — Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (11) SSR — Secondary Surveillance Radar (12) VFR — Visual Flight Rules (13) VMC — Visual Conditions (14) VOR — VHF Omnidirectional Range

7.015 GENERAL INSTRUMENT AND EQUIPMENT REQUIREMENTS (a) All aircraft shall be equipped with instruments which will enable the flight crew

to — (1) Control the flight path of the aircraft; (2) Carry out any required manoeuvres; and (3) Observe the operating limitations of the aircraft in the expected

operating conditions. (b) In addition to the minimum equipment for the issuance of a certificate of

airworthiness, the land instruments and equipment prescribed in this Schedule shall be installed or carried, as appropriate, in aircraft according to the aircraft used and to the circumstances under which the flight is to be conducted.

(c) All required instruments and equipment shall be approved and installed in accordance with applicable airworthiness requirements.

(d) Prior to operation in The Bahamas of any aircraft not registered in The Bahamas that uses an airworthiness inspection program approved or accepted by the State of Registry, the owner/operator shall ensure that instruments and

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equipment required by The Bahamas but not installed in the aircraft are properly installed and inspected in accordance with the requirements of the State of Registry.

(e) No flight shall be allowed to commence unless the required equipment — (1) Meets the minimum performance standard and the operational and

airworthiness requirements of all relevant standards, including Annex 10, Volume I of the International Civil Aviation Organization;

(2) Is installed such that the failure of any single unit required for either communication or navigation purposes, or both, will not result in the inability to communicate and/or navigate safely on the route being flown; and

(3) Is in operable condition for the kind of operation being conducted, except as provided in the MEL.

(f) If equipment is to be used by one flight crew member at his station during flight, it shall be installed so as to be readily operable from his or her station.

(g) When a single item of equipment is required to be operated by more than one flight crew member, it shall be installed so that the equipment is readily operable from any station at which the equipment is required to be operated.

(h) The aircraft shall be equipment with spare fuses and bulbs of appropriate ratings for the replacement of those accessible in flight. There shall be three spares for each specific rating and type of fuses and bulbs.

SUBPART B AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT

7.020 POWER SUPPLY, DISTRIBUTION, AND INDICATION SYSTEM (a) No person may operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with —

(1) A power supply and distribution system that meets the airworthiness requirements for certification of an aeroplane in the applicable category, as specified by the Authority; or

(2) For large and turbine powered aircraft, a power supply and distribution system that is able to produce and distribute the load for the required instruments and equipment, with use of an external power supply if any one power source or component of the power distribution system fails. Note: The use of common elements in the power system may be approved if the Authority finds that they are designed to be reasonably protected against malfunctioning.

(3) A means for indicating the adequacy of the power being supplied to required flight instruments.

(b) For large and turbine powered aircraft, engine-driven sources of energy, when used, shall be on separate engines.

7.025 ENGINE INSTRUMENTS — ALL FLIGHTS (a) No person may operate an aircraft in flight unless it is equipped with —

(1) A tachometer for each engine;

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(2) An oil pressure gauge for each engine using pressure system; (3) A temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled system; (4) An oil temperature gauge for each air-cooled system; (5) A manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine; and (6) A means for indicating the fuel quantity in each tank to be used.

(b) For commercial air transport, no person may operate a reciprocating engine aircraft with a maximum gross weight of more than 5700 kg max takeoff mass unless it also is equipped with —

(1) A device for each reversible propeller, in indicate to the pilot when the propeller is in reverse pitch: (i) The device may be actuated at any point in the reversing cycle between

the normal low pitch stop position and full reverse pitch, but it may not give an indication at or above the normal low pitch stop position.

(ii) The source of indication shall be actuated by the propeller blade angle or be directly responsive to it.

(2) A carburettor air temperature indicator for each engine; (3) A cylinder head temperature indicator for each air-cooled engine; (4) A fuel pressure indicator for each engine; (5) A fuel flow meter and oil quantity indicator for each oil-tank when a

transfer or separate oil reserve supply is used; (6) An oil-in temperature indicator for each engine; (7) An independent fuel pressure warning device for each engine or a master

warning device for all engines with a means for isolating the individual warning circuits from the master warning device.

(c) The Authority may allow or require different instrumentation for turbine engine powered aircraft to provide an equivalent level of safety.

7.030 FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS — ALL FLIGHTS (a) No person may operate an aircraft in flight unless it is equipped with —

(1) A magnetic compass; (2) An accurate clock indicating the time in hours, minutes and seconds; (3) A sensitive pressure altimeter calibrated in feet with sub-scale settings,

calibrated in hectopascals or millibars, adjustable for any barometric pressure likely to be set in flight; and

(4) An airspeed indicator calibrated in knots. (b) No person may operate an aeroplane with speed limitations expressed in terms

of Mach number unless there is a properly installed Mach number indicator. (c) Those flight instruments that are used by any one pilot shall be so arranged as

to permit that pilot to see the indications readily from their station, with the minimum practical deviation from the position and line of vision normally assumed when looking forward along the flight path.

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(d) When a means is provided for transferring an instrument from its primary operating system to an alternative system, the means shall include a positive positioning control and shall be marked to indicate clearly which system is being used.

7.035 FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS — IFR AND CONTROLLED FLIGHT (a) No person may operate an aircraft in IFR or controlled flight unless it is

equipped with — (1) A gyroscopic rate-of-turn indicator; (2) A slip-skid indicator; (3) An altitude indicator (artificial horizon); (4) A heading indicator (directional gyroscope); (5) Exception: The requirements of (2), (3) and (4) may be met by combinations

of instruments or integrated flight director systems provided that the safeguards against total failure in three separate instruments are retained;

(6) A vertical speed indicator; (7) For commercial air transport. A minimum of two sensitive pressure

altimeters with counter drum-pointer or equivalent presentation; (8) Exception: Commercial air transport single pilot operations in propeller

driven aircraft of less than 5700 kg max takeoff mass only require one sensitive pressure altimeter.

7.040 INSTRUMENTS FOR OPERATIONS REQUIRING TWO PILOTS (a) No person may operate an aircraft in operations requiring two pilots unless

each pilot’s station has the following flight instruments: (1) An airspeed indicator; (2) A sensitive press altimeter; (3) A vertical speed indicator; (4) A turn and slip indicator (or turn co-ordinator); (5) An altitude indicator; and (6) A stabilized direction indicator.

(b) The second-in-command’s flight instruments shall meet the same requirements for markings, indications and illumination as those required for the pilot-in- command.

7.045 STANDBY ALTITUDE INDICATOR — COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No person may operate the following aircraft in commercial air transport unless they are equipped with a standby altitude indicator: (1) An aircraft having a maximum certificated takeoff mass of more than 5700

kg; or (2) An aircraft having a maximum approved passenger configuration of more

than 9 passengers.

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(b) This standby altitude indicator shall — (1) Operate independently of any other altitude indicating system; (2) Be powered continuously during normal operation; (3) After a total failure of the normal electrical generating system, be

powered for a minimum of 30 minutes from a source independent of the normal electrical system; and

(4) Have an indication clearly evident to the flight crew when the emergency power source is being used.

(c) If this standby altitude indicator is usable through flight attitudes of 360 degrees of pitch and roll, it may be used as basis for not having a rate-of-turn gyroscopic instrument.

(d) Where the standby altitude indicator has its own dedicated power supply there shall be an associated indication, either on the instrument or on the instrument pane when this supply is in use.

7.050 SYSTEM REQUIREMENTS FOR IFR (a) No person may operate an aircraft in IFR without —

(1) An airspeed indicating system with a heated pilot tube or equivalent means of preventing malfunctions due to either condensation or icing;

(2) For commercial air transport: Two independent static pressure systems: (i) Exception: Propeller driven aircraft of less than 5700 kg max

takeoff mass may have one static pressure system which includes an alternate static source;

(3) A means of indicating whether the power supply to the gyroscopic instruments is adequate;

(4) A means of indicating in the flight crew compartment the outside air temperature; and

(5) An adequate source of electrical energy for all installed electrical and radio equipment, that for commercial air transport shall include — (i) For multi-engine aircraft, at least two generators or alternators each of

which is on a separate engine, of which any combination of one-half of the total number are rated sufficiently to supply the electrical loads of all required instruments and equipment necessary for safe emergency operation of the aircraft except that for multi-engine helicopters, the two required generators may be mounted on the main rotor drive train; and

(ii) Two independent sources of energy (with means of selecting either) of which at least one is an engine-driven pump or generator, each of which is able to drive all required gyroscopic instruments powered by, or to be powered by, that particular source and installed so that failure of one instrument or source, does not interfere with the energy supply to the remaining instruments or the other energy source unless, for single- engine aircraft in all cargo operations only, the rate of turn indicator has a source of energy separate from the bank and pitch and direction indicators.

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For the purpose of this paragraph, for multi-engine aircraft, each engine- driven source of energy must be on a different engine. For the purpose of this paragraph, a continuous inflight electrical load includes one that draws current continuously during flight, such as radio equipment, electrically driven instruments, and lights, but does not include occasional intermittent loads.

7.055 AUTOPILOT (a) No person may operate an aircraft above FL 290 unless that aircraft is equipped

with an autopilot capable of automatically maintaining a selected flight level. (b) No person may operate an aircraft in airspace for which minimum navigation

performance specifications are prescribed unless that aircraft is equipped with an autopilot capable of receiving and automatically tracking the selected navigational equipment inputs.

(c) For commercial air transport: No person may operate an aeroplane with a single pilot under IFR unless that aeroplane is equipped with an autopilot with at least altitude hold and heading mode.

7.060 IFR HELICOPTER STABILIZATION SYSTEM FOR COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No person may operate a helicopter in IFR commercial air transport operations without a stabilization system, unless that helicopter was certificated by the State of Manufacture as having adequate stability without such a system.

7.065 EQUIPMENT FOR NIGHT FLIGHTS (a) No person may operate an aircraft at night unless it is also equipped with

properly installed — (1) Aircraft navigation lights; (2) An anti-collision beacon; (3) A landing light [for helicopter operations, one landing light shall be

trainable in the vertical plane]; (4) Illumination for all instruments and equipment that are essential for the

safe operation of the aircraft by the flight crew; and (5) For commercial air transport operations

(iii) Lights in all passenger compartments; (iv) A flashlight at each crew member station; and (v) Two landing lights.

Note: Aeroplanes which are equipped with a single landing light having two separately energized filaments will be in compliance with the two landing light requirement.

7.067 EQUIPMENT FOR SPECIAL ALTIMETRY ACCURACY (RVSM) (a) No person may operate an aircraft in RVSM airspace unless the aircraft is

equipped with: (1) Two independent altitude reporting systems; (2) An altitude alerting systems; (3) An automatic altitude holding system; and

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(4) A transponder with altitude reporting capability which can be connected to altitude holding system.

7.070 WINDSHIELD WIPERS (a) No person may operate an aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff mass of

more than 5700 kg unless it is equipped at each pilot station with a windshield wiper or equivalent means to clear a portion of the windshield during precipitation.

7.075 FLIGHT IN ICING CONDITIONS (a) No person may operate an aircraft in icing conditions unless it is equipped with

suitable anti-icing or de-icing devices adequate for flight in the conditions that are reported to exist or are expected to be encountered.

(b) The anti-icing or de-icing equipment shall provide for prevention or removal of ice on windshield, wings, empennage, propellers and other parts of the airplane where ice formation will adversely affect the safety of the aircraft.

(c) No person may operate an airplane in expected or actual icing conditions at night unless it is equipped with a means to illuminate or detect the formation of ice. This illumination must be of a type that will not cause glare or reflections that would handicap crew members in the performance of their duties.

7.080 WEATHER RADAR — COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No person may operate an airplane having a maximum approved passenger seating of more than nine seats in commercial air transport unless it has an approved weather radar or thunderstorm detection device installed.

(b) No person may operate an airplane having a maximum certificated takeoff mass of more than 5700 kg in commercial air transport unless it has an approved weather radar installed.

(c) No person may begin a commercial air transport passenger flight under IFR or night VFR, when current weather reports indicate that thunderstorms or other potentially hazardous conditions than could be detected by the installed weather radar or thunderstorm detection device may reasonably be expected along the route, unless that equipment is operating satisfactorily.

(d) If the weather radar or thunderstorm detection device becomes inoperative on a commercial air transport passenger aircraft en route, the aircraft must be operated under the instructions and procedures specified in the AOC holder’s Operations Manual.

(e) An alternate electrical power supply is not required for the weather radar or thunderstorm detection device.

7.085 SPECIAL SEAPLANE EQUIPMENT (a) No person may operate a seaplane unless it is equipped with —

(1) An anchor; (2) A sea anchor (drogue), to assist in manoeuvring; and (3) An air horn for making the sound signals prescribed in the International

Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea. Note: “Seaplanes” includes amphibians operated as seaplanes.

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SUBPART C COMMUNICATIONS AND NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT

7.095 RADIO COMMUNICATION EQUIPMENT — GENERAL (a) No person may operate an aircraft that is not equipped with radio

communications equipment — (1) In controlled flight; (2) Under instrument flight rules; or (3) At night.

(b) The installed radio communications equipment shall be capable of conducting two-way radio communication — (1) With the appropriate air traffic control service; (2) On the assigned frequencies; and (3) On the aeronautical emergency frequency 121.5 Megahertz.

(c) Aircraft operated under instrument flight rules will have two independent methods of receiving communications from air traffic service.

(d) When more than one radio communications unit is required for the flight operation, each unit shall be independent of the other or others to the extent that a failure in any one will not result in failure of any other.

(e) No person may operate an aircraft in IFR operations requiring two pilots unless it is equipped with an audio selector panel accessible to both pilots.

(f) Each person operating an aircraft that does not have the required radio communication equipment shall obtain prior permission before operating in airspace requiring such equipment.

7.100 RADIO COMMUNICATION EQUIPMENT — COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No person may operate an aircraft in commercial air transport unless equipped with two independent radio communications equipment installations which, for the route and airspace flown, are capable of conducting two-way radio communication at any time during flight with — (1) At least one aeronautical station; and (2) Any other aeronautical stations and frequencies which may prescribed by

the appropriate authority. (b) No person may operate an aircraft in commercial air transport unless equipped

with radio communications equipment capable of receiving meteorological information at any time during the flight.

7.105 BOOM MICROPHONE — COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT (a) No person may operate an aircraft in commercial air transport unless there is a

boom or throat microphone available at each required flight crew member duty station.

(b) No person may operate an aircraft with a single pilot under IFR or at night in commercial air transport unless that aircraft is equipped with a headset with boom microphone or equivalent and a transmit button on the control wheel.

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7.110 ALTITUDE REPORTING TRANSPONDER (a) No person may operate an aircraft in airspace which requires a pressure altitude

reporting transponder unless that equipment is operative. (b) No person may operate an aircraft at altitudes above FL 290 unless it is

equipped with a system which is automatically reporting pressure altitudes. (c) For commercial air transport: No person may operate an aircraft in commercial

air transport unless is equipped with a pressure-altitude reporting transponder which operates in accordance with the requirements of the appropriate air traffic service requirements.

7.115 NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT — GENERAL (a) No person may operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with navigation

equipment which will enable it to proceed in accordance with — (1) The flight plan; (2) Prescribed RNP (required navigational performance) types; and (3) The requirements of air traffic services.

(b) Navigation under visual flight rules (VFR) may be accomplished without navigation equipment by visual reference to landmarks, if not precluded by the appropriate authority for the route and airspace.

(c) No person may operate an aircraft unless that aircraft is equipped with sufficient navigation equipment to ensure that, in the event of failure of one item of equipment at any stage of the flight, the remaining equipment will enable the aircraft to continue navigating in accordance with the requirements of this Article.

(d) Each radio navigation system shall have an independent antenna installation, except that, where rigidly supported non-wire antenna installations of equivalent reliability are used, only one antenna is required.

7.120 SPECIAL NAVIGATION ACCURACY (RNP AND MNPS) (a) For flights in defined portions of airspace where minimum navigation

performance specifications or required navigation performance (RNP) are prescribed, the navigational equipment shall continuously provide indications to the flight crew of the adherence to or departure from track to the required degree of accuracy at any point along that track.

(b) No person may operate an aircraft where MNPS are prescribed, unless it is equipped with: (1) For unrestricted operations, two independent long range navigation

systems; or (2) For notified special routes, one long range navigation system.

(c) The navigation equipment required for operations in MNPS airspace shall be visible and usable by either pilot seated at their duty stations.

7.125 NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT — IFR APPROACH (a) No person may operate an aircraft in situations which would require a

landing approach to an airport in instrument meteorological conditions unless that aircraft is equipped with the appropriate radio equipment required to accomplish the published instrument approach for the planned destination and alternate airports.

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(b) The navigation equipment installed on the aircraft will be capable of receiving signals providing guidance to a point from which a visual landing can be effected.

SUBPART D WARNING EQUIPMENT AND INDICATORS

7.130 WARNING SYSTEMS — GENERAL (a) No person may operate a turbojet aircraft unless it is equipped with an installed

aural mach overspeed warning. (b) Pressurized aeroplanes intended to be operate at flight altitudes at which the

atmospheric pressure is less than 376 hPa (25,000 ft) shall be equipped with a device to provide positive warning to the flight crew of any dangerous loss of pressurization.

(c) No person may operate an aircraft of more than 5700 kg certificated takeoff mass in commercial air transport without a means of indicating pitot heater failure.

7.135 LANDING GEAR AURAL WARNING DEVICE (a) No person may operate an aircraft with retractable landing gear unless it is

equipped with an aural warning device that functions continuously anytime the landing gear is not fully extended and locked and the wing-flap setting exceeds the position — (1) Specified in the AFM for maximum certificated approach climb configura-

tion; or (2) Where landing gear extension is normally performed.

(b) This warning system — (1) May not have a manual shutoff; (2) Must be in addition to the any throttle-actuated device; and (3) May utilize any part of the throttle-actuated device.

7.140 ALTITUDE ALERTING SYSTEM (a) No person may operate the following aircraft unless it is equipped with an

altitude alerting system: (1) A turbojet powered airplane; or (2) A turbine powered airplane —

(i) Having a maximum approved passenger seating of more than nine seats; or

(ii) With a certificated takeoff mass of more than 5700 kg. (b) The altitude alerting system will be capable of alerting the flight crew —

(1) Upon approaching a pre-selected altitude in either ascent or descent; and (2) By at least an aural signal, when deviating above or below a pre-selected

altitude. (c) The threshold for the alert shall not exceed plus or minus 90 m (300 ft).

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7.145 GROUND PROXIMITY WARNING SYSTEM (a) No person may operate turbine powered aircraft unless they are equipped with a

ground proximity warning system, if the aircraft has a maximum — (1) Approved passenger seating of more than nine seats; or (2) Certificated takeoff mass of more than 5700 kg. Note: In anticipation of changing international safety standards, the Authority recommends that all piston engine powered aeroplanes fitting this weight or passenger carrying description should also install a GPWS>

(b) The ground proximity warning system must automatically provide by means of aural signals, which may be supplemented by visual signals, timely and distinctive warning to the flight crew of: (1) excessive descent rate; (2) excessive terrain closure rate; (3) excessive altitude loss after takeoff or go-around; (4) unsafe terrain clearance while not in landing configuration:

(i) gear not locked down; (ii) flaps not in landing position; and

(5) excessive descent below the instrument glide path.

7.150 AIRBORNE COLLISION AVOIDANCE SYSTEM (ACAS) Note: In anticipation of changing international safety standards, the Authority recommends that all commercial air transport passenger aircraft be equipped with an ACAS.

(a) After 1 January 2003, no person may operate a turbine engine aeroplane with a maximum certificated takeoff mass in excess of 5700 kg or authorized to carry more than 30 passengers, unless it is equipped with an ACAS.

(b) After 1 January 2005, no person may operate a turbine engine aeroplane authorized to carry more than 19 passengers, unless it is equipped with an ACAS.

7.155 FORWARD LOOKING WIND SHEAR WARNING SYSTEM — TURBOJET AIRCRAFT

Note: In anticipation of changing international safety standards, the Authority recommends that commercial air transport turbojet aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of more than nine passengers be equipped with a forward looking wind shear warning system.

(a) This system should be capable of providing the pilot with an aural and visual warning of wind shear ahead of the aircraft and the information required to permit the pilot to safely commence and continue a missed approach or go- around or to execute an escape manoeuvre if necessary.

(b) This system should also provide an indication to the pilot when the limits specified for the certification of automatic landing equipment are being approached, when such equipment is in use.

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7.160 RADIATION INDICATOR — COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT (a) No person may operate an aeroplane above 15,000 m (49,000 ft) unless that

aircraft is equipped with equipment to measure and indicate continuously — (1) The dose rate of total cosmic radiation being received (i.e. the total of

ionizing and neutron radiation of galactic and solar origin; and (2) The cumulative dose on each flight.

(b) The display unit of the radiation equipment shall be readily visible to a flight crew member.

SUBPART E RECORDERS

7.165 FLIGHT DATA AND VOICE RECORDERS — GENERAL (a) The flight recorders shall be constructed, located and installed so as to provide

maximum practical protection for the recorders in order that the recorded information may be preserved, recovered and transcribed. To facilitate location and identification in case of an accident, the cockpit voice recorder shall — (1) Be constructed, located and installed so as to provide maximum practical

protection for the recordings in order that the recorded information may be preserved, recovered and transcribed;

(2) Be either bright orange or bright yellow; (3) Have reflective tape affixed to the external surface to facilitate its location

under water; and (4) Have an approved underwater locating device on or adjacent to the

recorder, which is secured in such a manner that it is not likely to be separated during a crash impact.

(b) Flight recorders shall — (1) Be calibrated as required by the Authority; and (2) Meet the prescribed crashworthiness and fire protection specifications.

(c) Flight recorders shall record in a digital mode. (d) An aircraft required to have both CVR and FDR may alternatively be equipped

with — (1) A single combination (CVR/FDR) recorder, for aircraft with a maximum

certificated takeoff mass of 5700 kg or less; or (2) Two combination (CVR/FDR) recorders, for aircraft with a maximum

certificated takeoff mass of more than 5700 kg. 7.170 FLIGHT DECK VOICE RECORDERS (a) No person may operate the following aircraft unless it is equipped with a voice

recorder system to record the aural environment of the flight deck during flight time: (1) All aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff mass of more than 27,000

kg.

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(2) A turbine powered airplane operated in commercial air transport — (i) Having a maximum approved passenger seating of more than nine

seats; or (ii) With a certificated takeoff mass of more than 5,700 kg.

(3) A helicopter operated in commercial air transport with a certificated takeoff mass of over —

(i) 7,000 kg; or (ii) For international commercial air transport: 2,700 kg.

Note: In anticipation of changing international requirements, the Authority recommends that all AOC holders of turbine aircraft with maximum certificated takeoff mass of 5700 kg or less install a voice recorder.

(b) The flight deck voice recorder shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least the last 30 minutes. Note: In anticipation of changing international requirements, the Authority recommends that all voice recorders be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least the last 2 hours.

(c) If an aircraft is equipped to utilize digital communications with ATS, those communications shall be recorded on either the flight deck voice or flight data recorder. [If recorded on the flight data recorder, the digital communications shall be readily correlatable to the cockpit voice recorder recording.]

7.175 FLIGHT DATA RECORDERS (a) No person may operate the following aircraft unless it is equipped with the

appropriate flight data recorder system to record the flight parameters for accident and incident analysis: (1) All aeroplanes with a maximum certificated takeoff mass of over 27,000 kg

shall have at least a Type II flight data recorder. (2) Turbine engine aeroplanes operated in commercial air transport with a

certificated takeoff mass of more than 5,700 kg shall have a Type I or Type II flight data recorder.

Note: In anticipation of changing international safety standards, the Authority recommends that turbine engine aeroplanes operated in commercial air transport with a certificated takeoff mass of 5700 kg or less should install a Type I or Type II flight data recorder. (3) All helicopters operated in commercial air transport with a certificated

takeoff mass of over 7,000 kg shall have at least a Type IV flight data recorder.

(b) The Authority will prescribe the minimum parameters which shall be recorded by a flight data recorder. See Appendix 1 to 7.175 for the parameters that must be monitored by a Type I and Type II FDR.

(c) Flight data recorders shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least the last — (1) Type I and II — 25 hours of operation.

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(2) Type IIA — 30 minutes of operation. (3) Type IV and V — 10 hours of operations.

(d) The use of engraving metal foil flight data recorders shall be discontinued by 1 January 1995.

SUBPART F CREW PROTECTION EQUIPMENT

7.178 SECURITY OF THE FLIGHT DECK (a) No person may operate an aircraft having a maximum seating capacity of more

than 19 passengers unless there is installed a lockable door to restrict entry to the flight deck.

(b) This door shall be lockable from within the flight deck only. 7.180 FLIGHT CREW SAFETY HARNESS (a) No person may operate an aircraft unless there is an operational safety harness

installed for each required flight crew member. (b) The safety harness shall incorporate a device that will automatically restrain the

occupant’s torso in the event of a rapid deceleration. (c) The Authority recommends that this safety harness should incorporate a device

to prevent a suddenly incapacitated pilot from interfering with the flight controls.

7.181 QUICK DONNING TYPE OXYGEN MASK (a) No person may operate a pressurized aircraft at altitudes above 25,000 feet

unless there is available at each flight crew duty station a quick donning type of oxygen mask which will readily supply oxygen upon demand.

7.182 CABIN CREW SEATS AND SAFETY HARNESS (a) No person may operate an aircraft for which a cabin attendant(s) is required

unless each seat provided is — (1) Forward or rearward facing (within 15 degrees of the longitudinal axis of

the aircraft; and (2) Fitted with a safety harness.

(b) Each seat shall be located at floor level in the passenger compartment and adjacent to the emergency exits as prescribed by the Authority to facilitate emergency evacuation.

7.183 PROTECTIVE BREATHING EQUIPMENT (PBE) (a) No person may operate the following aircraft in commercial air transport, unless

it is equipped with a PBE to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of all required crew members and provide oxygen or breathing gas for a period not less than 15 minutes: (1) An aircraft with a maximum certified takeoff mass of more than 5,700 kg; or (2) An aircraft with a maximum seating capacity of more than 19 seats.

(b) This equipment shall be conveniently located and easily accessible from each required duty station.

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(c) The PBE for each cabin attendant shall be portable. (d) The PBE, while in use, shall not prevent required communication. (e) For cargo aircraft, a PBE shall not be located in the cargo compartment, but

immediately prior to entry into that compartment, and near a required fire extinguisher.

SUBPART G PASSENGER RELATED EQUIPMENT

7.185 PASSENGER SEATS AND SEAT BELTS (a) No person may operate an aircraft carrying passengers unless it is equipped

with — (1) An approved seat or berth for each occupant on board who has reached

their second birthday; and (2) A seat belt for each seat and a restraining belt for each berth.

7.190 PASSENGER INFORMATION (a) No person shall operate an aircraft having an approved passenger seating

configuration of more than 9 passengers unless it is equipped with at least one passenger information sign notifying when — (1) Safety belts should be fastened; and (2) Smoking is prohibited.

(b) These signs shall be so constructed that a crew member can turn them on and off from a duty station.

(c) There shall be sufficient signs located in the passenger cabin so that, when illuminated, they will be legible to each passenger under all probable conditions of cabin illumination.

7.195 PUBLIC ADDRESS SYSTEM (a) No person may operate an aircraft with a maximum approved seating

configuration of more than 19 passengers unless it is equipped with a public address system.

(b) This public address system shall — (1) Be audible and intelligible at all passenger seats, toilets and cabin crew duty

and work stations; (2) Be capable of operation within 10 seconds by any required crew member; (3) Be accessible by at least one seated crew member at each separate or pair of

floor level emergency exits; 7.200 INTERPHONE SYSTEMS (a) No person may operate an aircraft on which a flight crew of more than one is

required unless it is equipped with a flight deck interphone system, including headsets and microphones, which provides audible and intelligible communica- tions between the required crew members.

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(b) No person may operate an aircraft having a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 passengers unless it is equipped with a crew member interphone system which provides for signaling and two-way communications between all required crew members.

(c) This crew member interphone system required by 7.200(b) shall — (1) Be capable of operation independently of the public address system; (2) Be capable of operation within 10 seconds by any required crew member,

including those at remote work stations; (3) Be accessible by at least one seated crew member at each separate or pair of

floor level emergency exits; (4) Have a signaling capability which provides for differentiation between

normal and emergency calls; and (5) Provide, on the ground, a means of two-way communication between

ground personnel and at least two flight crew members. 7.205 MEGAPHONES — COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT (a) No person may operate an aircraft carrying more than 59 passengers in

commercial air transport unless it is equipped with the required number of battery-powered megaphones readily accessible to the crew members assigned to direct emergency evacuation.

(b) The required number and location of megaphones are — (1) For an aircraft with a seating capacity of 60 to 99 passengers — one

megaphone at the most rearward location readily accessible to a cabin attendant duty station.

(2) For an aircraft with more than 99 passengers — an additional megaphone installed at the forward end of the passenger compartment.

7.210 EMERGENCY EXITS (a) No person may operate an aircraft carrying passengers unless it has adequate

emergency exit provisions for emergency evacuations and ditching. (b) Each passenger-carrying emergency exit (other than over-the-wing) that is more

than 6 feet from the ground with the airplane on the ground and the landing gear extended, shall have an approved means to assist the occupants in descending to the ground.

(c) Each passenger emergency exit, its means of access and its means of opening shall be conspicuously marked both inside and outside.

(d) The location of each passenger emergency exit shall be indicated by a sign visible to occupants approaching along the main passenger aisle.

(e) Each passenger carrying airplane shall be equipped with a slip-resistant escape route that meets the requirements under which that airplane was type- certificated.

(f) Each passenger carrying airplane that is required to have cabin attendant(s) shall have flashlight stowage provisions accessible from their duty stations. See Appendix 1 to 8.1.7.6 for specific requirements regarding these standards.

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7.215 PASSENGER COMPARTMENT AND EXITS (a) No person may conduct any passenger-carrying operation unless it has —

(1) A key for each door that separates a passenger compartment from another compartment that has emergency exit provisions;

Note: The key shall be readily available for each crew member. (2) A means for the crew, in an emergency, to unlock each door that leads to

a compartment that is normally accessible to passengers and that can be locked by passengers; and

(3) A placard on each door used to access a required passenger emergency exit, indicating that such door shall be open during takeoff and landing.

7.220 MATERIALS FOR CABIN INTERIORS (a) Upon the first major overhaul of an aeroplane cabin or refurbishing of the cabin

interior, all materials in each compartment used by the crew or passengers that do not meet the current airworthiness requirements pertaining to materials used in the interior of the cabin for type certification in the transport category as cited by the Authority, shall be replaced with materials that meet the requirements specified by the Authority.

(b) Seat cushions, except those on flight crew member seats, in any compartment occupied by crew or passengers shall meet requirements pertaining to fire protection as specified by the Authority.

7.225 MATERIALS FOR CARGO AND BAGGAGE COMPARTMENTS

(a) Each Class C or D cargo compartment greater than 200 cubic feet in volume in a transport category aeroplane type certified after January 1, 1958 shall have ceiling and sidewall liner panels which are constructed of — (1) Glass fibre reinforced resin; (2) Materials which meet the test requirements for flame resistance of cargo

compartment liners as prescribed for type certification; or (3) In the case of installations approved prior to March 20, 1989, aluminium. Note: The term “liner” includes any design feature, such as a joint or fastener, which would affect the capability of the liner to safely contain fire.

7.230 EMERGENCY LIGHTING SYSTEM (a) No person may operate an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger

configuration of more than nineteen passengers unless it is equipped with an emergency lighting system that is independent of the main lighting system.

(b) The emergency light system must: (1) Illuminate each passenger exit marking and locating sign; (2) Provide enough general lighting in the passenger cabin; and (3) Include floor proximity emergency escape path marking.

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SUBPART H EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

7.235 EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT: ALL AIRCRAFT (a) Each item of emergency and flotation equipment shall be —

(1) Readily accessible to the crew and, with regard to equipment located in the passenger compartment, to passengers without appreciable time for preparatory procedures;

(2) Clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation; (3) Marked as to date of last inspection; and (4) Marked as to contents when carried in a compartment or container.

7.240 FIRST AID KIT (a) No person may operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with at least the

minimum number of accessible first aid kits and contents specified as follows:

Number of passenger seats installed

Number of first-aid kits required

0 to 99 1 100 to 199 2 200 to 299 3

300 and more 4

(b) The installed first aid kit shall contain the minimum contents specified by the Authority.

7.245 MEDICAL KIT — COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT (a) No person may operate an aircraft authorized to carry more than 250 passengers

unless it has a properly installed medical kit for the use of the medical doctors or other qualified persons in treating in-flight medical emergencies.

(b) The installed medical kit shall contain the minimum contents specified by the Authority.

7.250 PORTABLE FIRE EXTINGUISHERS (a) No person may operate an aircraft unless it has the minimum number of portable

fire extinguishers of a type which, when discharged, will not cause dangerous contamination of the air within the aeroplane. The type and quantity of extinguishing agent shall be suitable for the kinds of fires likely to occur in the compartment where the extinguisher is intended to be used. Note: For passenger compartments, the extinguisher shall be designed to minimise the hazard of toxic gas concentrations.

(b) The minimum number of portable fire extinguishers shall not be less than — (1) One properly installed in the pilot’s compartment; and

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(2) At least one portable fire extinguisher shall be provided and conveniently located for use in each Class E cargo compartment which is accessible to crew members during flight, and at least one shall be located in each upper and lower lobe galley;

(3) One properly installed in each passenger compartment that is separate from the pilot’s compartment and that is not readily accessible to the flight crew;

Note: Any portable fire extinguisher so fitted in accordance with the certificate of airworthiness of a helicopter may count as one of the required extinguishers. (4) At least one portable fire extinguisher shall be conveniently located in the

passenger compartment of aeroplanes having a passenger seating capacity of 30 or less. For each aeroplane having a passenger seating capacity of more than 30, there shall be at least the following number of portable fire extinguishers conveniently located and uniformly distributed throughout the compartment.

Minimum Number of Hand Fire Extinguishers Passenger Seating Capacity

30 through 60 2 61 through 200 3

201 through 300 4 301 through 400 5 401 through 500 6 501 through 600 7

601 or more 8 7.255 LAVATORY FIRE EXTINGUISHER (a) No person may operate an passenger carrying aircraft of more than 5700 kg

maximum certificated takeoff mass unless each lavatory is equipped with a built- in fire extinguisher for the wastepaper disposal.

(b) This built-in fire extinguisher must be designed to discharge automatically into each disposal receptacle upon occurrence of a fire in the receptacle.

7.260 LAVATORY SMOKE DETECTOR (a) No person may operate a passenger carrying aircraft of more than 5700 kg

maximum certificated takeoff mass unless each lavatory in the airplane is equipped with a smoke detector system that provides — (1) a warning light in the flight deck; or (2) a warning light or audio warning in the passenger cabin, taking into account

the position of the cabin attendants during various phases of flight. 7.265 CRASH AXE — COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT (a) No person may operate an aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff mass of

more than 5700 kg unless it is equipped with a crash axe appropriate for effective use in that aircraft.

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7.270 OXYGEN STORAGE AND DISPENSING APPARATUS (a) All aircraft intended to be operated at altitudes requiring the use of

supplemental oxygen shall be equipped with adequate oxygen storage and dispensing apparatus.

(b) The oxygen apparatus, the minimum rate of oxygen flow, and the supply of oxygen shall meet applicable airworthiness standards for type certification in the transport category as specified by the Authority.

(c) No AOC holder may operate an aeroplane at altitudes above 10,000 feet unless it is equipped with oxygen masks, located so as to be within the immediate reach of flight crew members while at their assigned duty station.

(d) No person may operate a pressurized aeroplane at altitudes above 25,000 feet unless: (1) Flight crew member oxygen masks are of a quick donning type; (2) Sufficient spare outlets and masks and/or sufficient portable oxygen units

with masks are distributed evenly throughout the cabin to ensure immediate availability of oxygen to each required cabin crew member regardless of his location at the time of cabin pressurisation failure

(3) An oxygen-dispensing unit connected to oxygen supply terminals is installed so as to be immediately available to each occupant, wherever seated. The total number of dispensing units and outlets shall exceed the number of seats by at least 10%. The extra units are to be evenly distributed throughout the cabin.

(e) The amount of supplemental oxygen for sustenance required for a particular operation shall be determined on the basis of flight altitudes and flight duration, consistent with the operating procedures established for each operation in the Operations Manual and with the routes to be flown, and with the emergency procedures specified in the Operations Manual. See Appendix 1 and Appendix 2 to 7.270 to determine the amount of supplemental oxygen needed for non-pressurized and pressurized aircraft.

7.273 INDIVIDUAL FLOTATION DEVICES (a) No person shall operate an aircraft on flights over water unless it is equipped

with one life jacket or equivalent individual flotation device for each person on board.

(b) All life jackets or equivalent individual flotation devices shall be stowed in a position easily accessible from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided.

(c) For all flights in which a survival raft is required, each individual flotation devices shall be fitted with an approved survivor locator light.

7.275 LIFE RAFTS (a) No person may operate an aircraft in extended over water operations unless it is

equipped with life rafts in sufficient number to accommodate all of the persons on board in the event of ditching when the flight is more than — (1) 120 minutes at cruising speed or 400 nautical miles, whichever is lesser, for

airplanes capable of continuing the flight to an airport with the critical power unit(s) becoming inoperative at any point along the route or planned diversions;

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(2) 30 minutes at cruising speed or 100 nautical miles, whichever is lesser, for all other airplanes.

(b) For commercial air transport passenger carrying operations in aircraft of more than 5700 kg, the buoyancy and seating capacity of the rafts must accommodate all occupants of the aircraft in the event of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity.

(c) The required life rafts and associated equipment must be easily accessible in the event of ditching without appreciable time for preparatory procedures. This equipment must be installed in conspicuously marked, approved locations.

(d) Life rafts which are not deployable by remote control and which have a mass of more than 40 kg shall be equipped with some means of mechanically assisted deployment.

7.280 SURVIVAL KIT (a) No person may operate an aircraft over designated land areas where search and

rescue would be especially difficult without carrying life saving equipment including means of sustaining life.

(b) No person may operate over water at distances which require the carriage of life rafts unless each raft is equipped with life saving equipment including means of sustaining life.

(c) The survival kit shall contain the minimum contents specified by the Authority. 7.285 DEVICES FOR EMERGENCY SIGNALING (a) No person may operate an aircraft over designated land areas where search

and rescue would be especially difficult without carrying devices to make the necessary ground-to-air emergency signals to facilitate rescue.

(b) No person may operate over water at distance which require the carriage of life rafts unless each raft contains the equipment for make the necessary pyrotechnical distress signals.

(c) The devices for emergency signaling shall be acceptable to the Authority. 7.290 EMERGENCY LOCATOR TRANSMITTER (ELT) (a) All aircraft on all flights shall be equipped with an automatically activated ELT. (b) No person may operate an aircraft over designated land areas where search and

rescue would be especially difficult unless it is equipped with at least one survival type ELT.

(c) No person may operate an aircraft over water at distances which require the carriage of life rafts unless it is equipped with an survival type ELT for the life raft. In situations requiring two or more life rafts, only two survival type ELTs are required to be carried on the aircraft.

(d) Batteries used in ELT’s shall be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable) when — (1) The transmitter has been in use for more than one cumulative hour; or (2) 50 percent of their useful life (or for rechargeable batteries, 50 percent of

their useful life of charge) has expired; (3) The expiration date for a replacement or recharged ELT battery shall be

legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter.

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Note: The battery useful life (or useful life of charge) requirements do not apply to batteries (such as water-activated batteries) that are essentially unaffected during probable storage intervals.

7.295 HELICOPTER EMERGENCY FLOTATION MEANS (a) No person may operate a helicopter intentionally over water unless it has a

properly installed permanent or rapidly deployable means of floatation to ensure a safe ditching of the helicopter when the flight is — (1) more than 10 minutes from shore, in the case of helicopters capable of

sustained flight with one engine inoperative; or (2) beyond autorotational or gliding distance to shore, in the case of single-

engine helicopters. 7.300 MARKING OF BREAK-IN POINTS (a) No person may operate an aircraft for which areas of the fuselage suitable

for break-in by rescue in an emergency are marked unless those markings correspond to the following figure and meet the following requirements — (1) The color of the markings shall be red or yellow, and if necessary, they shall

be outlined in white to contrast with the background; and (2) If the corner markings are more than 2 m apart, intermediate lines 9 cm x

3 cm shall be inserted so that there is no more than 2 m between adjacent markings.

Note: This regulation does not require any aircraft to have break-in areas.

7.305 FIRST-AID OXYGEN DISPENSING UNITS (a) No AOC holder may conduct a passenger carrying operation in a pressurized

aeroplane at altitudes above 25,000 feet, when a cabin crew member is required to be carried, unless it is equipped with — (1) Undiluted first-aid oxygen for passengers who, for physiological reasons,

may require oxygen following a cabin depressurisation; and (2) A sufficient number of dispensing units, but in no case less than two, with a

means for cabin crew to use the supply. (b) The amount of first-aid oxygen required in paragraph (a) for a particular

operation and route shall be determined on the basis of — (1) Flight duration after cabin depressurisation at cabin altitudes of more than

8,000 feet;

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(2) An average flow rate of at least 3 litres Standard Temperature Pressure Dry/minute/person; and

(3) At least 2% of the passengers carried, but in no case for less than one person.

APPENDICES APPENDIX 1 TO 7.175

PARAMETERS FOR FLIGHT DECK RECORDERS This table lists the parameters that should be recorded in a type II or type I FDR Serial # Parameter

1 Time (UTC when available, otherwise elapsed time) 2 Pressure altitude 3 Indicated airspeed 4 Heading 5 Normal acceleration 6 Pitch attitude 7 Roll attitude 8 Radio transmission keying 9 Power on each engine 10 Trailing edge flap or flight deck control selection position 11 Leading edge flap position 12 Thrust reverser position 13 Ground spoiler or speed brake selection position 14 Outside air temperature 15 Autopilot/auto throttle/AFCS mode Note: The preceeding 15 parameters satisfy the requirements for Type

II FDR 16 Longitudinal acceleration 17 Lateral acceleration 18 Pilot input and/or control surface position-primary controls (pitch,

roll, yaw) 19 Pitch trim position 20 Radio altitude 21 Glide path deviation 22 Localizer deviation 23 Marker beacon passage 24 Master warning 25 Nav 1 and 2 frequency

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26 DME 1 and 2 distance 27 Landing gear squat switch status 28 GPWS (ground proximity warning system) 29 Angle of attack 30 Hydraulics, each system (low pressure) 31 Navigation data (latitude, longitude, ground speed and drift angle 32 Landing gear or gear selector position Note: The preceding 32 parameters satisfy the requirements for a Type

I FDR

APPENDIX 1 TO 7.210 EMERGENCY EXIT EQUIPMENT

(a) The assisting means for a floor level emergency exit shall meet the requirements under which the aeroplane was type certified.

(b) The location of each passenger emergency exit shall be — (1) Recognisable from a distance equal to the width of the cabin. (2) Indicated by a sign visible to occupants approaching along the main

passenger aisle. (c) There shall be an emergency exit locating sign —

(1) Above the aisle near each over-the-wing passenger emergency exit, or at another ceiling location if it is more practical because of low headroom;

(2) Next to each floor level passenger emergency exit, except that one sign may serve two such exits if they both can be seen readily from that sign; and

(3) On each bulkhead or divider that prevents fore and aft vision along the passenger cabin, to indicate emergency exits beyond and obscured by it, except that if this is not possible, the sign may be placed at another appropriate location.

(d) Each passenger emergency exit marking and each locating sign shall be manufactured to meet the interior emergency exit marking requirements under which the aeroplane was type certified, unless the Authority cites different requirements for compliance with this paragraph. Note: No sign may continue to be used if its luminescence (brightness) decreases to below 250 microlamberts.

(e) Sources of general cabin illumination may be common to both the emergency and the main lighting systems if the power supply to the emergency light system is independent of the power supply to the main lighting system.

(f) The emergency lighting system shall provide enough general lighting in the passenger cabin so that the average illumination, when measured at 40-inch intervals at seat armrest height, on the centreline of the main passenger aisle, is at least 0.05 foot-candles.

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(g) Each emergency light shall — (1) Be operable manually both from the light crew station and from a point in

the passenger compartment that is readily accessible to a normal flight attendant seat;

(2) Have a means to prevent inadvertent operation of the manual controls; and (3) When armed or turned on at either station, remain lighted or become lighted

upon interruption of the aeroplane’s normal electric power; (4) Provide the required level of illumination for at least 10 minutes at the

critical ambient conditions after emergency landing; (5) Have a cockpit control device that has an “on”, “off”, and “armed”

position. (h) The location of each passenger emergency exit operating handle and instructions

for opening the exit shall be shown in accordance with the requirements under which the aeroplane was type certified, unless the Authority cites different requirements for compliance with this paragraph.

(i) No operating handle or operating handle cover may continue to be used if its luminescence (brightness) decreases to below 100 microlamberts.

(j) Access to emergency exits shall be provided as follows for each passenger carrying aeroplane: (1) Each passageway between individual passenger areas, or leading to a Type I

or Type II emergency exit, shall be unobstructed and at least 20 inches wide. (2) There shall be enough space next to each Type I or Type II emergency exit

to allow a crew member to assist in the evacuation of passengers without reducing the unobstructed width of the passageway below that required in paragraph (1) of this section.

(3) Then shall be access from the main aisle to each Type III and Type IV exit. The access from the aisle to these exits shall not be obstructed by seats, berths, or other protrusions in a manner that would reduce the effectiveness of the exit. In addition, the access shall meet the emergency exit access requirements under which the aeroplane was type certificated, unless the Authority cites different requirements for compliance with this paragraph.

(4) If it is necessary to pass through a passageway between passenger compartments to reach any required emergency exit from any seat in the passenger cabin, the passageway shall not be obstructed. However, curtains may be used if they allow free entry through the passageway.

(5) No door may be installed in any partition between passenger compartments. (6) If it is necessary to pass through a doorway separating the passenger cabin

from other areas to reach any required emergency exit from any passenger seat, the door shall have a means to latch it in open position, and the door shall be latched open during each takeoff and landing. The latching means shall be able to withstand the loads imposed upon it when the door is subjected to the ultimate inertia forces, relative to the surrounding structure, prescribed in the airworthiness standards for type certification in the transport category as cited by the Authority.

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(k) Each passenger emergency exit and the means of opening that exit from the outside shall be marked on the outside of the aeroplane with a 2-inch coloured band outlining the exit on the side of the fuselage.

(l) Each passenger emergency exit marking, including the band, shall be readily distinguishable from the surrounding fuselage area by contrast in colour and shall comply with the following: (1) If the reflectance of the darker colour is 15 percent or less, the reflectance of

the lighter colour shall be at least 45 percent. (2) If the reflectance of the darker colour is greater than 15 percent, at least a 30

percent difference between its reflectance and the reflectance of the lighter colour shall be provided. Note: “Reflectance” is the ratio of the luminous flux reflected by a body to the luminous flux it receives.

(3) Exits that are not in the side of the fuselage shall have external means of opening and applicable instructions marked conspicuously in red or, if red is inconspicuous against the background colour, in bright chrome yellow and, when the opening means for such an exit is located on only one side of the fuselage, a conspicuous marking to that effect shall be provided on the other side.

(m) Each passenger-carrying aeroplane shall be equipped with exterior lighting that meets the requirements under which that aeroplane was type certificated, unless the Authority cites different requirement for compliance with this paragraph.

(n) Each passenger-carrying aeroplane shall be equipped with a slip-resistant escape route that meets the requirements under which that aeroplane was type certificated, unless the Authority cites different requirements for compliance with this paragraph.

(o) Each floor level door or exit in the side of the fuselage (other than those leading into a cargo or baggage compartment that is not accessible from the passenger cabin) that is 44 or more inches high and 20 or more inches wide, but not wider than 46 inches, each passenger ventral exit and each tail cone exit, shall meet the requirements of this section for floor level emergency exits. Note: The Authority may grant a deviation from this paragraph if he finds that circumstances make full compliance impractical and that an acceptable level of safety has been achieved.

(p) Approved emergency exits in the passenger compartments that are in excess of the minimum number of required emergency exits shall meet all of the applicable provisions of this subsection section and shall be readily accessible.

(q) On each large passenger-carrying turbojet powered aeroplane each ventral exit and tail cone exit shall be — (1) Designed and constructed so that it cannot be opened during flight; and (2) Marked with a placard readable from a distance of 30 inches and installed

at a conspicuous location near the means of opening the exit, stating that the exit has been designed and constructed so that it cannot be opened during flight.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 7.270 SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN — NON-PRESSURIZED

AIRCRAFT (r) The supplemental oxygen supply requirements for non-pressurized aircraft are

as follows: (1) Flight crew members. Each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty

shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen in accordance with Table 1. If all occupants of flight deck seats are supplied from the flight crew source of oxygen supply then they shall be considered as flight crew members on flight deck duty for the purpose of oxygen supply.

(2) Cabin crew members, additional crew members and passengers. Cabin crew members and passengers shall be supplied with oxygen in accordance with Table 1. Cabin crew members carried in addition to the minimum number of cabin crew members required, and additional crew members, shall be considered as passengers for the purpose of oxygen supply.

Table 1 — Supplemental Oxygen for Non-Pressurized Aeroplanes (a) (b) SUPPLY FOR: DURATION AND PRESSURE

ALTITUDE 1. All occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty

Entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10,000 feet

2. All required cabin crew members Entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13,000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10,000 ft but not exceeding 13,000 ft

3. 100% of passengers Entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13,000 ft

7. 10% of passengers Entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10,000 ft but not exceeding 13,000 ft

APPENDIX 2 TO 7.270

SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN — PRESSURIZED AIRCRAFT (a) The supplemental oxygen supply requirements for pressurized aircraft are as

follows: (1) The amount of supplemental oxygen required shall be determined on the

basis of cabin pressure altitude, flight duration and the assumption that a cabin pressurisation failure will occur at the altitude or point of flight that is most critical from the standpoint of oxygen need, and that, after the failure, the aeroplane will descend in accordance with emergency procedures specified in the Aeroplane Flight Manual to a safe altitude for the route to be flown that will allow continued safe flight and landing.

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(2) Following a cabin pressurisation failure, the cabin pressure altitude shall be considered the same as the aeroplane altitude, unless it is demonstrated to the Authority that no probable failure of the cabin or pressurisation system will result in a cabin pressure altitude equal to the aeroplane altitude. Under these circumstances, this lower cabin pressure altitude may be used as a basis for determination of oxygen supply.

(3) Flight crew members. (i) Each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty shall be supplied

with supplemental oxygen in accordance with Table 2. If all occupants of flight deck seats are supplied from the flight crew source of oxygen supply then they shall be considered as flight crew members on flight deck duty for the purpose of oxygen supply. Flight deck seat occupants, not supplied by the flight crew source, are to be considered as passengers for the purpose of oxygen supply.

(4) Cabin crew members, additional crew members, and passengers. (i) Cabin crew members and passengers shall be supplied with

supplemental oxygen in accordance with Table 2. Cabin crew members carried in addition to the minimum number of cabin crew members required, and additional crew members, shall be considered as passengers for the purpose of oxygen supply.

(ii) The oxygen supply requirements, as specified in Table 2, for aeroplanes not certificated to fly at altitudes above 25,000 ft, may be reduced to the entire flight time between 10,000 ft and 14,000 ft cabin pressure altitudes for all required cabin crew members and for at least 10% of the passengers if, at all points along the route to be flown, the aeroplane is able to descend safely within 4 minutes to a cabin pressure altitude of 14,000 ft.

Table 2 — Requirements for Supplemental Oxygen — Pressurized Aeroplane During and Following Emergency Descent (Note 1) SUPPLY FOR: DURATION AND CABIN PRESSURE

ALTITUDE 1. All occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty flight

Entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13,000 and entire time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 ft but does not exceed 13,000 ft after the first 30 minutes at those altitudes, but in no case less than:

(i) 30 minutes for aeroplanes certificated to fly at altitudes not exceeding 25,000 ft (Note 2).

(ii) 2 hours for aeroplanes certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25,000 ft (Note 3).

2. All required cabin crew members Entire flight time when cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13,000 ft but not less than 30 minutes (Note 2), and entire flight time when cabin pressure altitude is greater than 10,000 ft but does not exceed 13,000 ft after the first 30 minutes at these altitudes.

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SUPPLY FOR: DURATION AND CABIN PRESSURE ALTITUDE

3. 100% of passengers 10 minutes or the entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000 ft whichever is the greater (Note 4).

7. 30% of passengers Entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 14,000 ft but does not exceed 15,000 ft.

5. 10% of passengers Entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 ft but does not exceed 14,000 ft after the first 30 minutes at these altitudes.

Note 1: The supply provided shall take account of the cabin pressure altitude and descent profile for the routes concerned. Note 2: The required minimum supply is that quantity of oxygen necessary for a constant rate of descent from the aeroplane’s maximum certificated operating altitude to 10,000 ft in 10 minutes and followed by 20 minutes of 10,000 ft. Note 3: The required minimum supply is that quantity of oxygen necessary for a constant rate of descent from the aeroplane’s maximum certificated operating altitude to 10,000 ft in 10 minutes and followed by 110 minutes at 10,000 ft. The oxygen required to meet the Crew Protective Breathing Equipment provisions of this Part may be included in determining the supply required. Note 4: The required minimum supply is that quantity of oxygen necessary for a constant rate of descent from the aeroplane’s maximum certificated operating attitude to 15,000 ft.

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SCHEDULE 8

PERSONNEL LICENSING SUBPART A: GENERAL LICENSING REQUIREMENTS

Section I: General 8.001 Applicability 8.005 Definitions 8.010 Acronyms Section II: Licences, Ratings, and Authorisations 8.015 Applicability 8.020 Licences Issued 8.025 Ratings Issued 8.030 Authorisations Issued 8.035 Duration of Licences, Ratings, and Authorisations 8.040 Temporary Licence or Rating 8.045 General Requirements: Personnel Licences, Ratings, and

Authorisations Section III: Validation of Foreign and Military Licences and Ratings 8.050 Private Pilot Licence and Ratings Issued on the Basis of a

Foreign Pilot Licence 8.055 Military Pilots or Former Military Pilots: Special Rules Section IV: General Testing and Training Requirements 8.060 Tests: General Procedure 8.065 Knowledge Test: Prerequisites and Passing Grades 8.070 Practical Tests: Prerequisites 8.075 Practical Tests: General Procedures 8.080 Practical Tests: Required Aircraft and Equipment 8.085 Retesting after Failure 8.090 Records of Training Time 8.095 Flight Training Received from Flight Instructors not

Licenced by the Authority 8.100 Limitations on the Use of Flight Simulators and Flight

Training Devices 8.105 Graduates of a Training Programme Approved under Other

Parts: Special Rules SUBPART B: CERTIFICATION: FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS Section I: Aircraft Ratings and Pilot Authorisations 8.110 General Requirement 8.115 Instrument Rating Requirements 8.120 Category Rating 8.125 Class Rating 8.130 Type Rating 8.135 Category II and III Pilot Authorisation Requirements 8.140 Special Purpose Pilot Authorisation: a Person who is not a

Citizen of The Bahamas

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Section II: Student Pilots 8.145 Applicability 8.150 Eligibility Requirements for Student Pilots 8.155 Application 8.160 Solo Requirements for Student Pilots 8.165 General Limitations 8.170 Solo Cross-Country Flight Requirements Section III: Private Pilots 8.175 Applicability 8.180 Eligibility Requirements: General 8.185 Aeronautical Knowledge 8.190 Flight Proficiency 8.195 Aeronautical Experience 8.200 Cross-Country Flights: Pilots Based on Small Islands 8.205 Private Pilot Privileges and Limitations: Required Crew Member 8.210 Private Pilot with Balloon Rating: Limitations Section IV: Commercial Pilots 8.215 Applicability 8.220 Eligibility requirements: General 8.225 Commercial Pilot: Aeronautical Knowledge Requirements 8.230 Commercial Pilot: Flight Proficiency Requirements 8.235 Commercial Pilot: Aeronautical Experience 8.240 Commercial Pilot Privileges and Limitations Section V: Airline Transport Pilots 8.245 Applicability 8.250 Eligibility Requirements: General 8.255 Aeronautical Knowledge 8.260 Flight Proficiency 8.265 Aeronautical Experience: Aeroplane Category Rating 8.270 Aeronautical Experience: Rotorcraft Category and Helicopter Class

Rating 8.275 Aeronautical Experience: Powered-Lift Flight Time 8.280 Additional Aircraft Category, Class, and Type Ratings 8.285 Airline Transport Pilot Privileges Section VI: Flight Instructors 8.290 Applicability 8.295 Eligibility Requirements 8.300 Aeronautical Knowledge 8.305 Flight Instructor: Areas of Operation for Flight Proficiency 8.310 Flight Instructor Records 8.315 Additional Flight Instructor Ratings 8.320 Flight Instructor Privileges 8.325 Flight Instructor Limitations and Qualifications 8.330 Renewal of Flight Instructor Licences 8.335 Expired Flight Instructor Licences and Ratings

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Section VII: Flight Engineers 8.340 Applicability 8.345 Licences and Ratings Required 8.350 Special Purpose Flight Engineer Licence: a Person not a

Citizen of The Bahamas 8.355 Eligibility Requirements — General 8.360 Additional Aircraft Ratings 8.365 Knowledge Requirements 8.370 Aeronautical Experience Requirements 8.375 Skill Requirements 8.380 Flight Engineer Licence Issued on Basis of a Foreign Flight

Engineer Licence SUBPART C: LICENSING: AIRMEN OTHER THAN FLIGHT CREW-

MEMBERS 8.385 Applicability Section l: Ground Instructors 8.390 Applicability 8.395 Eligibility Requirements 8.400 Ground Instructor Privileges 8.405 Currency Requirements Section ll: Flight Operations Officers 8.410 Applicability 8.415 Eligibility Requirements: General 8.420 Knowledge Requirements 8.425 Experience or Training Requirements 8.430 Skill Requirements Section III: Aviation Maintenance Technicians 8.435 Applicability 8.440 Eligibility Requirements: General 8.445 Ratings 8.450 Aircraft Rating: Knowledge Requirements 8.455 Experience Requirements 8.460 Skill Requirements 8.465 ATO Students 8.470 AMT Privileges and Limitations 8.475 Recent Experience Requirements Section IV: Inspection Authorisations 8.480 Applicability 8.485 Eligibility Requirements: General 8.490 Inspection Authorisation: Duration 8.495 Renewal of Authorisation 8.500 Privileges and Limitations Section V: Aviation Repair Specialists 8.505 Applicability 8.510 Aviation Repair Specialist Licences: Eligibility 8.515 Ratings

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8.520 Aviation Repair Specialist Licences: Privileges And Limitations 8.525 Aviation Repair Specialist Licence: Experimental Aircraft

Builder — Eligibility, Privileges and Limitations 8.530 Aviation Repair Specialist Licences: Experimental Aircraft

Builder — Ratings Section VI: Parachute Riggers 8.535 Applicability 8.540 Eligibility Requirements: General 8.545 Licence Required 8.550 Senior Parachute Rigger Licence: Experience, Knowledge,

and Skill Requirements 8.555 Master Parachute Rigger Licence: Experience, Knowledge,

and Skill Requirements 8.560 Type Ratings 8.565 Additional Type Ratings: Requirements 8.570 Privileges 8.575 Facilities and Equipment 8.580 Performance Standards 8.585 Records 8.590 Seal Section VI: Air Traffic Controllers 8.595 Applicability 8.600 Required Licences, and Rating or Qualification 8.605 Eligibility Requirements: General 8.610 Knowledge Requirements 8.615 Skill Requirements: Operating Positions 8.620 Practical Experience Requirements: Facility Rating 8.625 Skill Requirements: Facility Ratings 8.630 Privileges and Limitations 8.635 Maximum Hours 8.640 Currency Requirements SUBPART D: MEDICAL STANDARDS AND CERTIFICATION Section I: General 8.645 Applicability 8.650 Medical Records 8.655 Aviation Medical Examiner: Definition and Authority 8.660 Delegation of Authority Section II: Medical Certification Procedures 8.665 Applicability 8.670 Issuance of Medical Certificate 8.675 Medical Certificate Requirements 8.680 Duration of a Medical Certificate 8.685 Special Issuance of Medical Certificate 8.690 Renewal of Medical Certificate 8.695 Denial of Medical Certificate

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Section III: Physical and Mental Standards — All Medical Certificates 8.700 Applicability 8.705 General Medical Requirements 8.710 Mental Standards 8.715 Visual Requirements 8.720 Auditory Requirements 8.725 Cardiovascular 8.730 Neurological Requirements 8.735 Other Disqualifying Physical Conditions Section IV: Class 1 Medical Certificate 8.740 Applicability 8.745 Eligibility 8.750 Additional Visual Requirements 8.755 Additional Auditory Requirements 8.760 Additional Cardiovascular Requirements Section V: Class 2 Medical Certificate 8.765 Applicability 8.770 Eligibility 8.775 Additional Visual Requirements 8.780 Additional Auditory Requirements

APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 8.045: General Pilot Training Requirements Appendix 1 to 8.055: Military Pilots or Former Military Pilots: Special Rules Appendix 1 to 8.070: Prerequisites for Practical Tests Appendix 1 to 8.080: Practical Tests: Required Aircraft, Simulation, and Equipment Appendix 1 to 8.090: Records of Training Time Appendix 1 to 8.100: Use of an Approved Flight Simulator or an Approved Flight

Training Device Appendix 1 to 8.115: Instrument Rating Requirements Appendix 1 to 8.135: Additional Requirements for Category II and Category III Pilot

Authorisations Appendix 1 to 8.140: Special Purpose Pilot Authorisation: Operation of Civil Aircraft

Registered by the Authority Leased by a Person who is not a Citizen of The Bahamas

Appendix 1 to 8.160: Manoeuvres and Procedures for Pre-Solo Flight Training Appendix 1 to 8.170: Manoeuvres and Procedures for Cross-Country Flight Training Appendix 1 to 8.185: Private Pilot Aeronautical Knowledge Areas Appendix 1 to 8.195: Private Pilot Aeronautical Experience Requirements Appendix 1 to 8.225: Commercial Pilot Aeronautical Knowledge Areas Appendix 1 to 8.230: Commercial Pilot Flight Training Proficiency Requirements Appendix 1 to 8.235: Commercial Pilot Aeronautical Experience Requirements Appendix 1 to 8.255: Airline Transport Pilot: Aeronautical Knowledge Areas Appendix 1 to 8.260: Airline Transport Pilot: Flight Proficiency Appendix 1 to 8.305: Flight Instructor Areas of Operation for Flight Proficiency Appendix 1 to 8.325: Flight Instructor Limitations and Qualifications

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Appendix 1 to 8.380: Special Purpose Flight Engineer Licence and Flight Engineer Licence Issued on Basis of a Foreign Flight Engineer Licence

Appendix 1 to 8.400: Ground Instructor Privileges Appendix 1 to 8.675: Requirement for Licences, Ratings, and Authorisations

SUBPART A GENERAL LICENSING REQUIREMENTS

Section I: General 8.001 APPLICABILITY (a) This Schedule prescribes —

(1) The requirements for issuing airman licences, and ratings; and authorisa- tions to those licences, as applicable;

(2) The conditions under which those licences, ratings, and authorisations are necessary; and

(3) The privileges and limitations of holders of those licences, ratings, and authorisations.

8.005 DEFINITIONS (a) For the purpose of This Schedule, the following definitions shall apply —

(1) Accredited medical conclusion. The conclusion reached by one or more medical experts acceptable to the Licensing Authority for the purposes of the case concerned, in consultation with other experts as necessary.

(2) Advanced flight training device. A flight training device that has a cockpit that accurately replicates a specific make, model, and type aircraft cockpit, and handling characteristics that accurately model the aircraft handling characteristics.

(3) Aviation Maintenance Technician. A person approved by the Authority to perform defined maintenance upon aeronautical products; the term “aviation maintenance technician” as used herein can include persons similarly qualified by other Contracting States and referred to as “licenced mechanic,” “certificated (certified) mechanic,” “aviation maintenance engineer,” or by other terms, all of which mean an aviation maintenance licence holder.

(4) Complex aeroplane. An aeroplane having retractable landing gear (except in seaplanes), flaps, and a controllable propeller.

(5) Core curriculum. A set of courses approved by the Authority, for use by an ATO and its satellite ATOs. The core curriculum consists of training that is required for licensing or aircraft ratings. It does not include training for tasks and circumstances unique to a particular user.

(6) Flight training equipment. Flight simulators, flight training devices, and aircraft.

(7) High-performance aeroplane. An aeroplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.

(8) Operating position. An air traffic control function performed within or directly associated with a control facility.

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(9) Psychosis. A mental disorder in which the individual has manifested delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganised behaviour, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition; or the individual may reasonably be expected to manifest delusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre or disorganised behaviour, or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition.

(10) Substance abuse. Refers to — (i) The use of a substance in a situation in which that use was physically

hazardous, if there has been at any other time an instance of the use of a substance also in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous;

(ii) A verified positive drug test result acquired under an anti-drug program or internal program of The Bahamas government; or

(iii) Misuse of a substance that the Authority, based on case history and qualified medical judgement relating to the substance involved, finds makes the applicant unable to safely perform the duties or exercise the privileges of the airman certificate applied for or held; or may reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman medical certificate applied for or held, to make the applicant unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.

(11) Substance dependence. A condition in which a person is dependent on a substance, other than tobacco or ordinary xanthine-containing (e.g., caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by increased tolerance; manifestation of withdrawal symptoms; impaired control of use; or continued use despite damage to physical health or impairment of social, personal, or occupational functioning.

(12) Substance. Alcohol, sedatives, hypnotics, anxiolytics, hallucinogens, opioids, cannabis, inhalants, central nervous system stimulants such as cocaine, amphetamines, and similarly acting sympathomimetics, phency- clidine or similarly acting arylcyclohexylamines, and other psychoactive drugs and chemicals.

8.010 ACRONYMS (a) The following acronyms are used in This Schedule:

(1) AME — Aviation Medical Examiner (2) AMO — Approved Maintenance Organisation (3) AMT — Aviation Maintenance Technician (4) AOC — Air Operator Certificate (5) ARS — Aviation Repair Specialist (6) ATO — Aviation Training Organisation (7) cm — centimetre(s) (8) dB — decibels (relative to as 1 microPascal) (9) IA — Inspection Authorisation (10) IFR — Instrument Flight Rules (11) ICAO — International Civil Aviation Organisation (Civil Aviation Law) (12) PIC — Pilot In Command

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(13) SIC — Second In Command (14) VFR — Visual Flight Rules

Section II: Licences, Ratings, and Authorisations 8.015 APPLICABILITY (a) This section describes the licences, ratings and pilot authorisations issued by

the Authority and prescribes the requirements for testing and validating such licences, ratings, and authorisations.

8.020 LICENCES ISSUED (a) The Authority may issue the following licences under this Schedule —

(1) Pilot licences — (i) Student pilot;

(ii) Private pilot; (iii) Commercial pilot; and (iv) Airline transport pilot.

(2) Flight instructor licence. (3) Ground instructor licence. (4) Flight engineer licence. (5) Air traffic controller licence. (6) Senior parachute rigger licence. (7) Master parachute rigger licence. (8) AMT licence. (9) ARS licences. (10) Flight operations officer licence. (11) Flight attendant (Reserved).

8.025 RATINGS ISSUED (a) The Authority may issue the following ratings for pilots —

(1) Category ratings in the following aircraft: (i) Aeroplane.

(ii) Rotorcraft. (iii) Glider. (iv) Lighter-than-air. (v) Power lift.

Note: ICAO Annex 1, Section 2.1, uses the terms “aeroplane, helicopter, glider, and free balloon” as basic categories. The terms used above more accurately represents the diversity of aircraft in normal use today, and will be used in this Part. (2) Class ratings in the following aeroplanes:

(i) Single-engine, land. (ii) Single-engine, sea.

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(iii) Multi-engine, land. (iv) Multi-engine, sea.

(3) Class ratings in the following rotorcraft: (i) Helicopter. (ii) Gyroplane.

(4) Class ratings in the following lighter-than-air aircraft: (i) Airship. (ii) Free balloon.

(5) Type ratings in the following aircraft: (i) Large aircraft, other than lighter-than-air. (ii) Small turbojet powered aeroplanes. (iii) Small helicopters for operations requiring an airline transport

certificate. (iv) Aircraft certified for at least two pilots. (v) Any aircraft considered necessary by the Authority.

(6) Instrument ratings in the following aircraft: (i) Instrument — Aeroplane. (ii) Instrument — Helicopter.

(b) The Authority may place the category, class, or type rating on a pilot licence when issuing that licence, provided the rating reflects the appropriate category, class, or type aircraft used to demonstrate skill and knowledge for its issuance.

(c) The Authority may issue the following ratings for flight engineers: (1) Reciprocating engine powered; (2) Turbopropeller powered; and (3) Turbojet powered.

(d) The Authority may issue a facility rating for air traffic controllers. (e) The Authority may issue the following ratings for AMTs:

(1) Airframe. (2) Powerplant. (3) Aircraft type ratings for aircraft with a takeoff gross weight of more than

5700 kg. (4) Powerplant type ratings for powerplants on aircraft with a takeoff gross

weight of more than 5700 kg. (5) Other specialized ratings as may be determined by the Authority.

(f) The Authority may issue the following ratings for ARSs: (1) Propellers. (2) Avionics. (3) Instrument. (4) Computer.

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(5) Accessories. (6) Experimental Aircraft Builder.

(g) The Authority may issue the following type ratings for parachute riggers: (1) Seat. (2) Back. (3) Chest. (4) Lap.

8.030 AUTHORISATIONS ISSUED (a) The Authority may issue the following authorisations under this Schedule —

(1) Category II pilot authorisation. (2) Category III pilot authorisation. (3) Special purpose pilot authorisation. (4) Special purpose flight engineer authorisation. (5) AMT Inspection Authorisation.

8.035 DURATION OF LICENCES, RATINGS, AND AUTHORISATIONS

(a) Except as shown in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d), the Authority issues all licences without a specific expiration date.

(b) Student pilot licence. A student pilot licence expires 24 calendar months from the month in which it is issued.

(c) Flight instructor licence. A flight instructor licence expires 24 calendar months from the month in which it is issued and is effective only while the holder has a valid pilot licence.

(d) Category II and III Pilot Authorisation. A Category II or III pilot authorisation expires at the end of the sixth calendar month after the month in which it was issued or renewed.

(e) Aviation Maintenance Technician Licence/Aviation Repair Specialist licence. Except for an aviation repair specialist licence, all licences and ratings issued under this Subpart are effective until surrendered, suspended, or revoked. An aviation repair specialist licence issued on the basis of employment is effective until the holder of that licence is relieved from the duties for which the holder was employed and licenced. Note: An aviation repair specialist licence with a rating of experimental aircraft builder issued on the basis of being the primary builder of the aircraft is effective until the holder of that licence is no longer the primary builder of the experimental aircraft specifically identified on the licence.

(f) Inspection Authorisation. Each Inspection Authorisation expires on the last day of the 12th month after the date of issuance.

8.040 TEMPORARY LICENCE OR RATING (a) The Authority may issue a temporary airman licence or rating for up to 120

days, at which time the Authority will issue a permanent licence to a person whom the Authority finds qualified under this Schedule.

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(b) A temporary airman licence or rating expires — (1) On the expiration date shown on the licence; (2) Upon receipt of the permanent licence; or (3) Upon receipt of a notice that the licence or rating sought is denied or

revoked. 8.045 GENERAL REQUIREMENTS: PERSONNEL LICENCES, RATINGS,

AND AUTHORISATIONS (a) The Authority may issue to an applicant who cannot comply with certain

eligibility requirements or areas of operations required for the issue of a licence because of physical limitations, or for other reasons, a licence, rating, or authorisation with an appropriate limitation provided the — (1) Applicant is able to meet all other certification requirements for the licence,

rating, or authorisation sought; (2) Physical limitation, if any, has been recorded with the Authority on the

applicant’s medical records; and (3) Authority determines that the applicant’s inability to perform the particular

area of operation will not adversely affect safety. (b) The Authority may remove a limitation placed on a person’s licence provided

that person demonstrates to an examiner or inspector satisfactory proficiency in the area of operation to which the limitation applies, or otherwise shows compliance with conditions to remove the limitation, as applicable.

(c) No person may act as a required pilot of a civil aircraft of foreign registry within The Bahamas, unless that person’s pilot licence was issued under This Schedule, or was issued or validated by the country in which the aircraft is registered.

(d) No person may act as a pilot, flight instructor, required flight crew member, or air traffic controller unless that person holds an appropriate and current medical certificate issued under this Part, or other documentation acceptable to the Authority.

(e) Flight instructor licence. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this subsection, no person other

than the holder of a flight instructor licence with appropriate rating may — (i) Give training required to qualify a person for solo flight and solo cross-

country flight; (ii) Endorse an applicant for a pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor

licence or rating issued under this part; (iii) Endorse a pilot logbook to show training given; or (iv) Endorse a student pilot licence and logbook for solo operating

privileges. (2) The following instructors do not have to hold a flight instructor

licence — (i) The holder of a commercial pilot licence with a lighter-than-air rating,

provided the training is given in a lighter-than-air aircraft; (ii) The holder of an airline transport pilot licence with appropriate ratings,

provided the training is conducted in accordance with an approved air carrier training program;

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(iii) A person who is qualified in accordance with Schedule 9, provided the training is conducted in accordance with an approved training program;

(iv) A flight instructor, not licenced by the Authority; or (v) The holder of a ground instructor licence in accordance with the

privileges of the licence. (f) No person may act as the PIC of an aircraft unless that person holds the

appropriate category, class, and type rating (if a class rating and type rating is required) for the aircraft to be flown, except where the pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft, or — (1) Is receiving training for the purpose of obtaining an additional pilot licence

or rating that is appropriate to that aircraft while under the supervision of an authorised instructor; or

(2) Has received training required by this Part that is appropriate to the aircraft category, class, and type rating (if a class or type rating is required) for the aircraft to be flown, and has received the required endorsements from an authorised instructor.

(g) A pilot may not act as PIC of an aircraft that is carrying another person, or is operated for compensation or hire, unless that pilot holds a category, class, and type rating (if a class and type rating is required) that applies to the aircraft. Note: This subsection does not require a category and class rating for an aircraft not type certified as an aeroplane, rotorcraft, glider, powered-lift, or lighter-than- air aircraft.

(h) Except as provided in paragraph (i) of this subsection, no person may act as PIC of a complex aeroplane, high-performance aeroplane, or a pressurised aircraft capable of flight above 25,000 feet MSL, or an aircraft that the Authority has determined requires aircraft type-specific training unless the person has — (1) Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorised

instructor in the applicable aeroplane type, or in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device that is representative of that, and has been found proficient in the operation and systems of that aeroplane; and

(2) Received a one-time endorsement in the pilot’s logbook from an authorised instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate that aircraft.

(i) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (h) of this subsection is not required if the person has logged flight time as PIC of that type of aircraft, or in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device that is representative of such an aircraft, prior to [the effective date of the rule].

(j) Additional training required for operating tailwheel aeroplanes. Except as provided in paragraph (j)(3) of this subsection, no person may act as PIC of a tailwheel aeroplane unless that person has: (1) Received and logged flight training from an authorised instructor in a

tailwheel aeroplane on the manoeuvres and procedures listed in paragraph (j)(2) of this subsection.

(2) Received an endorsement in the person’s logbook from an authorised instructor who found the person proficient in the operation of a tailwheel aeroplane, to include at least normal and crosswind takeoffs and landings,

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wheel landings (unless the manufacturer has recommended against such landings), and go-around procedures.

(3) The training and endorsement required by this subsection is not required if the person logged PIC time in a tailwheel aeroplane before [the effective date of this rule].

See Appendix 2 to 8.045 for details on additional requirements and exemptions to the training requirements of this subsection.

Section III: Validation of Foreign and Military Licences and Ratings 8.050 PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE AND RATINGS ISSUED ON THE BASIS OF

A FOREIGN PILOT LICENCE (a) General. A person who holds a current pilot licence issued by another

Contracting State may apply for and be issued a private pilot licence with the appropriate ratings, unless otherwise permitted in paragraph (f) of this subsection, without any further showing of proficiency if the applicant — (1) Is not under an order of revocation or suspension by the country that issued

the pilot licence; (2) Holds a licence that does not contain an endorsement stating that the

applicant has not met all of the standards of ICAO for that licence; (3) Does not currently hold a pilot licence issued by the Authority; (4) Holds a current medical certificate issued under This Schedule or a current

medical certificate issued by the country that issued the applicant’s pilot licence; and

(5) Is able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. (b) Aircraft ratings issued. The Authority may place upon a pilot’s licence which it

issues the aircraft ratings listed on that pilot’s foreign pilot licence. (c) Instrument ratings issued. The Authority may issue an instrument rating on a

pilot licence to a person who holds an instrument rating on a licence issued by another Contracting State provided — (1) Within 24 months preceding the month in which the person applies for the

instrument rating, the applicant passes the appropriate knowledge test; and (2) The applicant is able to read, speak, write, and understand the English

language. (d) Operating privileges and limitations. A person who receives a pilot licence under

the provisions of this subsection — (1) May act as a pilot of a civil aircraft of Bahamian registry in accordance with

the private pilot privileges authorised by This Schedule; (2) Shall be limited to the privileges placed on the licence by the Authority; (3) Shall be subject to the limitations and restrictions on the person’s licence

issued by the Authority and foreign pilot licence when exercising the privileges of that pilot licence in an aircraft of Bahamian registry; and

(4) Shall not exercise the privileges of the pilot licence issued by the Authority when the person’s foreign pilot licence has been revoked or suspended.

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(e) Provision for issue of a licence on the basis of a foreign licence. (1) An applicant may use only one foreign pilot licence as a basis for obtaining

a pilot licence issued by the Authority. (2) An applicant for a licence under this subsection shall provide a foreign pilot

licence and medical certification in the English language or accompanied by an English language transcription that has been signed by an official or representative of the foreign aviation authority that issued the foreign pilot licence.

(3) The Authority will place upon a pilot licence issued under this subsection the pilot’s foreign licence number and country of issuance.

(f) The Authority may issue licences other than a private licence, or other ratings, or both, based on an arrangement with another authority.

8.055 MILITARY PILOTS OR FORMER MILITARY PILOTS: SPECIAL RULES

(a) Except for a rated military pilot or former rated military pilot who has been removed from flying status for lack of proficiency, or because of disciplinary action involving aircraft operations, a rated military pilot or former rated military pilot who meets the requirements prescribed by the Authority may apply, on the basis of his or her military training, for — (1) A commercial pilot licence; (2) An aircraft rating in the category and class of aircraft for which that military

pilot is qualified; (3) An instrument rating with the appropriate aircraft rating for which that

military pilot is qualified; and (4) A type rating, if appropriate. See Appendix 1 to 8.055 for requirements concerning military pilots and former military pilots.

Section IV: General Testing and Training Requirements 8.060 TESTS: GENERAL PROCEDURE (a) Tests prescribed by or under This Schedule are given at times and places, and by

persons designated by the Authority. 8.065 KNOWLEDGE TEST: PREREQUISITES AND PASSING GRADES (a) An applicant for a knowledge test shall have —

(1) Received an endorsement from an authorised instructor certifying that the applicant accomplished a ground-training or a home-study course required by This Schedule for the licence or rating sought and is prepared for the knowledge test; and

(2) Proper identification at the time of application that contains the applicant’s —

(i) Photograph; (ii) Signature;

(iii) Date of birth, which shows the applicant meets or will meet the age requirements of This Schedule for the licence sought before the expiration date of the airman knowledge test report; and

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(iv) Actual residential address, if different from the applicant’s mailing address.

(b) The Authority will specify the minimum passing grade for the knowledge test. 8.070 PRACTICAL TEST: PREREQUISITES (a) To be eligible for a practical test, an applicant shall meet all applicable

requirements for the licence or rating sought. See Appendix 1 to 8.070 for the eligibility requirements of a practical test.

(b) If an applicant does not complete all increments of a practical test for a licence or rating on one date, the applicant shall complete all remaining increments of the test not more than 60 calendar days after that date.

(c) If an applicant does not satisfactorily complete all increments of the practical test for a licence or a rating within 60 calendar days after beginning the test, the applicant shall retake the entire practical test, including those increments satisfactorily completed.

8.075 PRACTICAL TESTS: GENERAL PROCEDURES (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this subsection, the Authority will

determine an applicant’s ability to hold a licence or rating issued under this Subpart based upon the applicant’s ability to safely perform the following during a practical test — (1) Perform the tasks specified in the areas of operation for the licence or rating

sought within the prescribed standards; (2) Demonstrate mastery of the aircraft with the successful outcome of each

task — (i) Never seriously in doubt for the private pilot and commercial pilot

tests; and (ii) Never in doubt for the airline transport pilot licence and aircraft type

rating tests; (3) Demonstrate sound judgement; and (4) Demonstrate single-pilot competence if the aircraft is type certified for

single-pilot operations. (b) If an applicant does not demonstrate proficiency without the aid of a SIC pilot,

the Authority will place the limitation, “SIC Required” on the applicant’s airman licence. The applicant may remove the limitation by passing the appropriate practical test and by demonstrating single-pilot competency in that aircraft.

(c) If an applicant fails any area of operation, that applicant fails the practical test. (d) An applicant is not eligible for a licence or rating sought until all the areas of

operation are passed. (e) The examiner or the applicant may discontinue a practical test at any time —

(1) When the applicant fails one or more of the areas of operation; or (2) Due to inclement weather conditions, aircraft airworthiness, or any other

safety-of-flight concern. (f) If a practical test is discontinued, the Authority may give the applicant credit

for those areas of operation already passed, but only if the applicant —

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(1) Passes the remainder of the practical test within the 60-day period after the date the practical test was begun;

(2) Presents to the examiner for the retest the original notice of disapproval form or the letter of discontinuance form, as appropriate;

(3) Satisfactorily accomplishes any additional training needed and obtains the appropriate instructor endorsements, if additional training is required.

8.080 PRACTICAL TESTS: REQUIRED AIRCRAFT AND EQUIPMENT (a) Except when permitted to accomplish the entire flight increment of the practical

test in an approved flight simulator or an approved flight training device, an applicant for a licence or rating issued under this Schedule shall furnish an aircraft with the necessary equipment and controls. See Appendix 1 to 8.080 for required equipment and controls for practical tests.

8.085 RETESTING AFTER FAILURE (a) An applicant for a knowledge or practical test who fails that test may reapply for

the test only after the applicant has received — (1) The necessary training from an authorised instructor who has determined

that the applicant is proficient to pass the test; and (2) An endorsement from an authorised instructor who gave the applicant the

additional training. (b) An applicant for a flight instructor licence with an aeroplane category rating or,

for a flight instructor licence with a glider category rating, who has failed the practical test due to deficiencies in instructional proficiency on stall awareness, spin entry, spins, or spin recovery shall — (1) Comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this subsection before

being retested; (2) Bring an aircraft to the retest that is of the appropriate aircraft category for

the rating sought and is certified for spins; and (3) Demonstrate satisfactory instructional proficiency on stall awareness, spin

entry, spins, and spin recovery to an examiner during the retest. 8.090 RECORDS OF TRAINING TIME (a) Each person shall document and record the following time in a manner

acceptable to the Authority: (1) Training and aeronautical experience used to meet the requirements for a

licence, rating, qualification, authorisation, or flight review of This Schedule.

(2) The aeronautical experience required to show recent flight experience requirements of these Schedules.

See Appendix 1 to 8.090 for flight time to be recorded. 8.095 FLIGHT TRAINING RECEIVED FROM FLIGHT

INSTRUCTORS NOT LICENCED BY THE AUTHORITY (a) A person may credit flight training toward the requirements of a pilot licence or

rating if that person received the training from — (1) A flight instructor of an Armed Force in a program for training military

pilots of either —

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(i) The Bahamas; or (ii) Another Contracting State; or

(2) A flight instructor authorised to give such training by the licensing authority of a Contracting State, provided that the flight training is given outside The Bahamas.

(b) A flight instructor described in paragraph (a) of this subsection is authorised to give only the endorsements to show training given.

8.100 LIMITATIONS ON THE USE OF FLIGHT SIMULATORS AND FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICES

(a) Except as specified in paragraphs (b) or (c) of this subsection, no airman may receive credit for use of any flight simulator or flight training device for satisfying any training, testing, or checking requirement of this part unless that flight simulator or flight training device is approved by the Authority for — (1) The training, testing, and checking for which it is used; (2) Each particular manoeuvre, procedure, or crew member function per-

formed; and (3) The representation of the specific category and class of aircraft, type of

aircraft, particular variation within the type of aircraft, or set of aircraft for certain flight training devices.

(b) The Authority will consider as a flight training device any device used for flight training, testing, or checking that the Authority has accepted or approved prior [date of adoption of this rule], which any user can show to function as originally designed, provided it is used for the same purposes for which it was originally accepted or approved and only to the extent of such acceptance or approval.

(c) The Authority may approve a device other than a flight training simulator or flight training device for specific purposes. See Appendix 1 to 8.100 for requirements on the use of approved simulators and flight training devices.

8.105 GRADUATES OF A TRAINING PROGRAMME APPROVED UNDER OTHER PARTS: SPECIAL RULES

(a) The Authority will consider that a person who presents a graduation certificate from a certificate holder under Schedule 9 and within 60 days after the date of graduation, is considered to have met the applicable aeronautical experience and aeronautical knowledge and areas of operation training requirements of this Schedule appropriate to the rating sought.

SUBPART B CERTIFICATION: FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS

Section I: Aircraft Ratings and Pilot Authorisations 8.110 GENERAL REQUIREMENT (a) To be eligible for an aircraft rating or authorisation to a pilot licence, an

applicant shall meet the appropriate requirements of this Section for the aircraft rating or authorisation sought.

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8.115 INSTRUMENT RATING REQUIREMENTS (a) An applicant for an instrument rating shall —

(1) Hold a pilot licence with an aircraft category and class rating for the instrument rating sought;

(2) Receive a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorised instructor certifying that the person is prepared to take the required practical test;

(3) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas, unless the applicant already holds an instrument rating in another category; and

(4) Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation in — (i) The aircraft category, class, and type, if applicable, appropriate to the

rating sought; or (ii) A flight simulator or a flight training device appropriate to the rating

sought and approved for the specific manoeuvre or procedure performed.

(b) Aeronautical knowledge. An applicant for an instrument rating shall have received and logged ground training from an authorised instructor on the areas of aeronautical knowledge that apply to the instrument rating.

(c) Flight proficiency. An applicant for an instrument rating shall receive and log training from an authorised instructor in an aircraft, or in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this subsection.

(d) Aeronautical experience. An applicant for an instrument rating shall have logged the required aeronautical experience shown in the implementing standard for this subsection.

(e) Use of approved flight simulators or approved flight training devices. If the instrument training was provided by an authorised instructor in an approved flight simulator or an approved flight training device, an applicant may perform — (1) A maximum of 30 hours in that flight simulator or flight training device if

the training was accomplished in accordance with a training program approved under Schedule 9; or

(2) A maximum of 20 hours in that flight simulator or flight training device if the training was not accomplished in accordance with a training program approved under Schedule 9.

See Appendix 1 to 8.115 for additional requirements pertaining to the knowledge test, practical test, aeronautical experience, and aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to the instrument rating.

8.120 CATEGORY RATING (a) A pilot seeking a category rating —

(1) Shall have received the required training and possess the aeronautical experience prescribed by this part for the aircraft category and, if applicable, class and type rating sought;

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(2) Shall have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record from an authorised instructor that the applicant has been found competent in the following areas, as appropriate to the pilot licence for the aircraft category and, if applicable, class and type rating sought — (i) Aeronautical knowledge areas;

(ii) Areas of operation; (3) Shall pass the practical test applicable to the pilot licence for the aircraft

category and, if applicable, class and type rating sought; and (4) Need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the applicant holds

an aeroplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship rating at that pilot licence level.

8.125 CLASS RATING (a) A pilot seeking an additional class rating —

(1) Shall have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record from an authorised instructor that the applicant has been found competent in the following areas, as appropriate to the pilot licence and for the aircraft class rating sought: (i) Aeronautical knowledge areas;

(ii) Areas of operation; (2) Shall pass the practical test applicable to the pilot licence for the aircraft

class rating sought; (3) Need not meet the training time requirements prescribed by this Part for the

aircraft class rating sought; and (4) Need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the applicant holds an

aeroplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship rating at that pilot licence level.

8.130 TYPE RATING (a) To act as a PIC of any of the following aircraft, a pilot shall hold a type rating

for that aircraft: (1) Large aircraft (except lighter-than-air). (2) Turbojet or turbofan powered aeroplanes. (3) Other aircraft specified by the Authority through aircraft type certificate

procedures. (b) Except as specified in paragraph (b)(6), a pilot seeking an aircraft type rating to

be added on a pilot licence, or the addition of an aircraft type rating that is accomplished concurrently with an additional aircraft category or class rating — (1) Shall hold or concurrently obtain an instrument rating that is appropriate to

the aircraft category, class, or type rating sought; (2) Shall have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record from an

authorised instructor that the applicant has been found competent in the following areas, as appropriate to the pilot licence for the aircraft category, class and type rating sought —

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(i) Aeronautical knowledge areas; (ii) Areas of operation;

(3) Shall pass the practical test applicable to the pilot licence for the aircraft category, class, and type rating sought;

(4) Except as provided for in paragraphs (e) and (f), shall perform the practical test under instrument flight rules;

(5) Need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the applicant holds an aeroplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship rating on their pilot licence; and

(6) In the case of a pilot employee of an AOC holder, shall have — (i) Met the appropriate requirements of paragraphs (b)(1), (4) and (5)

for the aircraft type rating sought; and (ii) Received an endorsement in his or her flight training record from

the certificate holder certifying that the applicant has completed the certificate holder’s approved ground and flight training program appropriate to the aircraft type rating sought.

(c) An applicant for a type rating who provides an aircraft not capable of the instrument manoeuvres and procedures required by the appropriate require- ments for the practical test may — (1) Obtain a type rating limited to “VFR only”; and (2) Remove the “VFR only” limitation for each aircraft type in which the

applicant demonstrates compliance with the appropriate instrument requirements of these schedules.

(d) The Authority may issue to an applicant for a type rating a licence with the limitation “VFR only” for each aircraft type not equipped for the applicant to show instrument proficiency.

(e) An applicant for a type rating in a multi-engine, single-pilot station aeroplane may meet the requirements of paragraph (b) in a multiseat version of that multiengine aeroplane.

(f) An applicant for a type rating in a single-engine, single-pilot station aeroplane may meet the requirements of paragraph (b) in a multiseat version of that single- engine aeroplane.

(g) Unless the Authority requires certain or all tasks to be performed, the examiner who conducts the practical test may waive any of the tasks for which the Authority approves waiver authority.

8.135 CATEGORY II AND III PILOT AUTHORISATION REQUIREMENTS

(a) General. An applicant for a Category II or Category III pilot authorisation shall — (1) Hold a pilot licence with an instrument rating or an airline transport pilot

licence; (2) Hold a category and class rating, and type rating, if applicable, for the

aircraft for which the authorisation is sought; and (3) Complete the practical test requirements.

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(b) Experience requirements. An applicant for a Category II or Category III pilot authorisation shall have at least — (1) 50 hours of night flight time as PIC; (2) 75 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated instrument

conditions that may include not more than: (i) A combination of 25 hours of simulated instrument flight time in an

approved flight simulator or an approved flight training device; or (ii) 40 hours of simulated instrument flight time if accomplished in an

approved course conducted by an appropriately rated ATO; (3) 250 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC.

(c) Upon passing a practical test for a Category II or III pilot authorisation, a pilot may renew that authorisation for each type of aircraft for which the pilot holds authorisation.

(d) The Authority may not renew a Category II or Category III pilot authorisation for a specific type aircraft for which an authorisation is held beyond 12 calendar months from the month the applicant satisfactorily passed a practical test in that type aircraft.

(e) If the holder of a Category II or Category III pilot authorisation passes the practical test for a renewal in the month before the authorisation expires, the Authority will consider that the holder passed it during the month the authorisation expired. See Appendix 1 to 8.135 for additional requirements concerning Category II and III pilot authorisations.

8.140 SPECIAL PURPOSE PILOT AUTHORISATION: A PERSON WHO IS NOT A CITIZEN OF THE BAHAMAS

(a) General. The Authority may issue to the holder of a foreign pilot licence issued by another Contracting State a special purpose pilot authorisation, after the applicant meets the requirements for — (1) Performing pilot duties on a civil aircraft of The Bahamas registry that is

leased to a person who is not a citizen of The Bahamas; and (2) Use of that aircraft in commercial air transportation. See Appendix 1 to 8.140 for eligibility requirements, privileges, and limitations associated with special purpose pilot authorisations.

Section II: Student Pilots 8.145 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of student pilot

licences, the conditions under which those licences are necessary, and the general operating rules and limitations for the holders of those licences.

8.150 ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS FOR STUDENT PILOTS

(a) To be eligible for a student pilot licence, an applicant shall — (1) Be at least 16 years of age for other than the operation of a glider or balloon; (2) Be at least 14 years of age for the operation of a glider or balloon; and (3) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language.

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8.155 APPLICATION (a) An applicant for a student pilot licence shall apply to —

(1) A designated aviation medical examiner if applying for a medical certificate; (2) An examiner; or (3) An office designated by the Authority.

8.160 SOLO REQUIREMENTS FOR STUDENT PILOTS (a) General. A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight unless that

student has met the requirements of this subsection. (b) Aeronautical knowledge.

(1) A student pilot shall satisfactorily pass an aeronautical knowledge test on the following subjects —

(i) Applicable sections of this Schedule and Schedule 10; (ii) Airspace rules and procedures for the airport where the student will

perform solo flight; and (iii) Flight characteristics and operational limitations for the make and

model of aircraft to be flown. (2) The student’s authorised instructor shall —

(i) Administer the test; and (ii) At the conclusion of the test, review all incorrect answers with the

student before authorising that student to conduct a solo flight. (c) Pre-solo flight training. Prior to conducting a solo flight, a student pilot shall

have — (1) Received and logged flight training for the manoeuvres and procedures of

this subsection that are appropriate to the make and model of aircraft to be flown; and

(2) Demonstrated satisfactory proficiency and safety, as judged by an authorised instructor, on the manoeuvres and procedures required by this subsection in the make and model of aircraft or similar make and model of aircraft to be flown.

(d) Manoeuvres and procedures for pre-solo flight training. A student pilot shall receive and log flight training for required manoeuvres and procedures. See Appendix 1 to 8.160 for required manoeuvres and procedures for a student pilot.

8.165 GENERAL LIMITATIONS (a) A student pilot may not act as PIC of an aircraft —

(1) That is carrying a passenger; (2) That is carrying property for compensation or hire; (3) That is operated for compensation or hire; (4) In furtherance of a business; (5) On an international flight;

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(6) With a flight or surface visibility of less than 3 statute miles during daylight hours or 5 statute miles at night;

(7) When the flight cannot be made with visual reference to the surface; or (8) In a manner contrary to any limitations placed in the pilot’s logbook by an

authorised instructor. (b) A student pilot may not act as a required pilot flight crew member on any aircraft

for which more than one pilot is required by the aircraft type certificate or by these Schedules under which the flight is conducted, except when receiving flight training from an authorised instructor on board an airship, and no person other than a required flight crew member is carried on the aircraft.

(c) A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight unless that student pilot has received within the 90 days preceding the date of the flight an endorsement from an authorised instructor for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown made — (1) On his or her student pilot licence; and (2) In the student’s logbook.

(d) A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight at night unless that student pilot has received — (1) Flight training at night that includes takeoffs, approaches, landings, and go-

arounds at night at the airport where the student will conduct solo flight; (2) Navigation training at night in the vicinity of the airport where the student

pilot will conduct solo flight; and (3) An endorsement for night solo flight.

8.170 SOLO CROSS-COUNTRY FLIGHT REQUIREMENTS (a) General.

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this subsection, a student pilot shall meet the requirements of this subsection before — (i) Conducting a solo cross-country flight, or any flight greater than 25

nautical miles from the airport from where the flight originated; and (ii) Making a solo flight and landing at any location other than the airport

of origination. (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this subsection, a student pilot who

seeks solo cross-country flight privileges shall — (i) Have received flight training from an authorised instructor on the

manoeuvres and procedures of this subsection that are appropriate to the make and model of aircraft for which solo cross-country privileges are sought;

(ii) Have demonstrated cross-country proficiency on the appropriate manoeuvres and procedures of this subsection to an authorised instructor;

(iii) Have satisfactorily accomplished the required pre-solo flight man- oeuvres and procedures in the make and model of aircraft or similar make and model of aircraft for which solo cross-country privileges are sought; and

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(iv) Comply with any limitations included in the instructor’s endorsement that are required by paragraph (c) of this subsection.

(3) A student pilot who seeks solo cross-country flight privileges shall have received ground and flight training from an authorised instructor on the cross-country manoeuvres and procedures listed in this subsection that are appropriate to the aircraft to be flown.

(b) Authorisation to perform certain solo flights and cross-country flights. A student pilot shall obtain an endorsement from an authorised instructor to make solo flights, subject to the following conditions — (1) A student pilot may make solo flights to another airport that is within 25

nautical miles from the airport where the student pilot normally receives training, provided —

(i) The authorised instructor who makes the endorsement gave the student pilot flight training at the other airport, and that training included flight in both directions over the route, entering and exiting the traffic pattern, and takeoffs and landings at the other airport;

(ii) The student pilot has a current solo flight endorsement; (iii) The instructor has determined that the student pilot is proficient to

make the flight; and (iv) The purpose of the flight is to practise takeoffs and landings at that

other airport. (2) A student pilot may make repeated specific solo cross-country flights to

another airport that is within 50 nautical miles of the airport from which the flight originated, provided —

(i) The authorised instructor who gave the endorsement gave the student flight training in both directions over the route, including entering and exiting the traffic patterns, takeoffs, and landings at the airport to be used;

(ii) The student has current solo flight endorsements; and (iii) The student has a current solo cross-country flight endorsement in

accordance with paragraph (c) of this subsection, except that separate endorsements are not required for each flight made under this paragraph.

(c) Endorsements for solo cross-country flights. Except as specified in paragraph (b)(2), a student pilot shall have the endorsements prescribed in this paragraph for each make and model aircraft the student will fly on each cross-country flight — (1) Student pilot licence endorsement.

(i) A student pilot shall have a solo cross-country endorsement placed on the student pilot licence by the authorised instructor who conducted the training.

(2) Logbook endorsement. (i) A student pilot shall have a solo cross-country endorsement placed in

the student pilot’s logbook by the authorised instructor who conducted the training.

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(ii) A licenced pilot who is receiving training for an additional aircraft category and class rating shall have an endorsement placed in the pilot’s logbook by the authorised instructor who conducted the training.

(d) Manoeuvres and procedures for cross-country flight training. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight shall receive and log flight training in the required manoeuvres and procedures. See Appendix 1 to 8.170 for list of required manoeuvres and procedures.

Section III: Private Pilots 8.175 APPLICABILITY (a) This subsection prescribes the requirements for the issuance of private pilot

licences and ratings, and the conditions under which those licences and ratings are necessary.

8.180 ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL (a) To be eligible for a private pilot licence, a person shall —

(1) Be at least 17 years of age for a rating in other than a glider or balloon. (2) Be at least 16 years of age for a rating in a glider or balloon. (3) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. (4) Receive a logbook endorsement for the knowledge test from an authorised

instructor who — (i) Conducted the training or reviewed the person’s home study on the

prescribed aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to the aircraft rating sought; and

(ii) Certified that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test. (5) Pass the required knowledge test on the prescribed aeronautical knowledge

areas. (6) Receive flight training and a logbook endorsement from an authorised

instructor who — (i) Conducted the training in the areas of operation that apply to the

aircraft rating sought; and (ii) Certified that the person is prepared for the required practical test.

(7) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this Subpart that apply to the aircraft rating sought before applying for the practical test.

(8) Pass a practical test on the areas of operation that apply to the aircraft rating sought.

(9) Comply with the appropriate sections of this Subpart that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

8.185 AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE (a) An applicant for a private pilot licence shall receive and log ground training

from an authorised instructor on the aeronautical knowledge areas prescribed by the Authority. See Appendix 1 to 8.185 for a list of aeronautical knowledge areas required for a private pilot licence.

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8.190 FLIGHT PROFICIENCY (a) An applicant for a private pilot licence shall receive and log ground and flight

training from an authorised instructor on the following areas of operation — (1) For all categories and class ratings, as applicable —

(i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Airport and seaplane base operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance manoeuvres; (vi) Ground reference manoeuvres;

(vii) Navigation; (viii) Slow flight and stalls;

(ix) Basic instrument manoeuvres; (x) Emergency operations;

(xi) Night operations; and (xii) Postflight procedures.

(2) For the category and class ratings shown below, the applicable areas of operation shown in paragraph (a) and —

(i) Aeroplane category rating with a multi-engine class rating — (A) Multi-engine operations.

(ii) Rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating — (A) Airport and heliport operations; and (B) Hovering manoeuvres.

(iii) Rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating — (A) Flight at slow airspeeds.

(iv) Powered-lift category rating — (A) Airport and heliport operations; and (B) Hovering manoeuvres.

(v) Glider category rating — (A) Airport and gliderport operations; (B) Launches and landings; (C) Performance speeds; and (D) Soaring techniques.

(vi) Lighter-than-air category rating with a balloon class rating — (A) Launches and landings.

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8.195 AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE (a) An applicant for a private pilot licence with an aeroplane, rotorcraft, or powered-

lift category rating shall receive and log one of the following minimum flight training times — (1) At least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight

training from an authorised instructor; and (2) 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation prescribed by the

Authority; See Appendix 1 to 8.195 for minimum aeronautical training requirement.

(b) Except when fewer hours are approved by the Authority, an applicant who has satisfactorily completed a private pilot course conducted by an ATO need have only a total of 35 hours of aeronautical experience;

(c) An applicant for a private pilot licence may credit one of the following in an approved flight simulator or an approved flight training device representing the category, class, and type, if applicable, of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought — (1) A maximum of 2.5 hours of training, if received from an authorised

instructor other than an ATO; or (2) A maximum of 5 hours of training if the training is accomplished in a course

conducted by an ATO. 8.200 CROSS-COUNTRY FLIGHTS: PILOTS BASED ON

SMALL ISLANDS (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this subsection, an applicant located on

an island from which the required cross-country flight training cannot be accomplished without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline need not comply with the requirements of that section.

(b) If other airports that permit civil operations are available to which a flight may be made without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline, the applicant shall show completion of two round-trip solo flights between those two airports that are farthest apart, including a landing at each airport on both flights.

(c) The Authority shall issue to an applicant who complies with paragraph (a) or paragraph (b) of this subsection, and meets all requirements for the issuance of a private pilot licence, except the cross-country training requirements of this Subpart, a pilot licence with an endorsement containing the following limitation, “Passenger carrying prohibited on flights more than 10 nautical miles from (the appropriate island)”. The Authority may subsequently amend the limitation to include another island if the applicant complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) or paragraph (b) of this subsection for another island.

(d) Upon meeting the cross-country training requirements, an applicant may have the limitation in paragraph (c) of this subsection removed.

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8.205 PRIVATE PILOT PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS: REQUIRED CREW MEMBER

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this subsection, a private pilot may not act as a required crew member of an aircraft — (1) Carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire; or (2) Operated for compensation or hire.

(b) A private pilot may, for compensation or hire, act as a required crew member of an aircraft in connection with any business or employment if — (1) The flight is only incidental to that business or employment; and (2) The aircraft does not carry passengers or property for compensation or hire.

(c) A private pilot may act as a required crew member of an aircraft used in a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by a charitable organisation described in paragraph (c)(7) of this subsection, and for which the passengers make a donation to the organisation, when the following requirements are met — (1) The sponsor of the airlift notifies the office of the Authority with

jurisdiction over the area concerned at least 7 days before the event and furnishes —

(i) A signed letter from the sponsor that shows the name of the sponsor, the purpose of the charitable event, the date and time of the event, and the location of the event; and

(ii) A photocopy of each required crew member’s pilot licence, medical certificate, and logbook entries that show the pilot is current and has logged at least 200 hours of flight time;

(2) The flight is conducted from a public airport that is adequate for the aircraft to be used, or from another airport that has been approved by the Authority for the operation;

(3) No aerobatic or formation flights are conducted; (4) Each aircraft used for the charitable event holds a standard airworthiness

certificate; (5) Each aircraft used for the charitable event is airworthy and complies with

the applicable requirements of Schedule 10; (6) Each flight for the charitable event is made during day VFR conditions; and (7) The charitable organisation is an organisation identified as such by the

appropriate authority of the government. (d) A private pilot may be reimbursed for aircraft operating expenses that are

directly related to search and location operations, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees, and the operation is sanctioned and under the direction and control of — (1) A local, State, or Federal agency; or (2) An organisation that conducts search and location operations.

(e) A private pilot who is an aircraft salesman and who has at least 200 hours of logged flight time may demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer.

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(f) A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

(g) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this subsection, no private pilot may, for compensation or hire, act as SIC of an aircraft that is type certified for more than one pilot.

8.210 PRIVATE PILOT WITH BALLOON RATING: LIMITATIONS (a) If an applicant for a private pilot licence with a balloon rating takes a practical

test in a balloon with an airborne heater — (1) The Authority shall place upon the pilot licence a limitation restricting the

exercise of the privileges of that licence to a balloon with an airborne heater; and

(2) The pilot may remove the limitation by obtaining the required aeronautical experience in a gas balloon and receiving a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor who attests to the person’s accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a gas balloon.

(b) If an applicant for a private pilot licence with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a gas balloon — (1) The Authority shall place upon the pilot licence a limitation restricting the

exercise of the privilege of that licence to a gas balloon; and (2) The pilot may remove the limitation by obtaining the required aeronautical

experience in a balloon with an airborne heater and receiving a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor who attests to the pilot’s accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a balloon with an airborne heater.

Section IV: Commercial Pilots 8.215 APPLICABILITY (a) This subsection prescribes the requirements for the issuance of commercial pilot

licences and ratings, and the conditions under which those licences and ratings are necessary.

8.220 ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL (a) To be eligible for a commercial pilot licence, a person shall —

(1) Be at least 18 years of age; (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. (3) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor who —

(i) Conducted the required ground training or reviewed the person’s home study on the aeronautical knowledge areas prescribed by the Authority that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and

(ii) Certified that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test that applies to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

(4) Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas prescribed by the Authority;

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(5) Receive the required training and a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor who — (i) Conducted the training on the areas of operation prescribed by the

Authority that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and

(ii) Certified that the person is prepared for the required practical test. (6) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this Subpart that apply

to the aircraft category and class rating sought before applying for the practical test;

(7) Pass the required practical test on the prescribed areas of operation that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought;

(8) Hold a private pilot licence issued under this Subpart or meet the requirements pertaining to military licences; and

(9) Comply with all sections of this Subpart that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

8.225 COMMERCIAL PILOT: AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall receive and log ground training from an authorised instructor, or complete a home-study course on the required aeronautical knowledge areas prescribed by the Authority. See Appendix 1 to 8.225 for specific aeronautical knowledge area requirements.

8.230 COMMERCIAL PILOT: FLIGHT PROFICIENCY REQUIREMENTS (a) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall receive and log ground and

flight training from an authorised instructor on the areas of operation of this subsection that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought. See Appendix 1 to 8.230 for detailed requirements concerning training for aircraft category and class ratings sought.

8.235 COMMERCIAL PILOT: AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE (a) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall obtain the required 250 flight

hours of aeronautical experience prescribed by the Authority — (1) Except when fewer hours are approved by the Authority, an applicant who

has satisfactorily completed a commercial pilot course conducted by an ATO need have only the following total aeronautical experience to meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this subsection:

(i) 190 hours for an aeroplane or powered-lift rating; (ii) 150 hours for a helicopter rating.

(b) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence may credit one of the maximum times for training in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device representing the applicable category, class, and type of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought —

(i) 50 hours for an aeroplane or powered-lift rating; (ii) 25 hours for a helicopter rating;

(iii) 100 hours for an aeroplane or powered-lift rating in a course conducted by an ATO; or

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(iv) 50 hours for a helicopter rating in a course conducted by an ATO. See Appendix 1 to 8.235 for specific required aeronautical experience.

8.240 COMMERCIAL PILOT PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS (a) Privileges.

(1) General. A commercial pilot licence may act as PIC of an aircraft for compensation or hire, including the carriage of persons or property for compensation or hire, provided the pilot is qualified in accordance with the applicable parts of these schedule.

(2) A commercial pilot with a lighter-than-air category ratings may — (i) For an airship —

(A) Give flight and ground training in an airship for the issuance of a licence or rating;

(B) Endorse a pilot licence for an airship; and (C) Act as PIC of an airship under IFR.

(ii) For a balloon — (A) Give flight and ground training in a balloon for the issuance of a

licence or rating; and (B) Endorse a pilot licence for a balloon.

(b) Limitations. (1) The Authority shall issue to an applicant for a commercial pilot licence with

an aeroplane category or powered-lift category rating who does not hold an instrument rating in the same category and class a commercial pilot licence that contains the limitation: “The carriage of passengers for hire in (aeroplanes) (powered-lifts) on cross-country flights in excess of 50 nautical miles or at night is prohibited”.

(2) A pilot may remove the limitation specified in paragraph (b)(1) by satisfactorily accomplishing the requirements prescribed by the Authority for an instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft that has the limitation.

(3) If an applicant for a commercial pilot licence with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a balloon with an airborne heater —

(i) The Authority shall place upon the pilot licence a limitation restricting the exercise of the privileges of that licence to a balloon with an airborne heater.

(ii) The pilot may remove the limitation specified in paragraph (b)(3)(i) by obtaining the required aeronautical experience in a gas balloon and receiving a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor who attests to the pilot’s accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a gas balloon.

(4) If an applicant for a commercial pilot licence with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a gas balloon —

(i) The Authority shall place upon the pilot licence a limitation restricting the exercise of the privileges of that licence to a gas balloon; and

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(ii) The pilot may remove the limitation specified in paragraph (b)(4)(i) by obtaining the required aeronautical experience in a balloon with an airborne heater and receiving a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor who attests to the person’s accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a balloon with an airborne heater.

Section V: Airline Transport Pilots 8.245 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of airline transport

pilot licences and ratings, and the conditions under which those licences and ratings are necessary.

8.250 ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL (a) To be eligible for an airline transport pilot licence, a person shall —

(1) Be at least 21 years of age; (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language; (3) Meet at least one of the following requirements —

(i) Hold a valid and current commercial pilot licence and an instrument rating;

(ii) Meet the military experience requirements to qualify for a commercial pilot licence, and an instrument rating if the person is a rated military pilot or former rated military pilot of an Armed Force of The Bahamas; or

(iii) Hold either a foreign airline transport pilot or foreign commercial pilot licence and an instrument rating issued by another Contracting State;

(4) Meet the aeronautical applicable experience requirements of this Subpart before applying for the practical test;

(5) Pass a knowledge test on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas prescribed by the Authority that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought;

(6) Pass the practical test on the applicable areas of operation prescribed by the Authority that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

8.255 AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE (a) General. The Authority will administer a knowledge test for an airline transport

pilot licence based on the aeronautical knowledge areas appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

(b) An applicant for an air transport licence shall receive and log ground training from an authorised instructor, or complete a home-study course on the required aeronautical knowledge areas prescribed by the Authority.

8.260 FLIGHT PROFICIENCY (a) An applicant for an airline transport pilot licence shall receive and log ground

and flight training from an authorised instructor on the areas of operation of this subsection that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought. See Appendix 1 to 8.260 for detailed requirements concerning training for aircraft category and class ratings sought.

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8.265 AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE: AEROPLANE CATEGORY RATING

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this subsection, an applicant for an airline transport pilot licence with an aeroplane category and class rating shall have at least 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least — (1) 500 hours of cross-country flight time; (2) 100 hours of night flight time; (3) 75 hours of instrument flight time, in actual or simulated instrument

conditions — (4) Not more than one of the following in an approved flight simulator or

approved flight training device representing an aeroplane — (i) 25 hours of simulated instrument time;

(ii) 50 hours of simulated instrument time if the training was accomplished in a course conducted by an ATO;

(5) 100 hours of aeronautical experience requirements in an approved course conducted by an ATO; and

(6) 250 hours of flight time in an aeroplane as a PIC, or as SIC performing the duties and functions of a PIC while under the supervision of a PIC or any combination thereof, which includes at least —

(i) 100 hours of cross-country flight time; and (ii) 25 hours of night flight time.

(b) A pilot who has performed at least 20 night takeoffs and landings to a full stop may substitute each additional night takeoff and landing to a full stop for 1 hour of night flight time to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this subsection, not to exceed 25 hours of night flight time.

(c) A commercial pilot applicant may credit the following SIC flight time or flight- engineer flight time toward the 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot required by paragraph (a) of this subsection — (1) SIC time acquired in an aeroplane —

(i) Required to have more than one pilot by the aeroplane’s flight manual or type certificate; or

(ii) Engaged in operations under Schedule 12 for which a SIC is required. (2) Flight-engineer time acquired —

(i) In an aeroplane required to have a flight engineer by the aeroplane’s flight manual or type certificate;

(ii) While engaged in operations under Schedule 12 for which a flight engineer is required;

(iii) While the pilot is participating in a pilot training program approved under Schedule 12; and

(iv) That does not exceed 1 hour for each 3 hours of flight engineer flight time for a total credited time of no more than 500 hours.

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8.270 AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE: ROTORCRAFT CATEGORY AND HELICOPTER CLASS RATING

(a) An applicant for an airline transport pilot licence with a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating, shall have at least 1,200 hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least — (1) 500 hours of cross-country flight time; (2) 100 hours of night flight time, of which 15 hours are in helicopters; (3) 200 hours of flight time in helicopters, which includes at least 75 hours as

a PIC, or as SIC performing the duties and functions of a PIC under the supervision of a PIC, or any combination thereof; and

(4) 75 hours of instrument flight time in actual or simulated instrument meteorological conditions, of which at least 50 hours are obtained in flight with at least 25 hours in helicopters as a PIC, or as SIC performing the duties and functions of a PIC under the supervision of a PIC, or any combination thereof.

(5) Not more than one of the following in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device representing a rotorcraft —

(i) 25 hours of simulated instrument time; (ii) 50 hours of simulated instrument time if the training was accomplished

in a course conducted by an ATO. 8.275 AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE: POWERED-LIFT

FLIGHT TIME (a) An applicant for an airline transport pilot licence with a powered-lift category

rating shall have at least 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot that includes at least — (1) 500 hours of cross-country flight time; (2) 100 hours of night flight time; (3) 250 hours in a powered-lift as a PIC, or as a SIC performing the duties and

functions of a PIC under the supervision of a PIC, or any combination thereof, which includes at least —

(i) 100 hours of cross-country flight time; and (ii) 25 hours of night flight time.

(4) 75 hours of instrument flight time in actual or simulated instrument conditions;

(5) Not more than one of the following in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device representing a powered-lift —

(i) 25 hours of simulated instrument time; (ii) 50 hours of simulated instrument time if the training was accomplished

in a course conducted by an ATO. (b) 100 hours of aeronautical experience in an approved course conducted by an

ATO.

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8.280 ADDITIONAL AIRCRAFT CATEGORY, CLASS, AND TYPE RATINGS

(a) An applicant for an airline transport licence with a category rating who holds an airline transport pilot licence with another aircraft category rating shall — (1) Meet the applicable eligibility requirements; (2) Pass a knowledge test on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas; (3) Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements; and (4) Pass the practical test on the areas of operation.

(b) Aircraft type rating. An applicant for an aircraft type rating to an airline transport pilot licence is not required to pass a knowledge test if that pilot’s airline transport pilot licence lists the aircraft category and class rating that is appropriate to the type rating sought.

8.285 AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT PRIVILEGES (a) The Authority extends to the holder of an airline transport pilot licence the

same privileges as those extended to a holder of a commercial pilot licence with an instrument rating and the privilege to act as PIC and SIC in aircraft in commercial air transportation.

(b) An airline transport pilot may instruct — (1) Other pilots in air transportation service in aircraft of the category, class,

and type, as applicable, for which the airline transport pilot is rated, and in simulation of those aircraft, and endorse the logbook or other training record of the person to whom training has been given;

(2) Only as provided in this subsection, unless the airline transport pilot also holds a flight instructor licence, in which case the holder may exercise the instructor privileges of This Schedule for which he or she is rated.

(c) Excluding briefings and debriefings, an airline transport pilot may not instruct in aircraft, approved flight simulators, and approved flight training devices under this subsection — (1) For more than 8 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period; or (2) For more than 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.

(d) An airline transport pilot may not instruct in Category II or Category III operations unless he or she has been trained and successfully tested under Category II or Category III operations, as applicable.

Section VI: Flight Instructors 8.290 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart prescribes the requirements for the issuance of flight instructor

licences and ratings, the conditions under which those licences and ratings are necessary, and the limitations on those licences and ratings.

8.295 ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS (a) To be eligible for a flight instructor licence or rating a person shall —

(1) Be at least 18 years of age. (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language.

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(3) Hold either a commercial pilot licence or airline transport pilot licence with — (i) An aircraft category and class rating that is appropriate to the flight

instructor rating sought; and (ii) An instrument rating, if the person holds a commercial pilot licence and

is applying for a flight instructor licence with — (A) An aeroplane category and single-engine class rating; (B) An aeroplane category and multi-engine class rating; (C) A powered-lift rating; or (D) An instrument rating.

(4) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor on the fundamentals of instructing prescribed by the Authority appropriate to the required knowledge test.

(5) Pass a knowledge test on the areas prescribed by the Authority, (6) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor on the areas

of operation prescribed by the Authority appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought.

(7) Pass the required practical test that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought in an — (i) Aircraft that is representative of the category and class of aircraft

for the aircraft rating sought; or (ii) Approved flight simulator or approved flight training device that is

representative of the category and class of aircraft for the rating sought, and used in accordance with an approved course at an ATO.

(8) Accomplish the following for a flight instructor licence with an aeroplane or a glider rating: (i) Receive a logbook endorsement from an authorised instructor

indicating that the applicant is competent and possesses instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures after receiving flight training in those training areas in an aeroplane or glider, as appropriate, that is certified for spins.

(ii) Demonstrate instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures.

(9) An examiner may accept the endorsement specified in paragraph (9)(i) of this subsection as satisfactory evidence of instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures for the practical test, provided that the practical test is not a retest as a result of the applicant failing the previous test for deficiencies in those knowledge or skill areas.

(10) If a retest is the result of deficiencies in the ability of an applicant to demonstrate the requisite knowledge or skill, the applicant shall demonstrate the knowledge and skill to an examiner in an aeroplane or glider, as appropriate, that is certified for spins.

(11) Log at least 15 hours as PIC in the category and class of aircraft that is appropriate to the flight instructor rating sought; and

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(12) Comply with the appropriate sections that apply to the flight instructor rating sought.

8.300 AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE (a) An applicant for a flight instructor licence shall receive and log ground training

from an authorised instructor on — (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this subsection, the fundamentals of

instructing, including — (i) The learning process;

(ii) Elements of effective teaching; (iii) Student evaluation and testing; (iv) Course development; (v) Lesson planning; and

(vi) Classroom training techniques; (2) The aeronautical knowledge areas for a private and commercial pilot licence

applicable to the aircraft category for which flight instructor privileges are sought; and

(3) The aeronautical knowledge areas for the instrument rating applicable to the category for which instrument flight instructor privileges are sought.

(b) The following applicants do not need to comply with paragraph (a) of this subsection — (1) The holder of a ground instructor licence issued under this part; (2) The holder of a current teacher’s certificate issued by a national or local

authority that authorises the person to teach at an educational level of the 7th grade or higher; or

(3) A person employed as a teacher at an accredited college or university. 8.305 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR: AREAS OF OPERATION FOR FLIGHT

PROFICIENCY (a) An applicant for a flight instructor licence shall receive and log flight and

ground training, and an endorsement from an authorised instructor, that the person is proficient to pass a practical test for the flight instructor rating sought.

(b) An applicant may accomplish the flight training required by this subsection — (1) In an aircraft that is representative of the category and class of aircraft for

the rating sought; or (2) In a flight simulator or flight training device representative of the category

and class of aircraft for the rating sought, and used in accordance with an approved course at an ATO.

See Appendix 1 to 8.305 for a list of areas of operation that apply to the practical test for a flight instructor rating.

8.310 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR RECORDS (a) A flight instructor shall —

(1) Sign the logbook of each person to whom that instructor has given flight training or ground training;

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(2) Maintain a record in a logbook or a separate document that contains the following — (i) The name of each person whose logbook or student pilot licence that

instructor has endorsed for solo flight privileges, and the date of the endorsement; and

(ii) The name of each person that instructor has endorsed for a knowledge test or practical test, and a record of the kind of test, the date, and the results; and

(3) Retain the records required by this subsection for at least 3 years. 8.315 ADDITIONAL FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR RATINGS (a) An applicant for an additional flight instructor rating on a flight instructor

licence shall meet the eligibility requirements prescribed by the Authority that apply to the flight instructor rating sought.

(b) An applicant for an additional rating on a flight instructor licence is not required to pass the knowledge test on the areas prescribed by the Authority.

8.320 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR PRIVILEGES (a) A flight instructor is authorised within the limitations of that person’s flight

instructor licence and ratings, and pilot licence and ratings, to give training and endorsements that are required for, and relate to — (1) A student pilot licence; (2) A pilot licence; (3) A flight instructor licence; (4) A ground instructor licence; (5) An aircraft rating; (6) An instrument rating; (7) A flight review, operating privilege, or recency of experience requirement; (8) A practical test; and (9) A knowledge test.

8.325 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR LIMITATIONS AND QUALIFICATIONS (a) The holder of a flight instructor certificate shall observe the limitations and

qualifications applicable to flight instructors. See Appendix 1 to 8.325 for detailed list of flight instructor limitations and qualifications.

8.330 RENEWAL OF FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR LICENCES (a) A flight instructor licence that has not expired may be renewed for an additional

24 calendar months if the holder — (1) Passes a practical test for —

(i) Renewal of the flight instructor licence; or (ii) An additional flight instructor rating; or

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(2) Presents to the Authority — (i) A record of training students that shows during the preceding 24

calendar months the flight instructor has endorsed at least five students for a practical test for a licence or rating, and at least 80 percent of those students passed that test on the first attempt;

(ii) A record that shows that within the preceding 24 calendar months, service as a company check pilot, chief flight instructor, company check airman, or flight instructor in a Schedule 12 operation, or in a position involving the regular evaluation of pilots; or

(iii) A graduation certificate showing that the pilot has successfully completed an approved flight instructor refresher course consisting of ground training or flight training, or both, within the 90 days preceding the expiration month of his or her flight instructor licence.

(b) If a flight instructor accomplishes the renewal requirements within the 90 days preceding the expiration month of his or her flight instructor licence — (1) The Authority shall consider that the flight instructor accomplished the

renewal requirement in the month due; and (2) The Authority shall renew the current flight instructor licence for an

additional 24 calendar months from its expiration date. (c) A flight instructor may accomplish the practical test required by paragraph

(a)(1) of this subsection in an approved course conducted by an ATO. 8.335 EXPIRED FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR LICENCES AND

RATINGS (a) The holder of an expired flight instructor licence may exchange that licence for a

new licence by passing the prescribed practical test. Section VII: Flight Engineers 8.340 APPLICABILITY (a) This Section prescribes the requirements for issuing flight engineer licences. 8.345 LICENCES AND RATINGS REQUIRED (a) No person may act as a flight engineer of a civil aircraft of The Bahamas registry

unless he or she has a flight engineer licence with appropriate ratings. (b) When a flight engineer is operating in a foreign country, a flight engineer may

use a current flight engineer licence issued by the country in which the aircraft is operated.

8.350 SPECIAL PURPOSE FLIGHT ENGINEER LICENCE: A PERSON NOT A CITIZEN OF THE BAHAMAS

(a) General. (1) The Authority may issue to the holder of a current flight engineer licence,

or authorisation issued by another Contracting State, who meets the requirements of this subsection, a special purpose flight engineer licence authorising the holder to perform flight engineer duties on a civil aeroplane of The Bahamas registry, leased to a person not a citizen of The Bahamas, carrying persons or property for compensation or hire.

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(2) The Authority will issue special purpose flight engineer licences under this subsection only for aeroplane types that can have a maximum passenger seating configuration, excluding any flight crew member seat, of more than 30 seats or a maximum payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds.

(b) Eligibility. To be eligible for the issuance, or renewal, of a licence under this subsection, an applicant shall present the following to the Authority: (1) A current foreign flight engineer licence, or authorisation which —

(i) Was issued by the aeronautical authority of another Contracting State or a facsimile acceptable to the Authority; and

(ii) Authorises the applicant to perform the flight engineer duties to be authorised by a licence issued under this subsection on the same aeroplane type as the leased aeroplane.

(2) A current certification by the lessee of the aeroplane — (i) Stating that the applicant is employed by the lessee;

(ii) Specifying the aeroplane type on which the applicant will perform flight engineer duties; and

(iii) Stating that the applicant has received ground and flight instruction which qualifies the applicant to perform the duties to be assigned on the aeroplane.

(3) Documentation showing that the applicant currently meets the medical standards for the foreign flight engineer licence required by paragraph (b)(1) of this subsection.

(c) Privileges. The holder of a special purpose flight engineer licence issued under this subsection may exercise the same privileges as those shown on the licence or authorisation specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this subsection, subject to the limitations specified in this subsection.

(d) Limitations. A licence issued under this subsection is subject to the limitations prescribed by the Authority.

(e) Termination. Each special purpose flight engineer licence issued under this subsection terminates — (1) When the lease agreement for the aeroplane provided with the application

for the licence terminates; (2) When the foreign flight engineer licence, authorisation, or the medical

documentation required for the licence is suspended, revoked, or no longer valid; or

(3) After 24 months after the month in which the special purpose flight engineer licence was issued.

(f) Renewal. The licence holder may have the licence renewed by complying with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this subsection at the time of application for renewal.

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8.355 ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS — GENERAL (a) To be eligible for a flight engineer licence, a person shall —

(1) Be at least 18 years of age; (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language; and (3) Comply with the requirements of this subsection that apply to the rating

sought. 8.360 ADDITIONAL AIRCRAFT RATINGS (a) To add another aircraft class rating to a flight engineer licence, an applicant

shall — (1) Pass the knowledge test and practical test that is appropriate to the class of

aeroplane for which an additional rating is sought; or (2) Satisfactorily complete an approved flight engineer training program that is

appropriate to the additional class rating sought. 8.365 KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS (a) An applicant for a flight engineer licence shall pass a knowledge test on the

following: (1) The schedule that applies to a flight engineer. (2) The theory of flight and aerodynamics. (3) Basic meteorology with respect to engine operations. (4) Centre of gravity computations.

(b) An applicant for the original or additional issue of a flight engineer class rating shall pass a knowledge test for that aeroplane class on the following: (1) Aeroplane equipment. (2) Aeroplane systems. (3) Aeroplane loading. (4) Aeroplane procedures and engine operations with respect to limitations. (5) Normal operating procedures. (6) Emergency procedures.

(c) Before taking the knowledge tests prescribed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this subsection, an applicant for a flight engineer licence shall present satisfactory evidence of having completed one of the experience requirements.

(d) An applicant may take the knowledge tests before acquiring the flight training prescribed by the Authority.

(e) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this subsection, an applicant for a flight engineer licence or rating shall have passed the knowledge tests required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this subsection since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month in which the practical test is taken.

(f) An applicant who within the period ending 24 calendar months after passing the knowledge test, is employed as a flight crew member or mechanic by a The Bahamas air carrier or certificate holder need not comply with the time limit set in paragraph (e) of this subsection if the applicant —

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(1) Is employed by such a certificate holder at the time of the practical test; and (2) If employed as a flight crew member, has completed initial training, and, if

appropriate, transition, upgrade, recurrent training; or (3) If employed as an AMT, meets the recency of experience requirements.

(g) An AOC holder may, when authorised by the Authority, provide as part of an approved training program a knowledge test that it may administer to satisfy the test required for an additional rating under paragraph (b) of this subsection.

8.370 AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS (a) Except as otherwise specified herein, an applicant for a flight engineer licence

shall obtain and log the flight time used to satisfy the aeronautical experience requirements of paragraph (b) of this subsection on an aeroplane on which a flight engineer is required by these schedule.

(b) An applicant for a flight engineer licence with a class rating shall present, for the class rating sought, satisfactory evidence of one of the following, including the practical experience with the aircraft described in paragraph (a) of this subsection — (1) At least 3 years of practical experience in aircraft and aircraft engine

maintenance and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer.

(2) Graduation from at least a 2-year specialised aeronautical training course in maintaining aircraft and aircraft engines and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer.

(3) A degree in aeronautical, electrical, or mechanical engineering from a recognised college, university, or engineering school; at least 6 calendar months of practical experience in maintaining aircraft and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer.

(4) At least a commercial pilot licence with an instrument rating and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer.

(5) At least 200 hours of flight time in a transport category aeroplane as PIC or SIC performing the functions of a PIC under the supervision of a PIC.

(6) At least 100 hours of flight time as a flight engineer. (7) Within the 90-day period before application, successful completion of an

approved flight engineer ground and flight course of instruction. 8.375 SKILL REQUIREMENTS (a) An applicant for a flight engineer licence with a class rating shall pass a practical

test on the duties of a flight engineer — (1) In the class of aeroplane for which a rating is sought; and (2) Only on an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator replicating such an

aeroplane. (b) An applicant shall —

(1) Show satisfactorily performance in preflight inspection, servicing, starting, pre-takeoff, and post-landing procedures;

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(2) In flight, show satisfactorily performance of the normal duties and procedures relating to the aeroplane, aeroplane engines, propellers (if appropriate), systems, and appliances; and

(3) In flight, in an aeroplane simulator, or in an approved training device, show satisfactorily performance on emergency duties and procedures and recognise and take appropriate action for malfunctions of the aeroplane, engines, propellers (if appropriate), systems and appliances.

8.380 FLIGHT ENGINEER LICENCE ISSUED ON BASIS OF A FOREIGN FLIGHT ENGINEER LICENCE

(a) The Authority may issue a flight engineer licence on the basis of a foreign flight engineer licence.

(b) A flight engineer licence issued under this subsection expires at the end of the 24th month after the month in which the licence was issued or renewed.

(c) Ratings issued. The Authority may add to a licence issued under this subsection those aircraft class ratings listed on the applicant’s foreign flight engineer licence, in addition to any issued after testing under the provisions of this Subpart.

(d) Privileges and limitations. (1) The holder of a flight engineer licence issued under this subsection may act

as a flight engineer of a civil aircraft of The Bahamas registry, within and outside The Bahamas, subject to the limitations of this Subpart and any additional limitations placed on the licence by the Authority.

(2) The holder of a licence issued under this subsection may not act in any capacity as a required flight crew member of a civil aircraft of The Bahamas registry that is carrying persons or property for compensation or hire.

(e) Renewal of licence and ratings. (1) The holder of a licence issued under this subsection may apply for, and the

Authority may renew, that licence and the ratings placed thereon if, at the time of application for renewal, the foreign flight engineer licence on which that licence is based is in effect.

(2) In order to renew a licence, the holder shall apply before expiration of the current licence.

See Appendix 1 to 8.400 for the flight engineer licensing requirements. SUBPART C

LICENSING: AIRMEN OTHER THAN FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS 8.385 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart prescribes the requirements for issuing the following licences,

ratings, and inspection authorisations for — (1) Ground instructors; (2) Flight operations officers; (3) Aviation maintenance technicians; (4) Aviation repair specialist; and (5) Parachute riggers;

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(6) Air traffic controllers; (Reserved) (7) ATC facility rating (Reserved).

Section I: Ground Instructors 8.390 APPLICABILITY (a) This Section prescribes the requirements for the issuance of ground instructor

licences and ratings, the conditions under which those licences and ratings are necessary, and the limitations of those licences and ratings.

8.395 ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS (a) To be eligible for a ground instructor licence or rating a person shall —

(1) Be at least 18 years of age. (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. (3) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this subsection, pass a knowledge

test on the fundamentals of instructing to include — (i) The learning process;

(ii) Elements of effective teaching; (iii) Student evaluation and testing; (iv) Course development; (v) Lesson planning; and

(vi) Classroom training techniques. (4) Pass a knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas prescribed by the

Authority — (i) For a basic ground instructor rating;

(ii) For an advanced ground instructor rating; and (iii) For an instrument ground instructor rating.

(b) The knowledge test specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this subsection is not required if the applicant — (1) Holds a ground instructor licence or flight instructor licence issued under

this part; (2) Holds a current teacher’s certificate issued by a State, county, city, or

municipality that authorises the person to teach at an educational level of the 7th grade or higher; or

(3) Is employed as a teacher at an accredited college or university. 8.400 GROUND INSTRUCTOR PRIVILEGES (a) The holder of a ground instructor licence may exercise the privileges appropriate

to the rating held. See Appendix 1 to 8.400 for list of ground instructor privileges.

8.405 CURRENCY REQUIREMENTS (a) The holder of a ground instructor licence may not perform the duties of a

ground instructor unless, within the preceding 12 months —

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(1) The person has served for at least 3 months as a ground instructor; or (2) The Authority has determined that the person meets the standards

prescribed in this Schedule for the licence and rating. Section II: Flight Operations Officers 8.410 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart prescribes the requirements for issuance of a flight operations

officer licence. 8.415 ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL (a) An applicant for an aircraft flight operations officer licence shall —

(1) Be at least 21 years of age; (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language; and (3) Comply with prescribed requirements of this Section.

8.420 KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS (a) An applicant for an aircraft flight operations officer licence shall pass a

knowledge test. (b) The Authority will accept evidence of satisfactory completion of a knowledge

test for 24 months after the date the test for eligibility to take the practical test. 8.425 EXPERIENCE OR TRAINING REQUIREMENTS (a) An applicant for an aircraft flight operations officer licence shall present

documentary evidence satisfactory to the Authority that the applicant has the experience or training as follows: (1) A total of at least 2 out of the last 3 years before the date of application, in

any one or in any combination of the following areas — (i) In military operations as a —

(A) Pilot; (B) Flight navigator; or (C) Meteorologist.

(ii) In commercial air transport operations as — (A) An assistant in dispatching air carrier aircraft, under the direct

supervision of a flight operations officer licenced under this subsection;

(B) A pilot; (C) A flight engineer; or (D) A meteorologist.

(iii) In other aircraft operations as — (A) An Air Traffic Controller; (B) A Flight Service Specialist; or

(iv) Another duty that the Authority’s flight operations officer licensing representative finds to provide equivalent experience.

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(2) Within 90 days before the date of application, the applicant shall have successfully completed a course of instruction approved by the Authority.

8.430 SKILL REQUIREMENTS (a) An applicant for an aircraft flight operations officer licence shall pass a practical

test given by the Authority. Section III: Aviation Maintenance Technicians 8.435 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart prescribes the requirements for issuance of an AMT licence and

associated ratings. 8.440 ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL (a) An applicant for an AMT licence and any associated rating shall —

(1) Be at least 18 years of age; (2) Demonstrate the ability to read, write, speak, and understand the [English]

language by reading and explaining appropriate maintenance publications and by writing defect and repair statements;

(3) Comply with the knowledge, experience, and competency requirements prescribed for the rating sought; and

(4) Pass all of the prescribed tests for the rating sought, within a period of 24 months.

(b) A licenced AMT who applies for an additional rating must meet the prescribed requirements and, within a period of 24 months, pass the prescribed tests for the additional rating sought.

8.445 RATINGS (a) The following ratings are issued under this subpart:

(1) Airframe. (2) Powerplant. (3) Aircraft type ratings for aircraft with a takeoff gross weight of more than

5700 kg. (4) Powerplant type ratings for powerplants on aircraft with a takeoff gross

weight of more than 5700 kg. (5) Other specialized ratings as may be determined by the Authority.

8.450 AIRCRAFT RATING: KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS (a) Each applicant for an AMT licence or rating shall, after meeting the applicable

experience requirements, pass the applicable knowledge tests covering the construction and maintenance of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought and the applicable provisions in Schedule 5. The basic principles covering the installation and maintenance of propellers are included in the powerplant test.

(b) The applicant shall pass each section of the test before applying for the prescribed oral and practical tests.

8.455 EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS (a) Each applicant for an AMT licence or rating shall present —

(1) An appropriate graduation certificate or a certificate of completion from an ATO; or

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(2) Documentary evidence, acceptable to the Authority, of: (i) At least 18 months of practical experience with the procedures,

practices, materials, tools, machine tools, and equipment generally used in constructing, maintaining, or altering airframes, or powerplants appropriate to the rating sought; or

(ii) At least 30 months of practical experience concurrently performing the duties appropriate to both the airframe and powerplant ratings.

8.460 SKILL REQUIREMENTS (a) Each applicant for an AMT licence or rating must pass an oral and a practical

test on the rating he seeks. The tests cover the applicant’s basic skill in performing practical projects on the subjects covered by the written test for that rating. An applicant for a powerplant rating must show his ability to make satisfactory minor repairs to, and minor alterations of, propeller.

8.465 ATO STUDENTS (a) Whenever an ATO school, certified under these schedules, demonstrates to the

Authority that a student is prepared to take the prescribed knowledge tests, that student may take those tests before meeting the applicable experience requirements and before passing the knowledge tests.

8.470 AMT PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS (a) The privileges and limitations of the licenced AMT are contained in

Schedule 5. 8.475 RECENT EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS (a) The recent experience requirements for a licenced AMT are contained in

Schedule 5. Section IV: Inspection Authorisations 8.480 APPLICABILITY (a) This Section prescribes the requirements for issuance of inspection authorisa-

tions, and the conditions under which these authorisations are necessary. 8.485 ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL (a) An applicant for an Inspection Authorisation shall comply with all eligibility

requirements. (b) To be eligible for an Inspection Authorisation, an applicant shall —

(1) Hold a currently effective and valid AMT licence with both an airframe rating and a powerplant rating, each of which is currently effective and has been in effect for a total of at least 3 years;

(2) Have been actively engaged, for at least the 2-year period before the date of application, in the maintenance of certificated aircraft and maintained in accordance with these schedules;

(3) Have a fixed base of operations at which the applicant may be located in person or by telephone during a normal working week but which need not be the place where the applicant will exercise inspection authority;

(4) Have available the equipment, facilities, and inspection data necessary to properly inspect airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, or any related component, part, or appliance;

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(5) Pass a knowledge test that demonstrates the applicant’s ability to inspect according to safety standards for approving aircraft for return to service after major and minor repairs, major and minor modifications, annual inspections, and progressive inspections, which are performed under Schedule 5; and

(c) An applicant who fails the knowledge test prescribed in paragraph (a)(5) of this section may not apply for retesting until at least 90 days after the date he/she failed the test.

8.490 INSPECTION AUTHORISATION: DURATION (a) Each inspection authorisation expires on June 31 of each year. However, the

holder may exercise the privileges of that authorisation only while he/she holds a currently effective AMT licence with both a currently effective airframe rating and a currently effective powerplant rating.

(b) An inspection authorisation ceases to be effective whenever any of the following occurs: (1) The authorisation is surrendered, suspended, or revoked. (2) The holder no longer has a fixed base of operation. (3) The holder no longer has the equipment, facilities, and prescribed inspection

data for issuance of his/her authorisation. (c) The holder of an inspection authorisation that is suspended or revoked shall,

upon the Authority’s request, return it to the Authority. 8.495 RENEWAL OF AUTHORISATION (a) To be eligible for renewal of an Inspection Authorisation for a 1-year period,

an applicant shall, within 90 days prior to the expiration of the authorisation, present evidence to an office designated by the Authority that the applicant still meets the requirements and show that, during the current period of authorisation, the applicant has — (1) Performed at least one annual inspection during each 3-month period the

applicant held the authorisation; (2) Performed inspections of at least two major repairs or major modifications

for each 3-month period the applicant held the authorisation; (3) Performed or supervised and approved at least one progressive inspection in

accordance with standards prescribed by the Authority for each 12-month period the applicant held the authorisation;

(4) Performed any combination of paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(3); (5) Successfully completed an Inspection Authorisation refresher course or

series of courses acceptable to the Authority, of not less than 16 hours of instruction during the 12-month period preceding the application for renewal; or

(6) Passed a knowledge test administered by the Authority to determine that the applicant’s knowledge of applicable schedules and standards is current.

(b) The holder of an inspection authorisation that has been in effect for less than 3 months before the expiration date need not comply with paragraph (a)(1) through (5) of this section.

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8.500 PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS (a) The privileges and limitations for the holder of an Inspection Authorisation (IA)

are contained in Schedule 5. Section V: Aviation Repair Specialists 8.505 APPLICABILITY (a) This Section prescribes the requirements for issuance of Aviation Repair

Specialists (ARS) licences and ratings, and the conditions under which those licences and ratings are necessary.

8.510 AVIATION REPAIR SPECIALIST LICENCES: ELIGIBILITY

(a) An applicant for an aviation repair specialist licence and shall — (1) Be at least 18 years of age; (2) Demonstrate the ability to read, write, speak, and understand the English

language by reading and explaining appropriate maintenance publications and by writing defect and repair statements;

(3) By specially qualified to perform maintenance on aircraft or components thereof, appropriate to the job for which he/she was employed;

(4) Be employed for a specific job requiring those special qualifications by a repair station certificated under Schedule 6 or a air operator certificated under Schedule 12 that is required by its operating certificate or approved specific operating provisions to provide maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications to aircraft approved with a continuous maintenance program according to its maintenance control manual;

(5) Be recommended for certification by his employer, to the satisfaction of the Authority, as able to satisfactorily maintain aircraft or components, appropriate to the job for which he is employed;

(6) Have either: (i) At least 18 months of practical experience in the procedures, practices,

inspection methods, materials, tools, machine tools, and equipment generally used in the maintenance duties of the specific job for which the person is to be employed and certificated; or

(ii) Completed formal training that is acceptable to the Authority and is specifically designed to qualify the applicant for the job on which the applicant is to be employed;

(7) This section does not apply to the issuance of an aviation repair specialist licence (experimental aircraft builder).

8.515 RATINGS (a) The following ratings are issued under this Section:

(1) Propeller. (2) Avionics. (3) Computer. (4) Instrument. (5) Accessory.

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(6) Other specialized ratings as may be determined by the Authority. Note: At no instance shall an aviation repair specialist licence be issued with an airframe and/or powerplant rating to circumvent the process of obtaining an AMT licence.

(b) Ratings for an applicant employed by an approved maintenance organisation shall coincide with the rating(s) issued at the approved maintenance organisation limited to the specific job for which the person is employed to perform, supervise, or approve for return to service. Note: At no instance shall an aviation repair specialist licence be issued a rating in which the AMO has not been issued.

(c) Ratings for an applicant employed by an air operator shall coincide with the approved specific operating provisions and the approved maintenance control manual that identifies the air operator’s authorisations limited to the specific job for which the person is employed to perform, supervise, or approve for return to service. Note: When employed by an air operator with the authorisation to perform and approve for return to service maintenance under an equivalent system in Schedule 12, an aviation repair specialist licence should correspond to the speciality shop or group in which they perform, supervise, or approve for return to service an aeronautical product or aircraft. For example, Hydraulic component overhaul, landing gear overhaul, special inspections, non-destructive testing, turbine disc overhaul, etc.

8.520 AVIATION REPAIR SPECIALIST LICENCES: PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

(a) The privileges and limitations for a licenced ARS are contained in Schedule 5. 8.525 AVIATION REPAIR SPECIALIST LICENCE: EXPERIMENTAL

AIRCRAFT BUILDER — ELIGIBILITY, PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

(a) To be eligible for a aviation repair specialist licence (experimental aircraft builder), an individual shall: (1) Be at least 18 years of age; (2) Be the primary builder of the aircraft to which the privileges of the licence

are applicable; (3) Show to the satisfaction of the Authority that the individual has the

requisite skill to determine whether the aircraft is in a condition for safe operations; and

(4) Be a citizen of The Bahamas or an individual citizen of a foreign country who has lawfully been admitted for permanent residence in The Bahamas.

(b) The holder of an aviation repair specialist licence (experimental aircraft builder) may perform condition inspections on the aircraft constructed by the holder in accordance with the operating limitations of that aircraft.

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8.530 AVIATION REPAIR SPECIALIST LICENCES: EXPERIMENTAL AIRCRAFT BUILDER — RATINGS

(a) The following rating will be issued under this paragraph: (1) Experimental Aircraft Builder.

(b) The following information shall be required to follow the rating: (1) Aircraft Make. (2) Aircraft Model. (3) Aircraft Serial Number. (4) Certification Date of Aircraft.

Section VI: Parachute Riggers 8.535 APPLICABILITY (a) This Section prescribes the requirements for issuance of a parachute rigger

licences and ratings, and the conditions under which those licences and ratings are necessary.

8.540 ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL (a) To be eligible for a parachute rigger licence, a person shall —

(1) Be at least 18 years of age; and (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language; (3) Comply with the sections of this subpart that apply to the licence and type

rating he or she seeks. 8.545 LICENCE REQUIRED (a) No person may pack, maintain, or alter any personnel-carrying parachute

intended for emergency use in connection with civil aircraft of The Bahamas unless he or she holds an appropriate current licence and type rating issued under this Subpart and complies with the prescribed requirements.

(b) Except as allowed by paragraph (c) of this subsection, no person may pack, maintain, or alter any main parachute of a dual parachute pack to be used for intentional jumping from a civil aircraft of The Bahamas unless he or she has an appropriate valid licence issued under this Section.

(c) A person who does not hold a licence may pack the main parachute of a dual parachute pack that is to be used by him or her for intentional jumping.

(d) Each person who holds a parachute rigger licence shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Authority or an authorised representative of the Director General Office, or any Federal, State or local law enforcement officer.

(e) The following parachute rigger licences are issued under this Section: (1) Senior parachute rigger. (2) Master parachute rigger.

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8.550 SENIOR PARACHUTE RIGGER LICENCE: EXPERIENCE, KNOWLEDGE, AND SKILL REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant for a senior parachute rigger licence shall — (1) Present evidence satisfactory to the Authority that he or she has packed at

least 20 parachutes of each type for which he or she seeks a rating, in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions and under the supervision of a licenced parachute rigger holding a rating for that type or a person holding an appropriate military rating;

(2) Pass a knowledge test, with respect to a parachute applicable to at least one type parachute appropriate to the type rating sought, on —

(i) Construction, packing, and maintenance; (ii) The manufacturer’s instructions;

(iii) The schedules of this Subpart; and (3) Pass an oral and practical test showing the ability to pack and maintain at

least one type of parachute appropriate to the type rating sought. 8.555 MASTER PARACHUTE RIGGER LICENCE: EXPERIENCE,

KNOWLEDGE, AND SKILL REQUIREMENTS (a) An applicant for a master parachute rigger licence shall meet the following

requirements: (1) Present evidence satisfactory to the Authority of at least 3 years of

experience as a parachute rigger and having satisfactorily packed at least 100 parachutes of each of two types appropriate to type ratings held, in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions —

(i) While a licenced and appropriately rated senior parachute rigger; or (ii) While under the supervision of a licenced and appropriately rated

parachute rigger or a person holding appropriate military ratings. (iii) An applicant may combine experience specified in paragraphs (a) (1)

and (2) of this paragraph to meet the requirements of this subsection. (2) If the applicant is not the holder of a senior parachute rigger licence, pass

a knowledge test, with respect to parachutes appropriate to the type rating sought, on —

(i) Their construction, packing, and maintenance; (ii) The manufacturer’s instructions; and

(iii) The schedules of this Subpart. (3) Pass an oral and practical test showing the ability to pack and maintain two

types of parachutes appropriate to the type ratings sought. 8.560 TYPE RATINGS (a) The following type ratings are issued under this subpart:

(1) Seat. (2) Back. (3) Chest. (4) Lap.

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(b) The holder of a parachute rigger licence who qualifies for a senior parachute rigger licence is entitled to have placed on the senior parachute rigger licence the ratings that were on the parachute rigger licence.

8.565 ADDITIONAL TYPE RATINGS: REQUIREMENTS (a) A licenced parachute rigger who applies for an additional type rating shall —

(1) Present evidence satisfactory to the Authority of having packed at least 20 parachutes of the type rating sought, in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions and under the supervision of a licenced parachute rigger holding a rating for that type or a person holding an appropriate military rating; and

(2) Pass a practical test, to the satisfaction of the Authority, showing the ability to pack and maintain the type of parachute for which the applicant seeks a rating.

8.570 PRIVILEGES (a) A licenced senior parachute rigger may —

(1) Pack or maintain (except for major repair) any type of parachute for which he or she is rated; and

(2) Supervise other persons in packing any type of parachute for which he or she is rated.

(b) A licenced master parachute rigger may — (1) Pack, maintain, or alter any type of parachute for which he or she is rated;

and (2) Supervise other persons in packing, maintaining, or altering any type of

parachute for which he or she is rated. (c) A licenced parachute rigger need not comply with requirements related to

facilities, equipment, performance standards, records, recent experience, and seal in packing, maintaining, or altering (if authorised) the main parachute of a dual parachute pack to be used for intentional jumping.

8.575 FACILITIES AND EQUIPMENT (a) No licenced parachute rigger shall exercise the privileges of his licence unless he

or she has at least the following facilities and equipment available — (1) A smooth top table at least three feet wide by 40 feet long; (2) Suitable housing that is adequately heated, lighted, and ventilated for drying

and airing parachutes; (3) Enough packing tools and other equipment to pack and maintain the types

of parachutes serviced; and (4) Adequate housing facilities to perform applicable duties and to protect tools

and equipment. 8.580 PERFORMANCE STANDARDS (a) No licenced parachute rigger may —

(1) Pack, maintain, or alter any parachute unless he or she is rated for that type; (2) Pack a parachute that is not safe for emergency use; (3) Pack a parachute that has not been thoroughly dried and aired;

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(4) Alter a parachute in a manner that is not specifically authorised by the Authority or the manufacturer;

(5) Pack, maintain, or alter a parachute in any manner that deviates from procedures approved by the Authority or the manufacturer of the parachute; or

(6) Exercise the privileges of the licence and type rating unless he or she understands the current manufacturer’s instructions for the operation involved and has — (i) Performed duties under the licence for at least 90 days within the

preceding 12 months; or (ii) Shown to the Authority the ability to perform those duties.

8.585 RECORDS (a) Each licenced parachute rigger shall keep a record of the packing, maintenance,

and alteration of parachutes performed or supervision of those activities. (b) Each licenced parachute rigger who packs a parachute shall enter on the

parachute packing record attached to the parachute, the date and place of the packing, a notation of any defects found during any inspection, and shall sign that record with his or her name and licence number.

(c) Each parachute rigger shall sign the record required by paragraph (b) of this subsection with the name and the number of his or her licence.

(d) The record required by paragraph (a) of this subsection shall contain, with respect to each parachute worked on, a statement of — (1) Its type and make; (2) Its serial number; (3) The name and address of its owner or user; (4) The kind and extent of the work performed; (5) The date when and place where the work was performed; and (6) The results of any drop tests made with it.

(e) Each person who makes a record under paragraph (a) of this subsection shall keep it for at least 2 years after the date it is made.

8.590 SEAL (a) Each licenced parachute rigger shall have a seal with an identifying mark

prescribed by the Authority, and a seal press. (b) After packing a parachute, the parachute rigger shall seal the pack with his or

her seal in accordance with the manufacturer’s recommendation for that type of parachute.

Section VI: Air Traffic Controllers 8.595 APPLICABILITY

(Reserved) 8.600 REQUIRED LICENCES, AND RATING OR QUALIFICATION

(Reserved)

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8.605 ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL (Reserved)

8.610 KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS (Reserved)

8.615 SKILL REQUIREMENTS: OPERATING POSITIONS (Reserved)

8.620 PRACTICAL EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS: FACILITY RATING (Reserved)

8.625 SKILL REQUIREMENTS: FACILITY RATINGS (Reserved)

8.630 PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS (Reserved)

8.635 MAXIMUM HOURS (Reserved)

8.640 CURRENCY REQUIREMENTS (Reserved)

SUBPART D MEDICAL STANDARDS AND CERTIFICATION

Section I: General 8.645 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart prescribes the medical standards and certification procedures for

issuing and reissuing Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3 medical certificates. 8.650 MEDICAL RECORDS (a) Each applicant for a medical certificate shall provide the medical examiner with

a personally certified statement of medical facts concerning personal, familiar, and hereditary history that is as complete and accurate as the applicant’s knowledge permits.

(b) Whenever the Authority finds that additional medical information or history is needed, the Authority will request that the applicant — (1) Furnish that information; or (2) Authorise any clinic, hospital, physician, or other person to release to the

Authority all available information or records concerning that history. (c) If an applicant or holder of a medical certificate fails to provide the requested

medical information or history, or fails to authorise the release so requested, the Authority may — (1) Suspend, modify, or revoke all medical certificates the airman holds; or (2) In the case of an applicant, deny the application for an airman medical

certificate.

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(d) If an airman medical certificate is suspended or modified under paragraph (c) of this subsection, that suspension or modification remains in effect until — (1) The holder or applicant provides the requested information, history, or

authorisation to the Authority; and (2) The Authority determines whether the holder or applicant meets the

medical standards. 8.655 AVIATION MEDICAL EXAMINER: DEFINITION AND

AUTHORITY (a) The Authority will designate and authorise each AME within The Bahamas

to — (1) Accept applications for physical examinations necessary for issuing

medical certificates under This Schedule. (2) Conduct physical examinations for medical certificates, under the general

supervision of Authority. (3) Issue or deny medical certificates in accordance with this Schedule, subject

to reconsideration by the an authorised representative of the Authority. (4) Issue student pilot certificates under this Schedule.

(b) Each AME shall be qualified and licenced in the practice of medicine and shall have received training in aviation medicine and be knowledgeable of the conditions in which the holders of licences and ratings carry out their duties.

(c) Each AME shall report to the Authority any individual case where, in the examiner’s judgement, an applicant’s failure to meet any requirement could jeopardise flight safety.

8.660 DELEGATION OF AUTHORITY (a) The Authority will delegate to each AME the authority to issue or deny

medical certificates to the extent necessary to — (1) Examine applicants for and holders of medical certificates to determine

whether they meet applicable medical standards; and (2) Issue, renew, and deny medical certificates, and issue, renew, deny, and

withdraw Authorisations for Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate to an applicant based on meeting or failing to meet applicable medical standards.

(b) The Authority may delegate to authorised representatives of the Authority, the authority to examine applicants for and holders of medical certificates for compliance with applicable medical standards and to issue, renew, and deny medical certificates.

(c) The Authority may designate flight surgeons of the Armed Forces on specified military posts, stations, and facilities, as AMEs. Such AMEs may — (1) Conduct physical examinations for the Authority to applicants who are on

active duty or who are otherwise eligible for medical certification as civil airmen; and

(2) Issue or deny an appropriate medical certificate in accordance with the schedules of This Schedule and the policies of the Authority.

(d) The Authority retains the right to reconsider any action of an AME.

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(e) A holder of a medical certificate issued by an AME may consider it to be affirmed as issued unless the Authority reverses that issuance within 60 days after the date of issuance.

Section II: Medical Certification Procedures 8.665 APPLICABILITY (a) This Section prescribes the medical certification procedures required for the

issuance of all medical certificates. 8.670 ISSUANCE OF MEDICAL CERTIFICATE (a) The Authority will issue the applicable medical certificate to any person who

meets the medical standards prescribed in this Subpart, based on medical examination and evaluation of the applicant’s history and condition.

(b) Each person to be issued a medical certificate shall undergo a medical examination based on the physical and mental standards contained in this Subpart.

(c) Any person who does not meet the medical standards of this Subpart may apply for the discretionary issuance of a certificate.

8.675 MEDICAL CERTIFICATE REQUIREMENTS (a) To conduct the following operations, a person shall —

(1) Hold a Class 1 medical certificate when exercising the privileges of an airline transport pilot licence;

(2) Hold at least a Class 2 medical certificate when exercising the privileges of a commercial pilot licence; or

(3) Hold at least a Class 3 medical certificate — (i) When exercising the privileges of a student pilot licence;

(ii) When exercising the privileges of a private pilot licence; (iii) When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor licence, except as a

glider flight instructor, if acting as the PIC or serving as a required crew member; or

(iv) Except for a glider category rating or a balloon class rating, prior to taking a practical test in an aircraft.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this subsection, a flight engineer — (1) Shall hold a Class 2 or Class 1 medical certificate issued within the preceding

12 months; (2) When operating in a foreign country, may use evidence of current medical

qualification for that country’s licence; and (3) In the case of a flight engineer licence, may use evidence of current medical

qualification accepted for the issue of that licence in lieu of a medical certificate.

(c) To act as an air traffic controller, except for a air traffic supervisory person employed by the Authority, a person shall hold at least a Class 2 medical certificate. See Appendix 1 to 8.675 for persons exempt from holding a medical certificate.

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8.680 DURATION OF A MEDICAL CERTIFICATE (a) A Class 1 medical certificate expires at the end of the last day of —

(1) The sixth month after the month of the date of examination shown on the licence for operations requiring an airline transport pilot licence;

(2) The 12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the licence for operations requiring a commercial pilot licence or an air traffic controller licence; or

(3) As specified in paragraph (c) of this subsection for other licences. (b) A Class 2 medical certificate expires at the end of the last day of —

(1) The 12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate for operations requiring a commercial pilot licence or an air traffic controller licence; or

(2) The period specified in paragraph (c) of this subsection for other licences. (c) A Class 3 medical certificate for operations requiring a private pilot licence, a

flight instructor licence (when acting as PIC or a required crew member in operations other than glider or balloon), or a student pilot licence expires at the end of — (1) The 36th month after the month of the date of the examination shown on

the certificate if the person has not reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the date of the examination; or

(2) The 24th month after the month of the date of the examination shown on the certificate if the person has reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the date of the examination.

8.685 SPECIAL ISSUANCE OF MEDICAL CERTIFICATE (a) The Authority may issue a Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate

(Authorisation) to an applicant who does not meet the applicable standards for the medical certificate sought if the applicant shows to the satisfaction of the Authority that — (1) The duties authorised by the medical certificate can be performed without

jeopardising flight safety; and (2) Relevant ability, skill, and experience of the applicant and operational

conditions have been given due consideration. (b) The Authority will issue a medical limitation on a licence when the Authority

or an AME determines the safe performance of the licence holder’s duties is dependent on compliance with such a limitation.

8.690 RENEWAL OF MEDICAL CERTIFICATE (a) The requirements for the renewal of a Medical Assessment are the same as those

for the initial assessment except where otherwise specifically stated. 8.695 DENIAL OF MEDICAL CERTIFICATE (a) Any applicant who is denied a medical certificate by an AME may, within 30

days after the date of the denial, apply in writing and in duplicate to the Authority for reconsideration of that denial. If the applicant does not ask for reconsideration during the 30-day period after the date of the denial, the Authority will consider that he or she has withdrawn the application for a medical certificate.

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(b) The denial of a medical certificate — (1) By an aviation medical examiner is not a denial by the Authority; and (2) By the Authority is considered to be a denial by the Authority.

Section III: Physical and Mental Standards — All Medical Certificates 8.700 APPLICABILITY (a) This Section prescribes the physical medical standards required for all medical

certificates. 8.705 GENERAL MEDICAL REQUIREMENTS (a) No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate who —

(1) Has any organic, functional or structural disease, defect or limitation (active, latent, acute or chronic);

(2) Has any wound, injury or sequelae from operation; or (3) Uses any medication or other treatment that, based on the case history and

appropriate, qualified medical judgement relating to the condition(s) involved, the Authority finds — (i) Makes the applicant unable to safely perform the duties or exercise

the privileges of the licence(s) or rating(s) applied for or held; or (ii) May reasonably be expected, for the maximum duration of the airman

medical certificate applied for or held, to make the applicant unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.

8.710 MENTAL STANDARDS (a) No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate who has an established

medical history or clinical diagnosis of — (1) A personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly manifested

itself by overt acts; (2) A psychosis; Note: A history of acute toxic psychosis need not be regarded as disqualifying, provided that the applicant has suffered no permanent impairment. (3) A bipolar (manic-depressive) disorder; (4) Substance dependence, except where there is established clinical evidence,

satisfactory to the Authority, of recovery, including sustained total abstinence from the substance(s) for not less than the preceding 2 years; or

(5) Other personality disorders, neurosis, or other mental condition that would likely jeopardise flight safety.

8.715 VISUAL REQUIREMENTS (a) Each person holding or being issued a medical certificate shall have normally

functioning eyes and adnexae, and shall have no active pathological condition, acute or chronic, which is likely to jeopardise flight safety.

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(b) Each person issued a medical certificate shall meet the following minimum visual standards — (1) Distant visual acuity of not less than 6/12 (20/40, 0.5) in each eye separately,

with or without corrective lenses and provided that that person — (i) Uses not more than one pair of correcting lenses to demonstrate

compliance with visual acuity requirements; (ii) May not use single-vision near correction lenses (full lenses of

one power only, appropriate to reading); (iii) May use “lookover”, bifocal or trifocal lenses in order to read the

instruments and a chart or manual held in the hand, and to make use of distant vision through the windscreen without removing the lenses;

Note: When required to obtain or renew correcting lenses, an airman should advise the AME of reading distances for the visual flight deck tasks relevant to the types of aircraft in which the applicant is likely to function. (2) Uncorrected distance visual acuity of not less than 6/60 (20/200, 0.1)

in either eye or the refractive error falls within the range of 5 dioptres (equivalent spherical error);

(3) Near visual acuity to read an N5 chart (N5 refers to “Times Roman” type- face) at a distance selected by the applicant of between 30 and 50 cm, with or without corrective lenses;

(4) Colour perception necessary for the safe performance of airman duties; (5) Normal fields of vision; and (6) Bifoveal fixation and vergence-phoria relationship sufficient to prevent a

break in fusion under conditions that may reasonably be expected to occur in performing airman duties.

8.720 AUDITORY REQUIREMENTS (a) No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate having any hearing

defect which is likely to jeopardise flight safety. (b) Each person holding or being issued a medical certificate shall —

(1) Be tested on a pure-tone audiometer not less than once every five years up to the age of 40 years, and thereafter not less than once every three years; or

(2) Demonstrate acceptable hearing by at least one of the following tests — (i) Hear an average conversational voice in a quiet room, using both

ears, at a distance of 2 meters from the examiner, with the back turned to the examiner;

(ii) Understand speech as determined by audiometric speech discrimination testing to a score of at least 70 percent obtained in one ear or in a sound field environment; or

(iii) Provide acceptable results of pure tone audiometric testing of unaided hearing acuity according to the following table of minimum acceptable thresholds:

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Frequency (Hz) 500 Hz

1000 Hz

2000 Hz

3000 Hz

Better ear (dB) 35 30 30 40

Poorer ear (dB) 35 50 50 60

8.725 CARDIOVASCULAR (a) No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate having any abnormality

of the heart, congenital or acquired, which is likely to jeopardise flight safety. (b) No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate having an established

medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following cardiovascular conditions: (1) Myocardial infarction. (2) Angina pectoris. (3) Coronary heart disease that has required treatment or, if untreated, that has

been symptomatic or clinically significant. (4) Cardiac valve replacement. (5) Permanent cardiac pacemaker implantation. (6) Heart replacement.

(c) No person may hold or be issued a medical certificate if that person has: (1) Systolic and diastolic blood pressures outside normal limits; or (2) A significant functional or structural abnormality of the circulatory tree.

8.730 NEUROLOGICAL REQUIREMENTS (a) No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate having any neurological

disorder, disturbance of consciousness, or neurological condition which is likely to jeopardise flight safety.

(b) No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate having an established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following neurological conditions: (1) Epilepsy. (2) A disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical explanation of

the cause. (3) A transient loss of control of nervous system function(s) without

satisfactory medical explanation of the cause. 8.735 OTHER DISQUALIFYING PHYSICAL CONDITIONS (a) No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate having an established

medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following medical conditions: (1) A disease or condition of the middle or internal ear, nose, oral cavity,

pharynx, or larynx that — (i) Interferes with, or is aggravated by, flying or may reasonably be

expected to do so; or

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(ii) Interferes with, or may reasonably be expected to interfere with, clear and effective speech communication.

(2) A disease or condition manifested by, or that may reasonably be expected to be manifested by, vertigo or a disturbance of equilibrium.

(3) Permanent disturbances of the vestibular apparatus. (4) Acute disability of the lungs or any active disease of the structures of the

lungs, mediastinum or pleura. (5) Disabling disease with important impairment of function of the gastro-

intestinal tract or its adnexae. (6) Sequelae of disease or surgical intervention on any part of the digestive

tract or its adnexae, likely to cause incapacity in flight, in particular obstructions due to stricture or compression.

(7) Hernias that might cause incapacitating symptoms. (8) Metabolic, nutritional or endocrine disorders likely to interfere with safe

conduct of flight. (9) Diabetes mellitus that requires insulin or any other hypoglycamic drug for

control. (10) Significant localised or generalised enlargement of the lymphatic glands

and of diseases of the blood. (11) Any signs of organic disease of the kidney. (12) Urine containing abnormal element considered to be of pathological

significance. (13) Abnormality of the urinary passages or the genital organs. (14) Any sequelae of disease or surgical procedures on the kidneys and the

urinary tract likely to cause incapacity, in particular any obstructions due to stricture or compression.

(15) Compensated nephrectomy without hypertension or uraemia. (16) Severe menstrual disturbances that have proved unresponsive to treatment. (17) Any active disease of the bones, joints, muscles or tendons. (18) Head injury, the effects of which are likely to interfere with or jeopardise

flight safety. (b) In addition to the requirements in paragraph (a), no person may hold nor be

issued a Class 2 medical certificate who has an established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following medical conditions, except in cases where accredited medical conclusion indicates that the condition is not likely to affect the safe exercise of the applicant’s licence and rating privileges: (1) Active pulmonary tuberculosis. (2) Quiescent or healed lesions which are known to be tuberculous, or are

presumably tuberculous in origin. (3) Serious malformation or serious, acute or chronic affection of the buccal

cavity or upper respiratory tract. (4) Acute or chronic impairment nasal air entry.

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(5) Pregnancy — (i) During third trimester;

(ii) Presenting any complications; or (iii) Following confinement or termination of pregnancy, until re-examina-

tion and assessment as fit. (c) Each person seeking first issuance of a Class 2 medical certificate who has

a personal history of syphilis shall furnish evidence, satisfactory to the medical examiner, that the person has undergone adequate treatment.

Section IV: Class 1 Medical Certificate 8.740 APPLICABILITY (a) This Section prescribes the physical medical standards required for the issuance

of a Class 1 medical certificate. 8.745 ELIGIBILITY (a) Each applicant shall meet the requirements of this subsection, in addition to the

general requirements of Section III to be eligible for and to remain eligible for a Class 1 medical certificate.

8.750 ADDITIONAL VISUAL REQUIREMENTS (a) Each person holding or being issued a Class 1 medical certificate shall —

(1) Possess a distant visual acuity of not less than 6/9 (20/30, 0.3) in each eye separately with or without the use of correcting lenses;

(2) Uncorrected distance visual acuity of not less than 6/60 (20/200, 0.1) in either eye or the refractive error falls within the range of 3 dioptres (equivalent spherical error); and

(3) Have the ability to read the N14 chart (N14 refers to “Times Roman” type face) or its equivalent at a distance of 39.3 inches (100 cm).

8.755 ADDITIONAL AUDITORY REQUIREMENTS (a) Each person holding or being issued a Class 1 medical certificate shall —

(1) Demonstrate a hearing performance in each ear separately equivalent to that of a normal person, against a background noise that will simulate the masking properties of flight deck noise upon speech and audio tones;

(2) Have no permanent obstruction of the Eustachian tubes; and (3) Have no unhealed (unclosed) perforation of the tympanic membranes.

8.760 ADDITIONAL CARDIOVASCULAR REQUIREMENTS (a) Each person holding or being issued a Class 1 Medical Certificate shall

demonstrate an absence of myocardial infarction and other clinically significant abnormality on an electrocardiographic examination — (1) At the first application; (2) On a two-year basis after reaching the 30th birthday; and (3) On an annual basis after reaching the 40th birthday.

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Section V: Class 2 Medical Certificate 8.765 APPLICABILITY (a) This Section prescribes the physical medical standards required for the issuance

of a Class 2 medical certificate. 8.770 ELIGIBILITY (a) Each applicant shall meet the requirements of this subsection, in addition to the

general requirements of Section III, to be eligible for and to remain eligible for a Class 2 medical certificate.

8.775 ADDITIONAL VISUAL REQUIREMENTS (a) Each person holding or being issued a Class 2 Medical Certificate shall possess a

distant visual acuity of not less than 6/12 (20/40, 0.5) in each eye separately with or without the use of correcting lenses.

8.780 ADDITIONAL AUDITORY REQUIREMENTS (a) Each person holding or being issued a Class 2 medical certificate shall —

(1) For a commercial pilot, demonstrate a hearing performance in each ear separately equivalent to that of a normal person, against a background noise that will simulate the masking properties of flight deck noise upon speech and audio tones;

(2) For an air traffic controller, demonstrate a hearing performance in each ear separately equivalent to that of a normal person, against a background noise that will simulate that experienced in a typical air traffic control environment; and

(3) Have no unhealed (unclosed) perforation of the tympanic membranes. APPENDICES

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.045 GENERAL PILOT TRAINING REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant shall receive training in the following subjects: (1) High-altitude aerodynamics and meteorology. (2) Respiration. (3) Effects, symptoms, and causes of hypoxia and any other high-altitude

sickness. (4) Duration of consciousness without supplemental oxygen. (5) Effects of prolonged usage of supplemental oxygen. (6) Causes and effects of gas expansion and gas bubble formation. (7) Preventive measures for eliminating gas expansion, gas bubble formation,

and high-altitude sickness. (8) Physical phenomena and incidents of decompression. (9) Any other physiological aspects of high-altitude flight.

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The prescribed training and endorsement is not required if the pilot or pilot applicant can document satisfactory accomplishment of any of the following in a pressurised aircraft, or in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device that is representative of a pressurised aircraft — (10) Serving as PIC before February 28, 2001; (11) Completing a practical test for a pilot licence or rating before February 28,

2001; (12) Completing an official PIC check conducted by the military services of

The Bahamas; or (13) Completing a PIC proficiency check under Schedule 14 conducted by

the Authority or by an approved check airman.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.055 MILITARY PILOTS OR FORMER MILITARY PILOTS: SPECIAL RULES (a) The prescribed qualifying requirements for a military pilot are —

Military pilots on active flying status within the past 12 months. A rated military pilot or former rated military pilot who has been on active flying status within the 12 months before applying shall — (1) Pass a knowledge test on the appropriate parts of these schedules that

apply to pilot privileges and limitations, air traffic and general operating rules, and accident reporting rules;

(2) Present documentation showing compliance with the requirements of paragraph (c) of this subsection for at least one aircraft category rating; and

(3) Present documentation showing that the applicant is or was, at any time during the 12 calendar months before the month of application — (i) A rated military pilot on active flying status in an armed force of The

Bahamas; or (ii) A rated military pilot of an armed force of a contracting foreign state to

the Convention on International Civil Aviation, assigned to pilot duties (other than flight training) with an armed force of The Bahamas and holds, at the time of application, a current civil pilot licence issued by that Contracting State authorising at least the privileges of the pilot licence sought.

Aircraft category, class, and type ratings. The Authority may issue to a rated military pilot or former rated military pilot an aircraft category, class, or type rating to a commercial pilot licence if the pilot presents documentary evidence that shows satisfactory accomplishment of — (4) A military pilot check and instrument proficiency check of The Bahamas

in that aircraft category, class, or type, if applicable, as PIC during the 12 calendar months before the month of application; and

(5) At least 10 hours of PIC time in that aircraft category, class, or type, if applicable, during the 12 calendar months before the month of application.

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Instrument rating. A rated military pilot or former rated military pilot may apply for an aeroplane, helicopter, or powered-lift-instrument rating to be added to his or her commercial pilot licence if the pilot has, within the 12 calendar months preceding the month of application — (6) Passed an instrument proficiency check by an Armed Force of The

Bahamas in the aircraft category for the instrument rating sought; and (7) Received authorisation from an Armed Force of The Bahamas to

conduct IFR flights on Federal airways in that aircraft category and class for the instrument rating sought.

Aircraft type rating. The Authority will issue an aircraft type rating only for aircraft types that the Authority has certified for civil operations. Aircraft type rating placed on an airline transport pilot licence. The Authority may issue to a rated military pilot or former rated military pilot who holds an airline transport pilot licence an aircraft type rating provided that pilot — (8) Holds a category and class rating for that type of aircraft at the airline

transport pilot licence level; and (9) Passed an official military pilot of The Bahamas check and instrument

proficiency check in that type of aircraft as PIC during the 12 calendar months before the month of application.

Evidentiary documents. The Authority may accept the following documents as satisfactory evidence of military pilot status: (10) An official identification card issued to the pilot by an armed force to

demonstrate membership in the armed forces. (11) An original or a copy of a certificate of discharge or release from an

armed force of The Bahamas. (12) At least one of the following —

(i) An order of an Armed Force of The Bahamas to flight status as a military pilot;

(ii) An Armed Force form or logbook showing military pilot status; or (iii) An order showing that the applicant graduated from a military pilot

school of The Bahamas and received a rating as a military pilot. (13) A certified Armed Force logbook or an appropriate official Armed

Force form or summary to demonstrate flight time in military aircraft as a member of an Armed Force of The Bahamas.

(14) An official Armed Force of The Bahamas record of a military designation as PIC.

(15) An official record of satisfactory accomplishment of an instrument proficiency check during the 12 calendar months preceding the month of the application.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 8.070 PREREQUISITES FOR PRACTICAL TESTS

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), to be eligible for a practical test for a licence or rating issued under this Schedule, an applicant shall — (1) Pass the required knowledge test within the 24-calendar-month period

preceding the month the applicant completes the practical test, if a knowledge test is required;

(2) Present the knowledge test report at the time of application for the practical test, if a knowledge test is required;

(3) Have satisfactorily accomplished the required training and obtained the aeronautical experience prescribed by this Schedule for the licence or rating sought;

(4) Meet the prescribed age requirement of this Subpart for the issuance of the licence or rating sought; and

(5) Have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record that has been signed by an authorised instructor who certifies that the applicant — (i) Has received and logged training time within 60 days preceding

the date of application in preparation for the practical test; (ii) Is prepared for the required practical test; and (iii) Has demonstrated satisfactory knowledge of the subject areas in

which the applicant was deficient on the airman knowledge test. An applicant for an airline transport pilot licence or an additional rating to an airline transport licence may take the practical test for that licence or rating with an expired knowledge test report, provided that the applicant — (6) Is employed as a flight crew member by a certificate holder under

Schedule 12 at the time of the practical test and has satisfactorily accomplished that operator’s approved —

(i) PIC aircraft qualification training program that is appropriate to the licence and rating sought; and

(ii) Qualification training requirements appropriate to the licence and rating sought; or

(7) Is employed as a flight crew member in scheduled military air transport operations of The Bahamas at the time of the practical test, and has accomplished the PIC aircraft qualification training program that is appropriate to the licence and rating sought.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.080 PRACTICAL TESTS: REQUIRED AIRCRAFT, SIMULATION, AND

EQUIPMENT (a) General. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2), or when permitted to

accomplish the entire flight increment of the practical test in an approved flight simulator or an approved flight training device, an applicant for a licence or rating issued under This Schedule shall furnish —

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(1) An aircraft of The Bahamas registry for each required test that — (i) Is of the category, class, and type, if applicable, applicable to

the licence or rating sought; and (ii) Has a current standard, limited, or primary airworthiness

certificate. (2) At the discretion of the examiner who administers the practical test,

the applicant may furnish — (i) An aircraft that has a current airworthiness certificate other than

standard, limited, or primary but that otherwise meets the requirement of paragraph (a)(1);

(ii) An aircraft of the same category, class, and type, if applicable, of foreign registry that is properly certified by the country of registry; or

(iii) A military aircraft of the same category, class, and type, if applicable, for which the applicant is applying for a licence or rating.

Required equipment (other than controls). Each applicant for a practical test shall use an aircraft that has — (3) The equipment for each area of operation required for the practical

test; (4) No prescribed operating limitations that prohibit its use in any of the

areas of operation required for the practical test; (5) Except as provided in paragraph (e), at least two pilot stations with

adequate visibility for each person to operate the aircraft safely; and (6) Cockpit and outside visibility adequate to evaluate the performance of the

applicant when an additional jump seat is provided for the examiner. Required controls. Each applicant for a practical test shall use an aircraft (other than a lighter-than-air aircraft) that has engine power controls and flight controls that are easily reached and operable in a conventional manner by both pilots, unless the examiner determines that the practical test can be conducted safely in the aircraft without the controls being easily reached. Simulated instrument flight equipment. An applicant for a practical test that involves manoeuvring an aircraft solely by reference to instruments shall furnish — (7) Equipment on board the aircraft that permits the applicant to pass the

areas of operation that apply to the rating sought; and (8) A device that prevents the applicant from having visual reference outside

the aircraft, but does not prevent the examiner from having visual reference outside the aircraft, and is otherwise acceptable to the Authority.

Aircraft with single controls. An applicant may complete a practical test in an aircraft having a single set of controls, provided the — (9) Examiner agrees to conduct the test; (10) Test does not involve a demonstration of instrument skills; and (11) Proficiency of the applicant can be observed by an examiner who is in

a position to observe the applicant.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 8.090 RECORDS OF TRAINING TIME

(a) Each person shall enter the following information for each flight or lesson logged — (1) General:

(i) Date. (ii) Total flight time. (iii) Location where the aircraft departed and arrived, or for lessons

in an approved flight simulator or an approved flight training device, the location where the lesson occurred.

(iv) Type and identification of aircraft, approved flight simulator, or approved flight training device, as appropriate.

(v) The name of a safety pilot, if required by Schedule 10. (2) Type of pilot experience or training —

(i) Solo. (ii) PIC. (iii) SIC. (iv) Flight and ground training received from an authorised

instructor. (v) Training received in an approved flight simulator or approved

flight training device from an authorised instructor. (3) Conditions of flight —

(i) Day or night. (ii) Actual instrument. (iii) Simulated instrument conditions in flight, an approved flight

simulator, or an approved flight training device. Logging of pilot time. The pilot time described in this subsection may be used to — (4) Apply for a licence or rating issued under This Schedule; or (5) Satisfy the recent flight experience requirements of Schedule 10, 11 or 14. Logging of solo flight time. Except for a student pilot acting as PIC of an airship requiring more than one flight crew member, a pilot may log as solo flight time only that flight time when the pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft. Logging of PIC flight time. (6) A private or commercial pilot may log PIC time only for that flight

time during which that person is — (i) The sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft for which the

pilot is rated; (ii) Acting as PIC of an aircraft on which more than one pilot is

required under the type certification of the aircraft or the schedules under which the flight is conducted; or

(iii) A sole occupant.

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(7) An airline transport pilot may log as PIC time all of the flight time while acting as PIC of an operation requiring an airline transport pilot licence.

(8) An authorised instructor may log as PIC time all flight time while acting as an authorised instructor.

(9) A student pilot may log PIC time when the student pilot — (i) Is the sole occupant of the aircraft or is performing functions of

the PIC of an airship requiring more than one flight crew member;

(ii) Has a current solo flight endorsement; or (iii) Is undergoing training for a pilot licence or rating.

Logging SIC flight time. A person may log SIC flight time only for that flight time during which that person — (10) Is qualified in accordance with the SIC requirements of Schedule 10,

and occupies a crew member station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot by the aircraft’s type certificate; or

(11) Holds the appropriate category, class, and instrument rating (if an instrument rating is required for the flight) for the aircraft being flown, and more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or the schedule under which the flight is being conducted.

Logging instrument flight time. (12) A person may log instrument flight time only for that flight time when

the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions.

(13) An authorised instructor may log instrument flight time when conducting instrument flight instruction in actual instrument flight conditions.

(14) For the purposes of logging instrument flight time to meet the recent instrument experience requirements of 9.4.1.10, the following information shall be recorded in a person’s logbook —

(i) The location and type of each instrument approach accomplished; and

(ii) The name of the safety pilot, if required. (15) An approved flight simulator or approved flight training device may

be used by a person to log instrument flight time, provided an authorised instructor is present during the simulated flight.

Logging training time. (16) A person may log training time when that person receives training

from an authorised instructor in an aircraft, approved flight simulator, or approved flight training device.

(17) The training time shall be logged in a logbook and shall — (i) Be endorsed in a legible manner by the authorised instructor; and (ii) Include a description of the training given, the length of the

training lesson, and the instructor’s signature, licence number, and licence expiration date.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 8.100 USE OF AN APPROVED FLIGHT SIMULATOR OR AN APPROVED FLIGHT

TRAINING DEVICE (a) In an aeroplane. If an approved flight simulator or approved flight training

device is used for accomplishing any of the training and the required practical test for a pilot licence with an aeroplane category, class, and type rating, if applicable, the applicant, approved flight simulator, and approved flight training device are subject to the following requirements: (1) Some or all of the limitations of paragraph (a)(2) through (a)(11) of

this subsection may apply. (2) The flight simulator or flight training device permitted by paragraph

(a)(1) of this subsection shall be conducted in accordance with an approved course at an ATO.

(3) To complete all training and testing (except preflight inspection) for an additional aeroplane rating without limitations when using a flight simulator — (i) The flight simulator must be approved as Level C or Level D; and

(ii) The applicant must meet at least one of the following: (A) Hold a type rating for a turbojet or turbofan aeroplane of the same

class of aeroplane for which the type rating is sought, or have been appointed by a military service as a PIC of an aeroplane of the same class of aeroplane for which the type rating is sought, if a type rating in a turbojet or turbofan aeroplane is sought.

(B) Hold a type rating for a turbopropeller aeroplane of the same class of aeroplane for which the type rating is sought, or have been designated by a military service as a PIC of an aeroplane of the same class of aeroplane for which the type rating is sought, if a type rating in a turbopropeller aeroplane is sought.

(C) Have at least 2,000 hours of flight time, of which 500 hours is in turbine-powered aeroplanes of the same class of aeroplane for which the type rating is sought.

(D) Have at least 500 hours of flight time in the same type aeroplane as the aeroplane for which the rating is sought.

(E) Have at least 1,000 hours of flight time in at least two different aeroplanes requiring a type rating.

(4) Subject to the limitation of paragraph (a)(5) of this subsection, an applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(3) of this subsection may complete all training and testing (except for preflight inspection) for a pilot licence or rating when using a flight simulator if — (i) The flight simulator is approved as a Level C or Level D; and

(ii) The applicant meets at least one of the following: (A) Holds a type rating in a propeller-driven aeroplane if a type

rating in a turbojet or turbofan aeroplane is sought, or holds a type rating in a turbojet or turbofan aeroplane if a type rating in a propeller-driven aeroplane is sought; or

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(B) Since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before the month in which the applicant completes the practical test for an additional aeroplane rating, has logged — (i) At least 100 hours of flight time in aeroplanes of the same

class for which the type rating is sought and which requires a type rating; and

(ii) At least 25 hours of flight time in aeroplanes of the same type for which the rating is sought.

(5) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this subsection will be issued a rating with a limitation.

(6) The limitation on a licence issued under the provisions of paragraph (a)(5) of this subsection shall state, “This licence is subject to PIC limitations for the additional rating”.

(7) An applicant who has been issued a pilot licence with the limitation specified in paragraph (a)(6) of this subsection —

(i) May not act as PIC of that aeroplane for which the rating was obtained under the provisions of this subsection until the limitation is removed from the pilot certificate; and

(ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 15 hours of line flying under supervision of a qualified and current PIC, in the seat normally occupied by the PIC, in the same type of aeroplane to which the limitation applies.

(8) An applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(3) or paragraph (a)(4) of this subsection may be issued a rating after successful completion of one of the following requirements —

(i) Compliance with paragraph (a)(2) of this subsection and the following tasks, which shall be successfully completed on a static aeroplane or in flight, as appropriate — (A) Preflight inspection; (B) Normal takeoff; (C) Normal ILS approach; (D) Missed approach; and (E) Normal landing.

(ii) Compliance with paragraphs (a)(9) through (a)(11) of this subsection. (9) An applicant not meeting the requirements of paragraph (a)(3), (a)(4),

or (a)(8)(i) of this subsection will be issued a licence or rating with a limitation.

(10) The limitation on a licence issued under the provisions of paragraph (a)(9) of this subsection shall state, “This licence is subject to PIC limitations for the additional rating”.

(11) An applicant who has been issued a pilot licence with the limitation specified in paragraph (a)(10) of this subsection —

(i) May not act as PIC of that aeroplane for which the rating was obtained under the provisions of this subsection until the limitation is removed from the pilot certificate; and

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(ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 25 hours of supervised operating experience as PIC under the supervision of a qualified and current PIC, in the seat normally occupied by the PIC, in that aeroplane of the same type to which the limitation applies.

In a helicopter. If an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device is used for accomplishing any of the training and the required practical test for a pilot licence with a rotorcraft-helicopter class and type rating, if applicable, the applicant, approved flight simulator, and approved flight training device are subject to the following requirements: (12) Some or all of the limitations of paragraph (b)(2) through (b)(11) of

this subsection may apply. (13) The use of an approved flight simulator or an approved flight training

device permitted by this subsection shall be conducted in accordance with an approved course at an ATO.

(14) The applicant must meet at least one of the following if a type rating is sought in a turbine-powered helicopter — (i) Hold a type rating in a turbine-powered helicopter or have been

appointed by a military service as a PIC of a turbine-powered helicopter.

(ii) Have at least 2,000 hours of flight time that includes at least 500 hours in turbine-powered helicopters.

(iii) Have at least 500 hours of flight time in turbine-powered helicopters. (iv) Have at least 1,000 hours of flight time in at least two different

turbine-powered helicopters. (15) Subject to the limitation of paragraph (b)(5) of this subsection, an

applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(3) of this subsection may complete all training and testing (except for preflight inspection) for a pilot licence or rating when using a flight simulator if — (i) The flight simulator is approved as Level C or Level D; and

(ii) The applicant meets at least one of the following — (A) Holds a type rating in a turbine-powered helicopter if a type rating in a turbine-powered helicopter is sought; or (B) Since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before the month in which the applicant completes the practical test for an additional helicopter rating, has logged at least 25 hours of flight time in helicopters of the same type for which the rating is sought.

(16) An applicant meeting only the requirements of paragraph (b)(4) of this subsection will be issued a rating with a limitation.

(17) The limitation on a licence issued under the provisions of paragraph (b)(5) of this subsection shall state, “This licence is subject to PIC limitations for the additional rating”.

(18) An applicant who is issued a pilot licence with the limitation specified in paragraph (b)(6) of this subsection —

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(i) May not act as PIC of that helicopter for which the rating was obtained under the provisions of this subsection until the limitation is removed from the pilot certificate; and

(ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 15 hours of supervised operating experience as PIC under the supervision of a qualified and current PIC, in the seat normally occupied by the PIC, in the same type of helicopter to which the limitation applies.

(19) An applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(3) or paragraph (b)(4) of this subsection may be issued a rating after successful completion of one of the following requirements —

(i) Compliance with paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this subsection and the following tasks, which must be successfully completed on a static helicopter or in flight, as appropriate —

(A) Preflight inspection; (B) Normal takeoff; (C) Normal ILS approach; (D) Missed approach; and (E) Normal landing.

(ii) Compliance with paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), and (b)(9) through (b)(11) of this subsection.

(20) An applicant not meeting the requirements of paragraph (b)(3), (b)(4), or (b)(8)(i) of this subsection will be issued a rating with a limitation.

(21) The limitation on a licence issued under the provisions of paragraph (b)(9) of this subsection shall state, “This licence is subject to PIC limitations for the additional rating”.

(22) An applicant who has been issued a pilot licence with the limitation specified in paragraph (b)(10) of this subsection —

(i) May not act as PIC of that helicopter for which the rating was obtained under the provisions of this subsection until the limitation is removed from the pilot certificate; and

(ii) May have the limitation removed by accomplishing 25 hours of supervised operating experience as PIC under the supervision of a qualified and current PIC, in the seat normally occupied by the PIC, in that helicopter of the same type as to which the limitation applies.

In a powered-lift. If an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device is used for accomplishing any of the training and the required practical test for a pilot licence with a powered-lift category and type rating, if applicable, the applicant, approved flight simulator, and approved flight training device are subject to the following requirements: (23) Comply with the applicable requirements of paragraph (a) of this IS,

except as shown below. (24) The applicant must meet at least one of the following if a type rating is

sought in a turbine powered-lift — (i) Hold a type rating in a turbine powered-lift or have been appointed

by a military service as a PIC of a turbine powered-lift.

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(ii) Have at least 2,000 hours of flight time that includes at least 500 hours in turbine powered-lifts.

(iii) Have at least 500 hours of flight time in turbine powered-lifts. (iv) Have at least 1,000 hours of flight time in at least two different

turbine powered-lifts. (25) Subject to the limitation described in paragraph (a)(11) of this subsection,

an applicant who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this subsection may complete all training and testing (except for preflight inspection) for a rating when using a flight simulator if — (i) The flight simulator is approved as Level C or Level D; and

(ii) The applicant meets at least one of the following — (A) Holds a type rating in a turbine powered-lift if a type rating in a

turbine powered-lift is sought; or (B) Since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before the

month in which the applicant completes the practical test for an additional powered-lift rating, has logged at least 25 hours of flight time in powered-lifts of the same type for which the rating is sought.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.115 INSTRUMENT RATING REQUIREMENTS

(a) Aeronautical knowledge. An applicant for an instrument rating shall have received and logged ground training from an authorised instructor on the areas of following aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to the instrument rating sought: (1) The provisions of these schedules that apply to flight operations under

IFR. (2) Appropriate information in advisory material published by the

Authority that applies to flight operations under IFR. (3) Air traffic control system and procedures for instrument flight

operations. (4) IFR navigation and approaches by use of navigation systems. (5) Use of IFR en route and instrument approach procedure charts. (6) Procurement and use of aviation weather reports and forecasts and the

elements of forecasting weather trends based on that information. (7) Personal observation of weather conditions. (8) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft under instrument flight rules

and conditions. (9) Recognition of critical weather situations and windshear avoidance. (10) Aeronautical decision making and judgement. (11) Crew resource management, including crew communication and co-

ordination.

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Flight proficiency. An applicant for an instrument rating shall receive and log training from an authorised instructor in an aircraft, or in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device that includes the following areas of operation — (12) Preflight preparation; (13) Preflight procedures; (14) Air traffic control clearances and procedures; (15) Flight by reference to instruments; (16) Navigation systems; (17) Instrument approach procedures; (18) Emergency operations; and (19) Postflight procedures. Aeronautical experience. An applicant for an instrument rating shall have logged the following — (20) At least 50 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC, of which at least

10 hours shall be in aeroplanes for an instrument: aeroplane rating; and (21) A total of 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time on the areas

of operation of this subsection, to include — (i) At least 15 hours of instrument flight training from an

authorised instructor in the aircraft category for which the instrument rating is sought;

(ii) At least 3 hours of instrument training that is appropriate to the instrument rating sought from an authorised instructor in preparation for the practical test within the 60 days preceding the date of the test;

(iii) For an instrument — aeroplane rating, instrument training on cross-country flight procedures specific to aeroplanes that includes at least one cross-country flight in an aeroplane that is performed under IFR, and consists of — (A) A distance of at least 250 nautical miles along airways or

ATC-directed routing; (B) An instrument approach at each airport; and (C) Three different kinds of approaches with the use of

navigation systems; (iv) For an instrument — helicopter rating, instrument training

specific to helicopters on cross-country flight procedures that includes at least one cross-country flight in a helicopter that is performed under IFR, and consists of — (A) A distance of at least 100 nautical miles along airways or

ATC-directed routing; (B) An instrument approach at each airport; and (C) Three different kinds of approaches with the use of

navigation systems; and

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(v) For an instrument — powered-lift rating, instrument training specific to a powered-lift on cross-country flight procedures that includes at least one cross-country flight in a powered-lift that is performed under IFR and consists of — (A) A distance of at least 250 nautical miles along airways or

ATC-directed routing; (B) An instrument approach at each airport; and (C) Three different kinds of approaches with the use of

navigation systems.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.135 ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR CATEGORY II AND CATEGORY III

PILOT AUTHORISATIONS (a) The Authority will issue a Category II or Category III pilot authorisation by

letter, as a part of an applicant’s instrument rating or airline transport pilot certificate. Upon original issue the authorisation will contain the following limitations — (1) For Category II operations, 1,600 feet RVR and a 150-foot decision

height; and (2) For Category III operations, as specified in the authorisation

document. To remove the limitations on a Category II or Category III pilot authorisa- tion — (3) A Category II limitation holder may remove the limitation by showing

that, since the beginning of the sixth preceding month, the holder has made three Category II ILS approaches with a 150-foot decision height to a landing under actual or simulated instrument conditions; or

(4) A Category III limitation holder may remove the limitation by showing experience as specified in the authorisation.

An authorisation holder or an applicant for an authorisation may use a flight simulator or flight training device if it is approved by the Authority for such use, to meet the prescribed experience requirements or for the practical test required by this Schedule for a Category II or a Category III pilot authorisation, as applicable. Category II: practical test requirements. (5) An applicant for the following authorisations shall pass a practical test:

(i) Issuance or renewal of a Category II pilot authorisation. (ii) The addition of another type aircraft to a Category II pilot

authorisation. (6) To be eligible for the practical test for an authorisation under this

subsection, an applicant shall — (i) Meet the prescribed requirements; and

(ii) If the applicant has not passed a practical test for this authorisation during the 12 calendar months preceding the month of the test —

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(A) Meet the prescribed requirements; and (B) Have performed at least six ILS approaches during the 6

calendar months preceding the month of the test, of which at least three of the approaches shall have been conducted without the use of an approach coupler.

(7) An applicant shall accomplish the prescribed approaches — (i) Under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions; (ii) To the minimum decision height for the ILS approach in the

type aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted, except that the approaches need not be conducted to the decision height authorised for Category II operations;

(iii) To the decision height authorised for Category II operations only if conducted in an approved flight simulator or an approved flight training device; and

(iv) In an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted or in an approved flight simulator that —

(A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorisation is sought; and

(B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by an ATO.

(8) The flight time acquired in meeting the prescribed requirements may be used.

Category II: practical test procedures. The practical test consists of an oral increment and a flight increment. (9) Oral increment. In the oral increment of the practical test an applicant

shall demonstrate knowledge of the following — (i) Required landing distance;

(ii) Recognition of the decision height; (iii) Missed approach procedures and techniques using computed or

fixed attitude guidance displays; (iv) Use and limitations of RVR; (v) Use of visual clues, their availability or limitations, and altitude

at which they are normally discernible at reduced RVR readings;

(vi) Procedures and techniques related to transition from non-visual to visual flight during a final approach under reduced RVR;

(vii) Effects of vertical and horizontal windshear; (viii) Characteristics and limitations of the ILS and runway lighting

system; (ix) Characteristics and limitations of the flight director system, auto

approach coupler (including split axis type if equipped), auto throttle system (if equipped), and other required Category II equipment;

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(x) Assigned duties of the SIC during Category II approaches, unless the aircraft for which authorisation is sought does not require an SIC; and

(xi) Instrument and equipment failure warning systems. (10) Flight increment. The following requirements apply to the flight

increment of the practical test — (i) The flight increment shall be conducted in an aircraft of the same

category, class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorisation is sought or in an approved flight simulator that — (A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and

type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorisation is sought; and

(B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by an ATO.

(ii) The flight increment shall consist of at least two ILS approaches to 100 feet AGL including at least one landing and one missed approach.

(iii) All approaches performed during the flight increment shall be made with the use of an approved flight control guidance system, except if an approved auto approach coupler is installed, at least one approach shall be hand flown using flight director commands.

(iv) If a multi-engine aeroplane with the performance capability to execute a missed approach with one engine inoperative is used for the practical test, the flight increment shall include the performance of one missed approach with an engine, which shall be the most critical engine, if applicable, set at idle or zero thrust before reaching the middle marker.

(v) If an approved multi-engine flight simulator or approved multi- engine flight training device is used for the practical test, the applicant shall execute a missed approach with the most critical engine, if applicable, failed.

(vi) For an authorisation for an aircraft that requires a type rating, the applicant shall pass a practical test in co-ordination with a SIC who holds a type rating in the aircraft in which the authorisation is sought.

(vii) An inspector or evaluator may conduct oral questioning at any time during a practical test.

Category III: practical test requirements. (11) The Authority will require that an applicant pass a practical test for —

(i) Issuance or renewal of a Category III pilot authorisation. (ii) The addition of another type of aircraft to a Category III pilot

authorisation. (12) To be eligible for the practical test an applicant shall —

(i) Meet the prescribed requirements; and (ii) If the applicant has not passed a practical test for this authorisation

during the 12 calendar months preceding the month of the test: (A) Meet the prescribed requirements; and

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(B) Have performed at least six ILS approaches during the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the test, of which at least three of the approaches shall have been conducted without the use of an approach coupler.

(13) An applicant shall conduct the prescribed approaches — (i) Under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions; (ii) To the alert height or decision height for the ILS approach in the

type aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted; (iii) Not necessarily to the decision height authorised for Category

III operations; (iv) To the alert height or decision height, as applicable, authorised

for Category III operations only if conducted in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device; and

(v) In an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted or in an approved flight simulator that — (A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and

type, as applicable, as the aircraft for which the authorisation is sought; and

(B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by an ATO.

(14) Knowledge requirements: An applicant shall demonstrate knowledge of the following:

(i) Required landing distance. (ii) Determination and recognition of the alert height or decision

height, as applicable, including use of a radar altimeter. (iii) Recognition of and proper reaction to significant failures

encountered prior to and after reaching the alert height or decision height, as applicable.

(iv) Missed approach procedures and techniques using computed or fixed attitude guidance displays and expected height loss as they relate to manual go-around or automatic go-around, and initiation altitude, as applicable.

(v) Use and limitations of RVR, including determination of controlling RVR and required transmissometers.

(vi) Use, availability, or limitations of visual cues and the altitude at which they are normally discernible at reduced RVR readings including — (A) Unexpected deterioration of conditions to less than

minimum RVR during approach, flare, and rollout; (B) Demonstration of expected visual references with weather

at minimum conditions; (C) The expected sequence of visual cues during an approach

in which visibility is at or above landing minima; and

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(D) Procedures and techniques for making a transition from instrument reference flight to visual flight during a final approach under reduced RVR.

(vii) Effects of vertical and horizontal windshear. (viii) Characteristics and limitations of the ILS and runway lighting system. (ix) Characteristics and limitations of the flight director system auto

approach coupler (including split axis type if equipped), auto throttle system (if equipped), and other Category III equipment.

(x) Assigned duties of the SIC during Category III operations, unless the aircraft for which authorisation is sought does not require a SIC.

(xi) Recognition of the limits of acceptable aircraft position and flight path tracking during approach, flare, and, if applicable, rollout.

(xii) Recognition of, and reaction to, airborne or ground system faults or abnormalities, particularly after passing alert height or decision height, as applicable.

(15) Flight skill requirements — (i) An applicant may conduct the practical test in an aircraft of the same

category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft for which the authorisation is sought, or in an approved flight simulator that — (A) Represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and

type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorisation is sought; and

(B) Is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by an ATO.

(ii) The practical test shall consist of at least two ILS approaches to 100 feet AGL, including one landing and one missed approach initiated from a very low altitude that may result in a touchdown during the go-around manoeuvre;

(iii) The applicant shall perform all approaches during the practical test with the approved automatic landing system or an equivalent landing system approved by the Authority;

(iv) If a multi-engine aircraft with the performance capability to execute a missed approach with one engine inoperative is used for the practical test, the practical test shall include the performance of one missed approach with the most critical engine, if applicable, set at idle or zero thrust before reaching the middle or outer marker;

(v) If an approved multi-engine flight simulator or approved multi- engine flight training device is used, the applicant shall execute a missed approach with an engine, which shall be the most critical engine, if applicable, failed;

(vi) For an authorisation for an aircraft that requires a type rating, the applicant shall pass a practical test in co-ordination with a SIC who holds a type rating in the aircraft in which the authorisation is sought; and

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(vii) Subject to the limitations of this paragraph, for Category IIIb operations predicated on the use of a fail-passive rollout control system, the applicant shall execute at least one manual rollout using visual reference or a combination of visual and instrument references. The applicant shall initiate this manoeuvre by a fail- passive disconnect of the rollout control system — (A) After main gear touchdown; (B) Prior to nose gear touchdown; (C) In conditions representative of the most adverse lateral touchdown

displacement allowing a safe landing on the runway; and (D) In weather conditions anticipated in Category IIIb

operations (16) An inspector or evaluator may conduct oral questioning at any time

during the practical test.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.140 SPECIAL PURPOSE PILOT AUTHORISATION: OPERATION OF CIVIL

AIRCRAFT REGISTERED BY THE AUTHORITY LEASED BY A PERSON WHO IS NOT A CITIZEN OF THE BAHAMAS

(a) Eligibility. To be eligible for the issuance or renewal of a special purpose pilot authorisation, a person shall — (1) Hold a current and valid foreign pilot licence that has been issued by

the aeronautical authority of another Contracting State from which the person holds citizenship or resident status;

(2) Hold a current and valid foreign pilot licence that contains the appropriate aircraft category, class, instrument rating, and type rating, if appropriate, for the aircraft to be flown;

(3) Meet the medical standards for the issuance of the foreign pilot licence from the aeronautical authority of the Contracting State where the person holds citizenship or resident status;

(4) Surrender any special purpose pilot authorisation held to the office that issued it, or to the office processing the application for the authorisation, prior to being issued another special purpose pilot authorisation;

(5) Present a logbook or flight record showing compliance with the currency requirements of this Schedule and Schedule 10;

(6) Show when the applicant will reach the age of 60 years by providing an official copy of a birth certificate or other official documentation; and

(7) Present a copy of the foreign pilot licence and a letter from the lessee of the aircraft that —

(i) Documents that the person is employed by the lessee; (ii) Specifies the aircraft type in which the person will be

performing pilot duties; and

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(iii) States that the person is currently qualified to exercise the privileges listed on that person’s pilot licence for the aircraft to be flown, and that the person has satisfactorily accomplished the applicable ground and flight training in the aircraft type in which the person will be performing pilot duties.

Privileges. A person issued a special purpose pilot authorisation under these schedules may exercise only the privileges prescribed on the special purpose pilot authorisation. General limitations. A person exercising the privileges of a special purpose pilot authorisation — (8) May hold only one special purpose pilot authorisation; (9) May conduct any flight between foreign countries in foreign air

commerce within the time period allotted on the authorisation; and (10) Shall comply with the limitations specified in this subsection and any

additional limitations specified on the special purpose pilot authorisation. Expiration date. Each special purpose pilot authorisation issued under these Schedules expires — (11) 60 calendar months from the month it was issued, unless sooner

suspended or revoked; (12) When the lease agreement for the aircraft expires or the lessee

terminates the employment of the person who holds the special purpose pilot authorisation;

(13) Whenever the person’s foreign pilot licence has been suspended, revoked, or is no longer valid; or

(14) When the person no longer meets the medical standards for the issuance of the foreign pilot licence.

Renewal. A holder of a special purpose pilot authorisation may apply for a 60-calendar-month extension of that authorisation, provided the person — (15) Continues to meet the requirements of this subsection; and (16) Surrenders the expired special purpose pilot authorisation upon receipt

of the new authorisation. APPENDIX 1 TO 8.160

MANOEUVRES AND PROCEDURES FOR PRE-SOLO FLIGHT TRAINING (a) A student pilot who is receiving training for solo flight shall receive and log

flight training for the following manoeuvres and procedures, as applicable, for each category and class rating: (1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including preflight planning and

preparation, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems. (2) Taxiing or surface operations, including runups. (3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind. (4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions. (5) Climbs and climbing turns.

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(6) Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedures. (7) Collision avoidance, windshear avoidance, and wake turbulence

avoidance. (8) Descents, with and without turns, using high and low drag

configurations. (9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight. (10) Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power combinations with

recovery initiated at the first indication of a stall, and recovery from a full stall.

(11) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions. (12) Ground reference manoeuvres. (13) Approaches to a landing area with simulated engine malfunctions. (14) Slips to a landing. (15) Go-grounds. A student pilot shall who is receiving training for solo flight shall receive and log flight training for the following additional manoeuvres and procedures, as applicable, as indicated for each category and class rating — (16) In a helicopter —

(i) Approaches to the landing area; (ii) Hovering and hovering turns;

(iii) Simulated emerge icy procedures, including autorotational descents with a power recovery and power recovery to a hover;

(iv) Rapid decelerations; and (v) Simulated one-engine-inoperative approaches and landings for

multi-engine helicopters. (17) In a gyroplane —

(i) Approaches to the landing area; (ii) High rates of descent with power on and with simulated power

off, and recovery from those flight configurations; and (iii) Simulated emergency procedures, including simulated power-

off landings and simulated power failure during departures. (18) In a powered-lift —

(i) Approaches to the landing area; (ii) Hovering and hovering turns; and

(iii) For multi-engine powered-lifts, simulated one-engine- inoperative approaches and landings.

(19) In a glider — (i) The applicable manoeuvres and procedures shown in paragraph

(a) of this subsection; (ii) Launches, including normal and crosswind;

(iii) Inspection of towline rigging and review of signals and release procedures;

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(iv) Aerotow, ground tow, or self-launch procedures; (v) Procedures for disassembly and assembly of the glider;

(vi) Slips to a landing; (vii) Procedures and techniques for thermalling; and (viii) Emergency operations, including towline break procedures.

(20) In an airship — (i) Rigging, ballasting, and controlling pressure in the ballonets,

and superheating; and (ii) Landings with positive and with negative static trim.

(21) In a balloon — (i) Layout and assembly procedures;

(ii) Ascents and descents; (iii) Landing and recovery procedures; (iv) Operation of hot air or gas source, ballast, valves, vents, and rip

panels, as appropriate; (v) Use of deflation valves or rip panels for simulating an emergency;

(vi) The effects of wind on climb and approach angles; and (vii) Obstruction detection and avoidance techniques.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.170 MANOEUVRES AND PROCEDURES FOR CROSS-COUNTRY FLIGHT

TRAINING (a) A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight shall

receive and log flight training in the following manoeuvres and procedures: (1) In an aeroplane or rotorcraft —

(i) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass;

(ii) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight;

(iii) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight;

(iv) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the geographical area where the student pilot will conduct cross-country flight;

(v) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications; (vi) Climbs at best angle and best rate; and (vii) Control and manoeuvring solely by reference to flight

instruments, including straight and level flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives.

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(2) In a powered-lift — (i) Those specified in paragraph (a)(1), as applicable; and

(ii) Takeoff, approach, and landing procedures that include high- altitude, steep, and shallow takeoffs, approaches, and landings.

(3) In a glider — (i) Those specified in paragraph (a)(1), as applicable; and

(ii) Landings accomplished without the use of the altimeter from at least 2,000 feet above the surface; and

(iii) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions favourable for cross-country soaring, ascending flight, descending flight, and altitude control.

(4) In an airship — (i) Those specified in paragraph (a)(1), as applicable; and

(ii) Control of air pressure with regard to ascending and descending flight and altitude control;

(iii) Control of the airship solely by reference to flight instruments; and (iv) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions conducive for

the direction of cross-country flight.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.185 PRIVATE PILOT AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE AREAS

(a) General. An applicant for a private pilot licence shall receive and log ground training from an authorised instructor on the aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of this subsection that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought. Aeronautical knowledge areas: (1) Applicable schedules of this Subpart that relate to private pilot

privileges, limitations, and flight operations. (2) Accident reporting requirements of the Authority. (3) Use of the applicable portions of advisory material published by the

Authority. (4) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage, dead

reckoning, and navigation systems. (5) Radio communication procedures. (6) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and in

flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts.

(7) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence.

(8) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance. (9) Weight and balance computations. (10) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems.

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(11) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery techniques for aeroplane and glider category ratings.

(12) Aeronautical decision making and judgement. (13) Preflight action that includes —

(i) Obtaining information on runway lengths at airports of intended use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and forecasts, and fuel requirements; and

(ii) Planning for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be completed or delays are encountered.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.195 PRIVATE PILOT AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant for a private pilot licence shall receive and log at least 40 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorised instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training, which shall include at least the following experience, unless shown otherwise below. Note: See paragraphs below for specific requirements for categories and classes. In the category and class of aircraft for each category and class rating sought, as applicable — (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training; (2) 3 hours of night flight training that includes —

(i) One cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles total distance; and

(ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.

(3) 3 hours of instrument flight training; (4) 3 hours of flight training in preparation for the practical test performed

within 60 days preceding the date of the test; and (5) 10 hours of solo flight time, consisting of at least —

(i) 5 hours of solo cross-country flight; (ii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 150 nautical miles total

distance, with full-stop landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and

(iii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.

For a helicopter rating and a gyroplane rating — (6) 3 hours of night flight training in a helicopter that includes one cross-

country flight of over 50 nautical miles total distance; and (7) 10 hours of solo flight time in a helicopter, consisting of at least —

(i) 3 hours cross-country flight time;

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(ii) One solo cross-country flight of at least 75 nautical miles total distance, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight being a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and

For a glider category rating — (8) If the applicant has not logged at least 40 hours of flight time as a pilot

in a heavier-than-air aircraft, at least 10 hours of flight training in a glider, and 20 training flights performed on the prescribed areas of operation that apply to gliders that include —

(i) 2 hours of solo flight in gliders in the areas of operation that apply to gliders, with not less than 10 launches and landings being performed; and

(9) If the applicant has logged at least 40 hours of flight time in heavier- than-air aircraft, at least 3 hours of flight training in a glider, and 10 training flights performed on the areas of operation that apply to gliders that include —

(i) 10 solo flights in gliders on the areas of operation that apply to gliders; and

(ii) Three training flights in preparation for the practical test within the 60-day waiting period preceding the test.

For an airship rating — (10) 25 hours of flight training in airships on the areas of operation which

consists of at least — (11) 3 hours of night flight training in an airship that includes:

(i) A cross-country flight of over 25 nautical miles total distance; and

(ii) Five takeoffs and five landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.

(12) 5 hours of solo flight in an airship and with an authorised instructor. For a balloon rating: 10 hours of flight training that includes at least six training flights in the areas of operation that includes — (13) Gas balloon. If the training is being performed in a gas balloon, at

least two flights of 2 hours each that consists of — (i) At least one training flight within 60 days prior to application

for the rating on the areas of operation for a gas balloon; (ii) At least one flight performing the functions of PIC in a gas

balloon; and (iii) At least one flight involving a controlled ascent to 3,000 feet

above the launch site. (14) Balloon with an airborne heater. If the training is being performed in

a balloon with an airborne heater, at least — (i) Two flights of 1 hour each within 60 days prior to application

for the rating on the areas of operation appropriate to a balloon with an airborne heater;

(ii) One solo flight in a balloon with an airborne heater; and

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(iii) At least one flight involving a controlled ascent to 2,000 feet above the launch site.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.225 COMMERCIAL PILOT AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE AREAS

(a) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall receive and log ground training from an authorised instructor on the aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of this subsection that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought. Aeronautical knowledge areas: (1) Applicable schedules of this Subpart that relate to commercial pilot

privileges, limitations, and flight operations. (2) Accident reporting requirements of the Authority. (3) Basic aerodynamics and the principles of flight. (4) Meteorology to include recognition of critical weather situations,

windshear recognition and avoidance, and the use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts.

(5) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft. (6) Weight and balance computations. (7) Use of performance charts. (8) Significance and effects of exceeding aircraft performance limitations. (9) Use of aeronautical charts and a magnetic compass for pilotage and

dead reckoning. (10) Use of air navigation facilities. (11) Aeronautical decision making and judgement. (12) Principles and functions of aircraft systems. (13) Manoeuvres, procedures, and emergency operations appropriate to the

aircraft. (14) Night and high-altitude operations. (15) Procedures for operating within the The Bahamas airspace system. (16) Procedures for flight and ground training for lighter-than-air ratings.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.230 COMMERCIAL PILOT FLIGHT TRAINING PROFICIENCY

REQUIREMENTS (a) General. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall receive and log

ground and flight training from an authorised instructor on the areas of operation of this subsection that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought, as shown below. (1) For all categories and class ratings, as applicable —

(i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures;

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(iii) Airport and seaplane base operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance manoeuvres;

(vi) Ground reference manoeuvres; (vii) Navigation;

(viii) Slow flight and stalls; (ix) Emergency operations; (x) High-altitude operations; and

(xi) Postflight procedures. (2) For the category and class ratings shown below, the applicable areas

of operation shown in paragraph (a)(1); and (3) For the aeroplane category rating with a multi-engine class rating —

(i) Multi-engine operations. (4) For a rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating —

(i) Airport and heliport operations; (ii) Hovering manoeuvres; and

(iii) Special operations. (5) For a rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating —

(i) Flight at slow airspeeds. (6) For a powered-lift category rating —

(i) Hovering manoeuvres; and (ii) Special operations.

(7) For a glider category rating — (i) Launches and landings; and

(ii) Soaring techniques. (8) For a lighter-than-air category rating with an airship class rating —

(i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subjects; and

(iii) Preflight lesson on a manoeuvre to be performed in flight. (9) For a lighter-than-air category rating with a balloon class rating —

(i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subjects;

(iii) Preflight lesson on a manoeuvre to be performed in flight; and (iv) Launches and landings.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 8.235 COMMERCIAL PILOT AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS (a) Unless specified otherwise, an applicant for a commercial pilot licence

shall log at least the following hours of flight time as a pilot in each category and class applied for, including at least the following — Unless specified otherwise for a specific category or class, 250 hours of flight time as a pilot, including — (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 50 hours shall be in the

category of rating sought. (2) 100 hours of PIC flight time, including at least —

(i) 50 hours in the category sought; and (ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight in the category sought, of which

10 hours must be in the category sought. (3) 20 hours of training on the prescribed areas of operation including at

least — (i) 10 hours of instrument training of which at least 5 hours shall be

in the category and class sought; (ii) 10 hours of training in an aeroplane that has a retractable landing

gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller, or is turbine- powered if applicable;

(iii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in the category and class sought in day VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure;

(iv) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in the category and class sought in night VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(v) 3 hours in the category and class sought in preparation for the practical test within the 60-day period proceeding the date of the test.

(4) 10 hours of solo flight in the category and class sought on the prescribed areas of operation, including at least — (i) One cross-country flight of not less than 300 nautical miles total

distance, with landings at a minimum of three points, one of which is a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles from the original departure point; and

(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.

For a helicopter rating. 150 hours of flight time as a pilot, including — (5) 100 hours of PIC flight time, which includes at least —

(i) 35 hours in helicopters; and (ii) 10 hours in cross-country flight in helicopters.

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(6) 10 hours of solo flight in a helicopter on the prescribed areas of operation, including at least —

(i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three points, with one segment consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(ii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a helicopter in night VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure;

For a gyroplane rating. 150 hours of flight time as a pilot, including at least — (7) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of which 25 hours shall be in gyroplanes. (8) 100 hours of PIC flight time, including at least —

(i) 10 hours in gyroplanes; and (ii) 3 hours in cross-country flight in gyroplanes.

(9) 20 hours of training on the prescribed areas of operation including at least — (i) 5 hours of instrument training in an aircraft;

(ii) One cross-country flight of at least 2 hours in a gyroplane in day VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure.

(10) 10 hours of solo flight in a gyroplane on the prescribed areas of operation including at least —

(i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three points, with one segment consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern).

For a glider rating, at least — (11) 25 hours as a pilot in gliders and 100 flights in gliders as PIC,

including at least — (i) 3 hours of flight training or 10 training flights in gliders on the

prescribed areas of operation; and (ii) 2 hours of solo flight that includes not less than 10 solo flights

in gliders on the prescribed areas of operation; or (12) 200 hours of flight time as a pilot in heavier-than-air aircraft, and 20

flights in gliders as PIC, including at least — (i) 3 hours of flight training or 10 training flights on the prescribed

areas of operation; and (ii) Five solo flights in a glider on the prescribed areas of operation.

For an airship rating. 200 hours of flight time as a pilot, including at least — (13) 50 hours in airships. (14) 30 hours of PIC time in airships, including at least —

(i) 10 hours of cross-country flight time in airships; and (ii) 10 hours of night flight time in airships.

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(15) 40 hours of instrument time, which consists of at least 20 hours in flight, of which 10 hours shall be in flight in airships.

(16) 20 hours of flight training in airships on the prescribed areas of operation, including at least — (i) One cross-country flight of at least 1 hour in duration in an airship in

day VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(ii) One cross-country flight of at least 1 hour in duration in an airship in night VFR conditions, consisting of a total straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure.

(17) 10 hours of flight training performing the functions of PIC with an authorised instructor on the prescribed areas of operation, including at least — (i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three

points, with one segment consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern).

For a balloon rating. 35 hours of flight time as a pilot, including at least — (18) 20 hours in balloons; (19) 10 flights in balloons; (20) Two flights in balloons as the PIC; and (21) 10 hours of flight training that includes at least 10 training flights in

balloons on the prescribed areas of operation, including at least — (i) For a gas balloon —

(A) Two training flights of 2 hours each in a gas balloon on the areas of operation appropriate to a gas balloon within 60 days prior to application for the rating;

(B) Two flights performing the functions of PIC in a gas balloon on the appropriate areas of operation; and

(C) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 5,000 feet above the launch site.

(ii) For a balloon with an airborne heater — (A) Two training flights of 1 hour each in a balloon with an airborne

heater on the areas of operation appropriate to a balloon with an airborne heater within 60 days prior to application for the rating;

(B) Two solo flights in a balloon with an airborne heater on the appropriate areas of operation; and

(C) One flight involving a controlled ascent to 3,000 feet above the launch site.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 8.255 AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT: AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE AREAS

(a) An applicant for an airline transport pilot licence shall receive and log ground and flight training on the following areas of aeronautical knowledge: (1) Applicable schedules that relate to airline transport pilot privileges,

limitations, and flight operations. (2) Meteorology, including knowledge of and effects of fronts, frontal

characteristics, cloud formations, icing, and upper-air data. (3) General system of weather and NOTAM collection, dissemination,

interpretation, and use. (4) Interpretation and use of weather charts, maps, forecasts, sequence

reports, abbreviations, and symbols. (5) The Bahamas Weather Service functions as they pertain to operations

in the The Bahamas Airspace System. (6) Windshear and microburst awareness, identification, and avoidance. (7) Principles of air navigation under instrument meteorological

conditions in the The Bahamas Airspace System. (8) Air traffic control procedures and pilot responsibilities as they relate

to en route operations, terminal area and radar operations, and instrument departure and approach procedures.

(9) Aircraft loading, weight and balance, use of charts, graphs, tables, formulas, and computations, and their effect on aircraft performance.

(10) Aerodynamics relating to an aircraft’s flight characteristics and performance in normal and abnormal flight regimes.

(11) Human factors. (12) Aeronautical decision making and judgement. (13) Crew resource management to include crew communication and co-

ordination.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.260 AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT: FLIGHT PROFICIENCY

(a) An applicant for an airline transport pilot licence shall receive and log ground and flight training from an authorised instructor on the areas of operation of this subsection that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought, as shown below. (1) For an aeroplane category — single-engine class

rating: (i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Takeoff and departure phase; (iv) In-flight manoeuvres; (v) Instrument procedures;

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(vi) Landings and approaches to landings; (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;

(viii) Emergency procedures; and (ix) Postflight procedures.

(2) For an aeroplane category — multi-engine class rating: (i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Takeoff and departure phase; (iv) In-flight manoeuvres; (v) Instrument procedures;

(vi) Landings and approaches to landings; (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;

(viii) Emergency procedures; and (ix) Postflight procedures.

(3) For a powered-lift category rating: (i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Takeoff and departure phase; (iv) In-flight manoeuvres; (v) Instrument procedures;

(vi) Landings and approaches to landings; (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;

(viii) Emergency procedures; and (ix) Postflight procedures.

(4) For a rotorcraft category — helicopter class rating: (i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Takeoff and departure phase; (iv) In-flight manoeuvres; (v) Instrument procedures;

(vi) Landings and approaches to landings; (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;

(viii) Emergency procedures; and (ix) Postflight procedures.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 8.305 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR AREAS OF OPERATION FOR FLIGHT

PROFICIENCY (a) General. An applicant for a flight instructor licence shall receive and log

flight and ground training from an authorised instructor, and obtain an endorsement that the applicant is proficient to pass a practical test on the following areas of operation that apply to the flight instructor rating sought. For each category rating and class rating, as applicable — (1) Fundamentals of instructing; (2) Technical subject areas; (3) Preflight preparation; (4) Preflight lesson on a manoeuvre to be performed in

flight; (5) Preflight procedures; (6) Airport and seaplane base operations; (7) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (8) Fundamentals of flight; (9) Performance manoeuvres; (10) Ground reference manoeuvres; (11) Slow flight, stalls, and spins; (12) Basic instrument manoeuvres; (13) Emergency operations; and (14) Postflight procedures; and for Aeroplane category rating with a multi-engine class rating — (15) Multi-engine operations. Rotorcraft category rating with a helicopter class rating — (16) Airport and heliport operations; (17) Hovering manoeuvres; and (18) Special operations. Rotorcraft category rating with a gyroplane class rating — (19) Flight at slow airspeeds. Powered-lift category rating — (20) Hovering manoeuvres; and (21) Special operations. Glider category rating — (22) Airport and gliderport operations; (23) Launches, landings, and go-arounds; (24) Performance speeds; (25) Soaring techniques; and (26) Slow flight, stalls, and spins.

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Instrument rating with the appropriate aircraft category and class rating — (27) Air traffic control clearances and procedures; (28) Flight by reference to instruments; (29) Navigation aids; and (30) Instrument approach procedures.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.325 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR LIMITATIONS AND QUALIFICATIONS

(a) Each holder of a flight instructor licence shall observe the following limitations and qualifications: Hours of training. In any 24-consecutive-hour period, a flight instructor may not conduct more than 8 hours of flight training. Required ratings. A flight instructor may not conduct flight training in any aircraft for which the flight instructor does not hold — (1) A pilot licence and flight instructor licence with the applicable

category and class rating; and (2) If appropriate, a type rating. For instrument flight training or for training for a type rating not limited to VFR, an appropriate instrument rating on his or her flight instructor licence and pilot licence. Limitations on endorsements. A flight instructor may not endorse a — (3) Student pilot’s licence or logbook for solo flight privileges, unless that

flight instructor has — (i) Given that student the flight training required for solo flight

privileges required by this subpart; (ii) Determined that the student is prepared to conduct the flight

safely under known circumstances, subject to any limitations listed in the student’s logbook that the instructor considers necessary for the safety of the flight;

(iii) Given that student pilot training in the make and model of aircraft or a similar make and model of aircraft in which the solo flight is to be flown; and

(iv) Endorsed the student pilot’s logbook for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown.

(4) Student pilot’s licence and logbook for a solo cross-country flight, unless that flight instructor has determined that — (i) The student’s flight preparation, planning, equipment, and

proposed procedures are adequate for the proposed flight under the existing conditions and within any limitations listed in the logbook that the instructor considers necessary for the safety of the flight; and

(ii) The student has the appropriate solo cross-country endorsement for the make and model of aircraft to be flown.

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(5) Student pilot’s licence and logbook for solo flight in a Class B airspace area or at an airport within Class B airspace unless that flight instructor has —

(i) Given that student ground and flight training in that Class B airspace or at that airport; and

(ii) Determined that the student is proficient to operate the aircraft safely. (6) Logbook of a pilot for a flight review, unless that instructor has

conducted a review of that pilot in accordance with the requirements; or (7) Logbook of a pilot for an instrument proficiency check, unless that

instructor has tested that pilot in accordance with the requirements. Training in a multi-engine aeroplane, a helicopter, or a powered-lift. A flight instructor may not give training required for the issuance of a licence or rating in a multi-engine aeroplane, a helicopter, or a powered-lift unless that flight instructor has at least 5 flight hours of PIC time in the specific make and model of multi-engine aeroplane, helicopter, or powered-lift, as appropriate. Qualifications of the flight instructor for training first-time flight instructor applicants. (8) No flight instructor may provide instruction to another pilot who has

never held a flight instructor licence unless that flight instructor — (i) Holds a current ground or flight instructor licence with the

appropriate rating, has held that licence for at least 24 months, and has given at least 40 hours of ground training; or

(ii) Holds a current ground or flight instructor licence with the appropriate rating, and has given at least 100 hours of ground training in a course which has been approved by the Authority.

(iii) Meets the prescribed eligibility requirements; (iv) For training in preparation for an aeroplane, rotorcraft, or

powered-lift rating, has given at least 200 hours of flight training as a flight instructor; and

(v) For training in preparation for a glider rating, has given at least 80 hours of flight training as a flight instructor.

Prohibition against self endorsements. A flight instructor may not make any self-endorsement for a licence, rating, flight review, authorisation, operating privilege, practical test, or knowledge test that is required by This Schedule. Category II and Category III instructions: A flight instructor may not give training in Category II or Category III operations unless the flight instructor has been trained and tested in Category II or Category III operations as applicable.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.380 SPECIAL PURPOSE FLIGHT ENGINEER LICENCE AND FLIGHT ENGINEER LICENCE ISSUED ON BASIS OF A FOREIGN FLIGHT

ENGINEER LICENCE (a) Applicants shall present documentation showing that the applicant

currently meets the medical standards for the foreign flight engineer or flight navigator licence required by this subsection.

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A The Bahamas medical certificate is not evidence that the applicant meets the standards of the state of licence issue unless the State which issued the applicant’s foreign flight engineer accepts a The Bahamas medical certificate as evidence of medical fitness for a flight engineer licence. Limitations. The Authority may impose the following limitations on this licence: (1) It is valid only —

(i) For flights between foreign countries and for flights in foreign air commerce;

(ii) While the licence holder is employed by the person to whom the aeroplane described in the certification is leased; and

(iii) While the licence holder is performing flight engineer or flight navigator duties on the The Bahamas-registered civil aeroplane.

(2) The Authority will ensure that each licence issued under this subsection contains the following: (i) The name of the person to whom the The Bahamas-registered

civil aeroplane is leased. (ii) The type of aeroplane. (iii) The limitation: “Issued under, and subject to 8.380 of the Civil

Aviation Schedules”. The limitation: “Subject to the privileges and limitations shown on the holder’s foreign flight engineer certificate, licence, or authorisation”.

(3) Any additional limitations placed on the licence which the Authority considers necessary.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.400 GROUND INSTRUCTOR PRIVILEGES

(a) A person who holds a basic ground instructor rating is authorised to provide — (1) Ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for the

issuance of a private pilot licence or associated ratings; (2) Ground training required for a private pilot flight review; and (3) A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance of a

private pilot licence. A person who holds an advanced ground instructor rating is authorised to provide — (4) Ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for the

issuance of any licence or rating; (5) Ground training required for any flight review; and (6) A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance of

any licence. A person who holds an instrument ground instructor rating is authorised to provide — (7) Ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for the

issuance of an instrument rating;

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(8) Ground training required for an instrument proficiency check; and (9) A recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance of

an instrument rating. A person who holds a ground instructor licence is authorised, within the limitations of the ratings on the ground instructor licence, to endorse the logbook or other training record of a person to whom the holder has provided the training or recommendation specified in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this subsection.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.675 REQUIREMENT FOR LICENCES, RATINGS, AND AUTHORISATIONS

(a) A person is not required to hold a current and appropriate medical certificate if that person — (1) Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot licence while seeking a

pilot licence with a glider category rating or balloon class rating; (2) Is piloting or providing training in a balloon; (3) Is piloting or providing training in a glider; (4) Is exercising the privileges of a flight instructor licence, provided the

flight instructor is not acting as PIC or as a required crew member; (5) Is exercising the privileges of a ground instructor licence; (6) Is operating an aircraft within a foreign country using a pilot licence

issued by that country and possesses evidence of current medical qualification for that licence;

(7) Is operating an aircraft with a pilot licence, issued by the Authority on the basis of a foreign pilot licence, and holds a current medical certificate issued by the country that issued the pilot licence; or

(8) Is taking a test or check for a licence, rating, or authorisation conducted under an approved course by an ATO.

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SCHEDULE 9 APPROVED TRAINING ORGANIZATIONS

SUBPART A: GENERAL 9.001 Applicability 9.005 Definitions 9.010 Acronyms SUBPART B: CERTIFICATION AND INSPECTIONS 9.015 Certificate Required 9.020 Application for Issuance or Amendment 9.025 Contents of an ATO Certificate 9.035 Duration Of Certificate 9.040 Deviations or Waivers 9.045 Advertising Limitations 9.050 Facilities, Equipment, and Material 9.055 Flight Training Facilities, Equipment, and Courseware 9.060 Satellite ATOs 9.065 Changes Requiring Notice to the Authority 9.070 Inspection SUBPART C: ADMINISTRATION 9.075 Record keeping 9.080 Graduation Certificates and Transcripts 9.085 Transcripts SUBPART D: FLIGHT CREW TRAINING Section I: General 9.090 Pilot Training Courses 9.093 Special Curricula — Other Crew Members 9.095 Requirements for a Level 1 ATO Certificate 9.100 Provisional Level 1 ATO Certificate 9.105 Renewal of Certificates and Ratings Section II: Flight Training Equipment Requirements 9.110 Applicability 9.115 Airport Requirements 9.120 Aircraft Requirements 9.125 Flight Simulators And Flight Training Devices Section III: Curriculum and Syllabus Requirements 9.130 Applicability 9.135 Approval of Training Program 9.140 Training Program Curriculum Requirements Section IV: Personnel Requirements 9.145 Applicability 9.155 Level 2 ATO Instructor Eligibility Requirements 9.160 Level 2 ATO Instructor and Evaluator Privileges and Limitations 9.165 Level 2 ATO Instructor Training and Testing Requirements 9.170 Level 2 ATO Evaluator Requirements

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9.175 Level 1 ATO Personnel 9.180 Level 1 ATO Chief Instructor Qualifications 9.185 Level 1 ATO Assistant Chief Instructor Qualifications 9.190 Level 1 ATO Check Instructor Qualifications 9.195 Level 1 ATO Instructor Flight Training 9.200 Level 1 ATO Instructor Ground Training 9.205 Level 1 ATO Chief Instructor Responsibilities Section V: Operating Rules 9.210 Applicability 9.215 Privileges 9.220 Limitations: ATO 9.225 Limitations: Enrolled Students in Actual Flight Curricula 9.230 Level 1 ATO Enrolment documents SUBPART E: AIRMEN OTHER THAN FLIGHT CREW Section I: Airmen Except AMTs 9.235 Applicability 9.240 Other Training Courses 9.245 Application, Duration, and Renewal Section II: AMT Training Courses 9.250 Applicability 9.255 AMT Training Courses 9.260 General Curriculum Requirements 9.265 AMT Training Program Providers 9.270 Instructor Requirements 9.275 Attendance and Credit for Prior Instruction or Experience

APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 9.020: Application for ATO Certificate Appendix 1 to 9.025: Training Course Contents Appendix 1 to 9.050: Facilities for AMT Courses Appendix 1 to 9.090: Private Pilot Licensing Course Appendix 2 to 9.090: Commercial Pilot Licensing Course Appendix 3 to 9.090: Instrument Rating Course Appendix 4 to 9.090: Airline Transport Pilot Licensing Course Appendix 5 to 9.090: Flight Instructor Licensing Course Appendix 6 to 9.090: Flight Instructor Instrument Licensing Course Appendix 7 to 9.090: Ground Instructor Licensing Course Appendix 8 to 9.090: Additional Aircraft Category or Class Rating Course Appendix 9 to 9.090: Aircraft Type Rating Course Appendix 10 to 9.090: Special Preparation Courses Appendix 11 to 9.090: Pilot Ground School Course Appendix 12 to 9.090: Flight Engineer Course Appendix 1 to 9.115: Airport Requirements Appendix 1 to 9.165: Level 2 ATO Instructor Training and Testing Requirements Appendix 1 to 9.180: Level 1 ATO Chief Flight Instructor Qualifications Appendix 1 to 9.185: Level 1 ATO Assistant Chief Instructor Qualifications Appendix 1 to 9.190: Level 1 ATO Check Instructor Qualifications Appendix 1 to 9.215: Transfer Privileges Appendix 1 to 9.260: AMT Airframe and/or Powerplant Rating

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SUBPART A GENERAL

9.001 APPLICABILITY (a) This Schedule prescribes the requirements for certifying and administering

Aviation Training Organizations (ATO). 9.005 DEFINITIONS (a) For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply —

(1) Accountable manager (training). The manager who has corporate authority for ensuring that all training can be financed and carried out to the standard required by the Authority. The accountable manager may delegate, in writing, to another person in the organization to become the accountable manager when authorised by the Authority.

(2) Advanced flight training device. A flight training device that has a cockpit that accurately replicates a specific make, model, and type aircraft cockpit, and handling characteristics that accurately model the aircraft handling characteristics.

(3) AMT Course — A training course for AMT maintenance ratings (airframe/powerplant).

(4) Flight Training Equipment. Flight simulators, flight training devices, and aircraft.

(5) Line-Operational Simulation. Simulation conducted using operational- oriented flight scenarios that accurately replicate interaction among flightcrew members and between flightcrew members and dispatch facilities, other crew members, air traffic control, and ground operations.

(6) Line Operational Flight Training (LOFT). Training in a simulator with a complete crew using representative flight segments which contain normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures that may be expected in line operations.

(7) Level 1 Aviation Training Organization (ATO). A flight training facility which conducts all or substantially all of each flight training course using aircraft.

(8) Level 2 Aviation Training Organization (ATO). A flight training facility which conducts all or substantially all of each flight training course using simulation media which are qualified and approved by the Authority.

(9) Satellite. An ATO at a location other than primary location of the ATO. (10) Speciality curriculum. A set of courses that is designed to satisfy a

requirement of the Civil Aviation Regulations and that is approved by the Authority for use by a particular Level 2 ATO or satellite Level 2 ATO. The speciality curriculum includes training requirements unique to one or more Level 2 ATO clients.

(11) Training specifications. A document issued to a certified Aviation Training Organization by the Authority that prescribes that organization’s training, checking, and testing authorisations and limitations, and specifies training program requirements.

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9.010 ACRONYMS (a) The following acronyms are used in This Schedule:

(1) ATO — Aviation Training Organization (2) AFM — Aircraft Flight Manual (3) AMT — Aviation Maintenance Technician (4) IFR — Instrument Flight Rules (5) NOTAM — Notice to Airmen

SUBPART B CERTIFICATION AND INSPECTIONS

9.015 CERTIFICATE REQUIRED (a) No person may operate an ATO without, or in violation of, an ATO

certificate and training specifications issued under this Schedule. (b) Except for an AOC training its own flight crews, after December 31, 2001,

no person may conduct training, testing, or checking in advanced flight training devices or flight simulators without, or in violation of, the certificate and training specifications required by this Schedule.

(c) The Authority will issue an applicant an ATO certificate and training specifications if the applicant shows that it meets the requirements of this Schedule.

9.020 APPLICATION FOR ISSUANCE OR AMENDMENT (a) An applicant for an ATO certificate and training specifications shall apply

at least 120 calendar days before the beginning of any proposed training. (b) Each applicant for an ATO certificate and training specification shall

provide the application to the Authority in the correct form. See Appendix 1 to 9.020 for certificate information needed by the Authority.

(c) An applicant for a certificate shall ensure that the facilities and equipment described in its application are — (1) Available for inspection and evaluation prior to approval; and (2) In place and operational at the location of the proposed Level 2 ATO

prior to issuance of a certificate under this Schedule. (d) The Authority will issue to an applicant who meets the requirements and is

approved by the Authority — (1) An ATO certificate containing all business names included on the

application under which the certificate holder may conduct operations and the address of each business office used by the certificate holder; and

(2) Training specifications, issued by the Authority to the certificate holder, containing —

(i) Authorisation for the ATO to function as a Level 1 ATO and/or Level 2 ATO;

(ii) The type of training authorised, including approved courses;

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(iii) The category, class, and type of aircraft that may be used for training, testing, and checking;

(iv) For each flight simulator or flight training device, the make, model, and series of aeroplane or the set of aeroplanes being simulated and the qualification level assigned, or the make, model, and series of rotorcraft, or set of rotorcraft being simulated and the qualification level assigned;

(v) For each flight simulator and flight training device subject to qualification evaluation by the Authority, the identification number assigned by the Authority;

(vi) The name and address of each satellite ATO, and the approved courses offered at each satellite ATO;

(vii) Authorised deviations or waivers from this Schedule; and (viii) Any other items the Authority may require or allow.

(e) The Authority may deny, suspend, revoke, or terminate a certificate under this Schedule if the Authority finds that the applicant or the certificate holder — (1) Held an ATO certificate that was revoked, suspended, or terminated

within the previous 5 years; or (2) Employs or proposes to employ a person who —

(i) Was previously employed in a management or supervisory position by the holder of an ATO certificate that was revoked, suspended, or terminated within the previous 5 years;

(ii) Exercised control over any certificate holder whose certificate has been revoked, suspended, or terminated within the last 5 years; and

(iii) Contributed materially to the revocation, suspension, or termination of that certificate and who will be employed in a management or supervisory position, or who will be in control of or have a substantial ownership interest in the ATO.

(3) Has provided incomplete, inaccurate, fraudulent, or false information for an ATO certificate.

(f) At any time, the Authority may amend an ATO certificate — (1) On the Authority’s own initiative, under applicable Bahamian

legislation; or (2) Upon timely application by the certificate holder.

(g) The certificate holder shall file an application to amend an ATO certificate at least 60 calendar days prior to the applicant’s proposed effective amendment date unless a different filing period is approved by the Authority.

(h) The Authority may issue an ATO certificate to an applicant — (1) For an ATO inside or outside of The Bahamas; and (2) Whose business office or primary location, or both are located inside

or outside The Bahamas. (i) Each ATO shall adhere to its approved curriculum.

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(j) A certificate holder may not change its approved curriculum unless the change is approved by the Authority in advance.

(k) An applicant for an ATO certificate shall show that — (1) For each proposed curriculum, the Level 2 ATO has, and shall

maintain, a sufficient number of instructors who meet the prescribed qualifications to perform the duties to which they are assigned;

(2) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall meet the prescribed personnel requirements;

(3) Each applicant for, and holder of, an ATO certificate with AMT courses shall meet the prescribed personnel requirements.

(l) Each Level 2 ATO shall have designated, and shall maintain, a sufficient number of approved evaluators to provide required checks and tests to graduation candidates within 7 calendar days of training completion for any curriculum leading to airman licences or ratings, or both — (1) Each Level 2 ATO has, and shall maintain, a sufficient number of

management personnel who are qualified and competent to perform required duties; and

(2) A management representative, and all personnel who are designated by the Level 2 ATO to conduct direct student training, are able to understand, read, write, and fluently speak English.

(m) The persons listed in this subsection may serve in more than one position for an ATO, provided that person is qualified for each position.

9.025 CONTENTS OF AN ATO CERTIFICATE (a) The ATO certificate will consist of two documents —

(1) A certificate for public display signed by the Authority; and (2) Training specifications containing the terms, conditions, and

authorisations applicable to the ATO certificate. (b) The ATO certificate will contain —

(1) The name and location (main place of business) of the ATO; (2) The date of issue and period of validity for each page issued; (3) The authorised locations of operations; and (4) Training specifications for the following categories, as applicable:

(i) Pilot training. (ii) Other crewman training. (iii) Other airman training. (iv) AMT training. (v) Other training.

(5) Other authorisations, approvals and limitations issued by the Authority in accordance with the standards which are applicable to the training conducted by the ATO.

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9.035 DURATION OF CERTIFICATE (a) Except as shown in paragraph (c), the Authority will issue an ATO

certificate which expires, unless surrendered, suspended, or revoked — (1) On the last day of the 24th calendar month from the month the

certificate was issued; (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b), on the date that any change in

ownership of the school occurs; (3) On the date of any significant change in the school’s facilities occurs; or (4) Upon notice by the Authority that the school has failed for more than

60 days to maintain the required facilities, aircraft, or personnel. (b) A change in the ownership of an ATO does not terminate that school’s

certificate if, within 30 days — (1) The certificate holder makes application for an appropriate

amendment to the certificate; and (2) No significant change in the facilities, operating personnel, or

approved training courses is involved. (c) The Authority will issue Level 2 ATO certificates with no expiration date,

unless the certificate is surrendered, suspended, or revoked. (d) If the Authority suspends, revokes, or terminates a certificate issued under

this Schedule, the holder of that certificate shall return the certificate to the Authority within five working days after being notified that the certificate is suspended, revoked, or terminated.

9.040 DEVIATIONS OR WAIVERS (a) The Authority may issue deviations or waivers from any of the

requirements of this Schedule. (b) An ATO requesting a deviation or waiver under this section shall provide

the Authority with information acceptable to the Authority that shows — (1) Justification for the deviation or waiver; and (2) That the deviation or waiver will not adversely affect the quality of

instruction or evaluation. 9.045 ADVERTISING LIMITATIONS (a) The ATO may not:

(1) Make any statement relating to its ATO certification and training specifications that is false or designed to mislead any person contemplating enrolment in that ATO.

(2) Advertise that the ATO is certified unless it clearly differentiates between courses that have been approved under this Schedule and those that have not been approved under this Schedule.

(b) An ATO whose certificate has been surrendered, suspended, revoked, or terminated shall promptly — (1) Remove all indications, including signs, wherever located, that the

ATO was certified by the Authority; and

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(2) Notify all advertising agents, and advertising media employed by the certificate holder to cease all advertising indicating that the ATO is certified by the Authority.

9.050 FACILITIES, EQUIPMENT, AND MATERIAL (a) Each certificate holder shall provide facilities, equipment, and material

equal to the standards currently required for the issue of the certificate and rating that it holds.

(b) A certificate holder may not make a substantial change in facilities, equipment, or material that have been approved for a particular curriculum, unless that change is approved by the Authority in advance.

(c) A certificate holder with approved AMT courses may not make any change in the ATO’s location unless the change is approved by the Authority in advance. If the certificate holder desires to change the location of the ATO, the certificate holder shall notify the Authority, in writing, at least 30 days before the date the relocation. The Authority may prescribe the conditions under which the ATO may operate while it is changing its location or housing facilities. If the certificate holder changes the location of the ATO without notification, the certificate shall be revoked.

(d) An applicant for, or holder of, a certificate issued under this Schedule shall establish and maintain a principal business office that is physically located at the address shown on its certificate.

(e) The principal business office may not be shared with, or used by, another person who holds an ATO certificate.

(f) An applicant for, or holder of, a certificate issued under this Schedule shall ensure that — (1) Each room, training booth, or other space used for instructional

purposes is heated, lighted, and ventilated to conform to local building, sanitation, and health codes; and

(2) The facilities used for instruction are not routinely subject to significant distractions caused by flight operations and maintenance operations at the airport.

(g) Each certificate holder shall maintain the records required by this Schedule in facilities adequate for that purpose.

(h) An applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate with approved AMT courses shall have and maintain the following instructional equipment as is appropriate to the rating sought: (1) Various kinds of airframe structures, airframe systems and

components, powerplants, and powerplant systems and components (including propellers), of a quantity and type suitable to complete the practical projects required by its approved curricula.

(2) At least one aircraft of a type acceptable to the Authority. (3) The equipment required by paragraph (h) need not be in an airworthy

condition, and if damaged prior to use by the ATO, shall have been repaired enough for complete assembly.

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(i) An applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate with an AMT rating shall have airframes, powerplants, propellers, appliances, and components thereof, to be used for instruction and from which students will gain practical working experience, and shall insure that the airframes, powerplants, propellers, appliances, and components thereof be sufficiently diversified as to show the different methods of construction, assembly, inspection, and operation when installed in an aircraft for use.

(j) Each applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate with an AMT rating shall ensure that it maintains a sufficient number of units of the material described in paragraph (h)(3) so that no more than eight students will work on any one unit at one time.

(k) Each applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate with an AMT rating using an aircraft for instructional purposes that does not have retractable landing gear and wing flaps, shall provide training aids, or operational mock-ups of the retractable landing gear and wing flaps which are acceptable to the Authority.

(l) An applicant for an ATO certificate with an AMT rating, or and applicant seeking an additional AMT rating, shall have at least the facilities, equipment, and materials appropriate to the rating sought.

(m) An applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate with an AMT rating shall maintain, on the premises and under the full control of the ATO, an adequate supply of material, special tools, and shop equipment used in constructing and maintaining aircraft as is appropriate to the approved curriculum of the ATO, in order to assure that each student will be properly instructed.

(n) An applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate with an AMT rating shall insure that the special tools and shop equipment required by paragraph (h) be in satisfactory working condition for instructional and practice purposes. See Appendix 1 to 9.050 for specific requirements for facilities for AMT courses.

9.055 FLIGHT TRAINING FACILITIES, EQUIPMENT, AND COURSEWARE (a) An applicant for, or holder of, a Level 2 ATO shall have available

exclusively, for adequate periods of time and at a location approved by the Authority, adequate flight training equipment and courseware, including at least one flight simulator or advanced flight training device.

(b) An applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate that plans to conduct pilot flight training shall show that it has continuous use of a briefing area located at each airport at which training flights originate that is — (1) Adequate to shelter students waiting to engage in their training flights; (2) Arranged and equipped for the conduct of pilot briefings; and (3) For an ATO with an instrument rating course or commercial pilot

course, equipped with adequate communication to sources of weather and flight planning information.

9.060 SATELLITE ATOs (a) The holder of an ATO certificate may conduct training in accordance with a

training program approved by the Authority at a satellite ATO if — (1) The facilities, equipment, personnel, and course content of the satellite

ATO meet the applicable requirements;

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(2) The instructors and evaluators at the satellite ATO are under the direct supervision of management personnel of the principal ATO;

(3) The certificate holder notifies the Authority in writing that a particular satellite ATO is to begin operations at least 60 days prior to proposed commencement of operations at that satellite ATO; and

(4) The certificate holder’s training specifications reflect the name and address of the satellite ATO and the approved courses offered at the satellite ATO.

(b) The Authority will issue training specifications which prescribe the operations required and authorised at each satellite ATO.

9.065 CHANGES REQUIRING NOTICE TO THE AUTHORITY (a) Each ATO shall notify the Authority within 30 days of any of the following

changes: (1) The accountable manager. (2) The instructional and evaluation staff. (3) The housing, training facilities and equipment, procedures, curricula,

and work scope that could affect the approval. (b) The Authority may prescribe the conditions under which the ATO may

operate during such changes unless the Authority determines that the approval should be suspended.

9.070 INSPECTION (a) The Authority may, at any time, inspect an ATO holder on the ATO

holder’s premises to determine the ATO’s compliance with this Schedule. (b) Inspections will normally be repeated on a twelve month basis, which may

be extended to a twenty-four month basis if, in the opinion of the Authority, the holder continues to meet the requirements under which it was originally certificated.

(c) After an inspection is made, the certificate holder will be notified, in writing, of any deficiencies found during the inspection.

SUBPART C ADMINISTRATION

9.075 RECORD KEEPING (a) Each ATO shall maintain a record for each trainee that contains —

(1) The name of the trainee; (2) A copy of the trainee’s licence, if any, and medical certificate, if

required; (3) The name of the course and the make and model of flight training

equipment used, if applicable; (4) The trainee’s prerequisite experience and course time completed; (5) The date the student graduated, terminated training, or transferred to

another school; (6) The trainee’s performance on each lesson and the name of the

instructor providing instruction;

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(7) A current progress record for each trainee showing the practical projects or laboratory work completed or to be completed for each subject;

(8) The date and result of each knowledge test and end-of-course practical test and the name of the evaluator conducting the test(s); and

(9) The number of hours of additional training that was accomplished after any unsatisfactory practical test.

(b) The Authority will not consider a student’s logbook as sufficient for the records required by paragraph (a).

(c) Each ATO shall maintain a record for each instructor or evaluator designated to instruct a course approved in accordance with this Schedule that indicates that the instructor or evaluator has complied with the applicable requirements of this Schedule.

(d) Each ATO shall — (1) Maintain the records required by paragraph (a) for at least 2 year

following the completion of training, testing or checking; (2) Maintain the qualification records required by paragraph (c) while the

instructor or evaluator is in the employ of the certificate holder and for 2 year thereafter; and

(3) Maintain the recurrent demonstration of proficiency records required by paragraph (c) for at least 2 years.

(e) Each ATO shall provide the records required by this section to the Authority upon request, within a reasonable time, and shall store and maintain the records required by — (1) Paragraph (b) at the ATO, or satellite ATO where the training, testing,

or checking, if appropriate, occurred, or at another location acceptable to the authority; and

(2) Paragraph (c) at the ATO or satellite ATO where the instructor or evaluator is primarily employed, or at another location acceptable to the authority.

(f) Each ATO shall provide to a trainee, upon request and at a reasonable time, a copy of his or her training records.

(g) Each ATO shall keep a current record of each student enrolled, showing, if applicable — (1) The instruction credited, if any; and (2) The authenticated transcript of grades from a school previously

attended. 9.080 GRADUATION CERTIFICATES AND TRANSCRIPTS

(a) Each ATO shall issue upon completion of training a graduation certificate to each student who completes its approved course of training.

(b) Each ATO shall include in each graduation certificate — (1) The name of the school and the certificate number of the ATO; (2) The name of the graduate to whom it was issued; (3) The approved curriculum title; (4) The date of graduation;

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(5) A statement that the student has satisfactorily completed each required stage of the approved course of training including the tests for those stages;

(6) An authentication by an official of the school; and (7) A statement showing the cross-country flight training that the student

received in the course of training, if applicable. (c) An ATO may not issue a graduation certificate to a student, or recommend

a student for a licence or rating, unless the student has — (1) Completed the training specified in the approved course of training;

and (2) Passed the required final tests.

9.085 TRANSCRIPTS (a) Upon request, each ATO shall provide a transcript of a student’s grades to

each student who is graduated from that ATO or who leaves it before being graduated.

(b) Each ATO shall include in the transcript required by paragraph (a) — (1) The curriculum in which the student was enrolled; (2) Whether the student satisfactory completed that curriculum; (3) The final grades the student received; and (4) An authentication by an official of the school.

SUBPART D FLIGHT CREW TRAINING

Section I: General 9.090 PILOT TRAINING COURSES (a) The Authority will issue certificates and training specifications for two

levels of ATO which conduct pilot flight training courses, as shown: (i) A Level 1 ATO is one which conducts the preponderance of each

flight training course using an actual aircraft. (ii) A Level 2 ATO is one which conducts all or substantially all of each

flight training course using simulation media which are qualified and approved by the Authority.

(b) The Authority may approve the following courses of instruction to an applicant for, or holder of a Level 1 ATO certificate, provided the applicant meets the prescribed requirements: (1) Licensing and rating courses.

(i) Private pilot course. (Appendix 1 to 9.090) (ii) Commercial pilot course. (Appendix 2 to 9.090)

(iii) Instrument rating course. (Appendix 3 to 9.090) (iv) Airline transport pilot course. (Appendix 4 to 9.090) (v) Flight instructor course. (Appendix 5 to 9.090)

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(vi) Flight instructor instrument course. (Appendix 6 to 9.090) (vii) Ground instructor course. (Appendix 7 to 9.090)

(viii) Additional aircraft category or class rating course. (Appendix 8 to 9.090)

(ix) Aircraft type rating course. (Appendix 9 to 9.090) (2) Special preparation courses. (Appendix 10 to 9.090)

(i) Pilot refresher course. (ii) Flight instructor refresher course. (iii) Ground instructor refresher course. (iv) Agricultural aircraft operations course. (v) Rotorcraft external-load operations course. (vi) Special operations course.

(vii) Test pilot course. (3) Pilot ground school course. (Appendix 11 to 9.090) (4) Flight Engineer course. (Appendix 12 to 9.090)

(c) The Authority may approve the following courses of instruction to an applicant for, or holder of a Level 2 ATO certificate, provided the applicant meets the prescribed requirements: (1) Any course for licensing or for any rating for which the applicant can

show an effective curriculum and for which the Authority has qualified the simulation media.

9.093 SPECIAL CURRICULA — OTHER CREW MEMBERS (a) An applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate may apply for approval to

conduct a special course of airman training for which a curriculum is not prescribed by the Authority, if the applicant shows that the training course contains features that could achieve a level of pilot proficiency equivalent to that achieved by a training course prescribed in the requirements of Schedule 8, as applicable.

9.095 REQUIREMENTS FOR A LEVEL 1 ATO CERTIFICATE (a) The Authority will issue to an applicant a Level 1 ATO certificate with

associated ratings if the applicant — (1) Held a provisional Level 1 ATO certificate issued under this Schedule

for at least 24 calendar months preceding the month of application; (2) Meets the applicable requirements of this Subpart for the ratings

sought; and (3) Within 24 calendar months preceding the month of application, has

trained, recommended, and had at least 80 percent of all applicants pass on the first attempt — (i) A knowledge or a practical test for a pilot licence, flight

instructor licence, ground instructor licence, or an additional rating; and

(ii) Any combination of tests specified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2).

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9.100 PROVISIONAL LEVEL 1 ATO CERTIFICATE (a) The Authority may issue to an applicant that meets the applicable

requirements of this Subpart, but does not meet the prescribed recent training activity requirements, a provisional Level 1 ATO certificate with ratings.

9.105 RENEWAL OF CERTIFICATES AND RATINGS (a) Level 1 ATO.

(1) A Level 1 ATO may apply for renewal of its certificate and ratings within 30 days preceding the month the Level 1 ATO’s certificate expires, provided the ATO meets the requirements prescribed in paragraph (a)(2).

(2) The Authority will renew for an additional 24 calendar months a Level 1 ATO certificate and ratings if the Authority determines the ATO’s personnel, aircraft, facility and airport, approved training courses, training records, and recent training ability and quality meet the requirements.

(3) A Level 1 ATO that does not meet the renewal requirements in paragraph (a)(2), may apply for a provisional Level 1 ATO certificate if the school meets the prescribed requirements.

(b) Provisional Level 1 ATO. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3), the Authority will not renew a

provisional Level 1 ATO certificate or the ratings on that certificate. (2) A provisional Level 1 ATO may apply for a Level 1 ATO certificate

and associated ratings provided that ATO meets the requirements of this Subpart.

(3) A former provisional Level 1 ATO may apply for another provisional Level 1 ATO certificate, provided 180 days have elapsed since its last provisional Level 1 ATO certificate expired.

Section II: Flight Training Equipment Requirements 9.110 APPLICABILITY (a) This section prescribes —

(1) The personnel and aircraft requirements for an ATO certificate; and (2) The facilities that an ATO shall have available on a continuous basis.

9.115 AIRPORT REQUIREMENTS (a) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall show that

it has continuous use of each airport at which training flights originate, and that the airport has an adequate runway and the necessary equipment. See Appendix 1 to 9.115 for specific runway and equipment requirements.

9.120 AIRCRAFT REQUIREMENTS (a) An applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate shall ensure, for each

aircraft used for flight instruction and solo flights — (1) Except for flight instruction and solo flights in a curriculum for

agricultural aircraft operations, external load operations, and similar

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aerial work operations, that the aircraft has a Bahamian standard airworthiness certificate or a foreign equivalent of a Bahamian standard airworthiness certificate, acceptable to the Authority;

(2) That each aircraft is maintained and inspected in accordance with the requirements of Schedule 5; and

(3) That each aircraft is equipped as provided in the training specifications for the approved course for which it is used.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c), an applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate shall ensure that each aircraft used for flight instruction is at least a two-place aircraft with engine power controls and flight controls that are easily reached and that operate in a conventional manner from both pilot stations.

(c) A certificate holder may use aeroplanes with controls such as nose-wheel steering, switches, fuel selectors, and engine airflow controls that are not easily reached and operated in a conventional manner by both pilots for flight instruction if the certificate holder determines that the flight instruction can be conducted in a safe manner considering the location of controls and their non-conventional operation, or both.

(d) Each certificate holder shall ensure that each aircraft used in a course involving IFR operations is equipped and maintained for IFR operations.

(e) The Authority may approve aircraft with a restricted airworthiness certificate for use in the agricultural aircraft operations, external-load operations, test pilot, and special operations courses, if its use for training is not prohibited by the aircraft’s operating limitations.

9.125 FLIGHT SIMULATORS AND FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICES (a) An applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate shall show that each flight

simulator and flight training device used for training, testing, and checking will be or is specifically qualified and approved by the Authority for — (1) Each manoeuvre and procedure for the make, model, and series of

aircraft, set of aircraft, or aircraft type simulated, as applicable; and (2) Each curriculum or training course in which the flight simulator or

flight training device is used, if that curriculum or course is used to satisfy any requirement of these regulations.

(b) An applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall show that each of its flight simulators and flight training devices — (1) Represent the aircraft for which the course is approved; (2) Is used only for training given by an authorised instructor; and (3) Is not used for more than 25 percent of the total flight training hour

requirements. (c) Each certificate holder shall ensure, prior to use, that the approval required

by this section includes — (1) The set of aircraft or type aircraft; (2) If applicable, the particular variation within type for which the

training, testing, or checking is being conducted; and (3) The particular manoeuvre, procedure, or crew member function to be

performed.

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(d) Each certificate holder shall ensure that each flight simulator or flight training device used by an ATO is — (1) Maintained to ensure the reliability of the performances, functions,

and all other characteristics that were required for qualification; (2) Modified to conform with any modification to the aircraft being

simulated if the modification results in changes to performance, function, or other characteristics required for qualification;

(3) Given a functional preflight check each day before being used; and (4) Provided with a discrepancy log in which the instructor or evaluator,

at the end of each training session, enters each discrepancy. (e) Unless otherwise authorised by the Authority, each certificate holder shall

ensure that each component on a flight simulator or flight training device used by an ATO is operative if the component is essential to, or involved in, the training, testing, or checking of airmen.

(f) The Authority will not restrict ATO instructors or students to specific — (1) Route segments during line-oriented flight training scenarios; or (2) Visual data bases replicating a specific customer’s bases of operation.

(g) An applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate may request evaluation, qualification, and continuing evaluation for qualification of flight simulators and flight training devices without — (1) Holding an air carrier certificate; or (2) Having a specific relationship to an air carrier certificate holder.

Section III: Curriculum and Syllabus Requirements 9.130 APPLICABILITY (a) This Section prescribes the curriculum and syllabus requirements for the

issuance of an ATO certificate and training specifications for training, testing, and checking conducted to meet the requirements of Schedule 8.

9.135 APPROVAL OF TRAINING PROGRAM (a) Each applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate shall apply to the

Authority for training program approval. (b) Each applicant for training program approval shall indicate in the

application — (1) Which courses are part of the core curriculum and which courses are

part of the speciality curriculum; (2) Which requirements of Schedule 8 would be satisfied by the

curriculum or curricula; and (3) Which requirements of Schedule 8 would not be satisfied by the

curriculum or curricula. (c) After a certificate holder begins operations under an approved training

program, the Authority may require the certificate holder to make revisions to that training program if the Authority finds that the certificate holder is not meeting the provisions of its approved training program.

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(d) If the Authority requires an ATO certificate holder to make revisions to an approved training program and the certificate holder does not make those required revisions within 30 calendar days, the Authority may suspend, revoke, or terminate the Level 2 ATO certificate.

9.140 TRAINING PROGRAM CURRICULUM REQUIREMENTS (a) Each applicant shall ensure that each training program curriculum

submitted to the Authority for approval meets the applicable requirements and contains — (1) A syllabus for each proposed curriculum; (2) Minimum aircraft and flight training equipment requirements for each

proposed curriculum; (3) Minimum instructor and evaluator qualifications for each proposed

curriculum; (4) A curriculum for initial training and continuing training of each

instructor or evaluator employed to instruct in a proposed curriculum; and

(5) For each curriculum that provides for the issuance of a licence or rating in fewer than the minimum hours prescribed by Schedule 8 — (i) A means of demonstrating the ability to accomplish such

training in the reduced number of hours; and (ii) A means of tracking student performance.

Section IV: Personnel Requirements 9.145 APPLICABILITY (a) This section prescribes the personnel and flight training equipment

requirements for a certificate holder that is training to meet the requirements of Schedule 8.

9.155 LEVEL 2 ATO INSTRUCTOR ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS (a) A certificate holder may not employ a person as an instructor in a flight

training course that is subject to approval by the Authority unless that person — (1) Is at least 18 years of age; (2) Is able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language; (3) If instructing in an aircraft in flight, holds a flight instructor licence; (4) If instructing in simulated flight, satisfies the requirements of

paragraph (c); and (5) Meets at least one of the following requirements —

(i) Meets the aeronautical experience requirements for a commercial pilot licence, excluding the required hours of instruction in preparation for the commercial pilot practical test;

(ii) If instructing in a flight simulator or flight training device that represents an aeroplane requiring a type rating or if instructing in a curriculum leading to the issuance of an airline transport pilot licence, meets the aeronautical experience requirements for an airline transport pilot; or

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(iii) Is employed as a flight simulator instructor or a flight training device instructor for an ATO providing instruction and testing to meet the requirements of Schedule 8 on [insert date 30 days following adoption of this rule].

(b) An ATO shall designate each instructor in writing for each approved course, prior to that person functioning as an instructor in that course.

(c) Prior to initial designation, each flight and simulator flight instructor shall complete the prescribed requirements. See Appendix 1 to 9.155 for specific training eligibility requirements.

9.160 LEVEL 2 ATO INSTRUCTOR AND EVALUATOR PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

(a) An ATO may allow an instructor to provide — (1) Instruction for each curriculum for which that instructor is qualified; (2) Testing and checking for which that instructor is qualified; and (3) Instruction, testing, and checking intended to satisfy the requirements

of this Schedule. (b) An ATO whose instructor or evaluator is designated in accordance with the

requirements to conduct training, testing, or checking in flight training equipment, may allow its instructor or evaluator to give endorsements required by Schedule 8 if that instructor or evaluator is authorised by the Authority to instruct or evaluate in a curriculum that requires such endorsements.

(c) An ATO may not allow an instructor to — (1) Excluding briefings and debriefings, conduct more than 8 hours of

instruction in any 24-consecutive-hour period, or more than 6 days or 40 hours in any 7-day period;

(2) Provide flight training equipment instruction unless that instructor meets the applicable requirements; or

(3) Provide flight instruction in an aircraft unless that instructor — (i) Meets the prescribed requirements;

(ii) Holds a flight instructor licence; (iii) Holds pilot licences and ratings applicable to the category, class,

and type aircraft in which instructing; (iv) If instructing or evaluating in an aircraft in flight while

occupying a required crew member seat, holds at least a valid second class medical certificate; and

(v) Meets the recency of experience requirements of Schedule 12. 9.165 LEVEL 2 ATO INSTRUCTOR TRAINING AND TESTING

REQUIREMENTS (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c), prior to designation and every 12

calendar months beginning the first day of the month following an instructor’s initial designation, a certificate holder shall ensure that each of its instructors meets the following requirements.

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(1) Each flight instructor or simulator flight instructor shall satisfactorily demonstrate to an authorized evaluator knowledge of, and proficiency in, instructing in a representative segment of each curriculum for which that instructor is designated.

(2) Each instructor shall satisfactorily complete an approved course of ground instruction in at least — (i) The fundamental principles of the learning process;

(ii) Elements of effective teaching, instruction methods, and techniques;

(iii) Instructor duties, privileges, responsibilities, and limitations; (iv) Training policies and procedures; (v) Cockpit resource management and crew co-ordination; and

(vi) Evaluation. (3) Each instructor who instructs in a flight simulator or flight training

device shall satisfactorily complete an approved course of training in the operation of the flight simulator, and an approved course of ground instruction, applicable to the training courses the instructor is designated to instruct, which shall include — (i) Proper operation of flight simulator and flight training device

controls and systems; (ii) Proper operation of environmental and fault panels; (iii) Limitations of simulation; and (iv) Minimum equipment requirements for each curriculum.

(4) Each flight instructor who provides training in an aircraft shall satisfactorily complete an approved course of ground instruction and flight training in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device, which shall include — (i) Performance and analysis of flight training procedures and

manoeuvres applicable to the training courses that the instructor is designated to instruct;

(ii) Technical subjects covering aircraft subsystems and operating rules applicable to the training courses that the instructor is designated to instruct;

(iii) Emergency operations; (iv) Emergency situations likely to develop during training; and (v) Appropriate safety measures.

(5) Each instructor who instructs in flight training equipment shall pass a knowledge test and annual proficiency check — (i) In the flight training equipment in which the instructor will be

instructing; and (ii) On the subject matter and manoeuvres of a representative

segment of each curriculum for which the instructor will be instructing.

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(b) In addition to the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(5), each certificate holder shall ensure that each instructor who instructs in a flight simulator that the Authority has approved for all training and all testing for the airline transport pilot licensing test, aircraft type rating test, or both, has met at least one of the prescribed requirements.

(c) The Authority will consider completion of a curriculum required by paragraph (a) or (b) taken in the calendar month before or after the month in which it is due as taken in the month in which it was due for the purpose of computing when the next training is due.

(d) The Authority may give credit for the requirements of paragraph (a) or (b) to an instructor who has satisfactorily completed an instructor training course for a Schedule 12 certificate holder if the Authority finds such a course equivalent to the requirements of paragraph (a) or (b). See Appendix 1 to 9.165 specific testing and training requirements for a Level 2 ATO instructor.

9.170 LEVEL 2 ATO EVALUATOR REQUIREMENTS (a) Except as provided by paragraph (d), each ATO shall ensure that each

person authorised as an evaluator — (1) Is approved by the Authority; (2) Is in compliance with the prescribed requirements; (3) Prior to designation, satisfactorily completes a curriculum within 12

calendar months that includes the following — (i) Evaluator duties, functions, and responsibilities;

(ii) Methods, procedures, and techniques for conducting required tests and checks;

(iii) Evaluation of pilot performance; and (iv) Management of unsatisfactory tests and subsequent corrective

action; and (4) If evaluating in-flight training equipment, satisfactorily pass a

knowledge test and annual proficiency check in a flight simulator or aircraft in which the evaluator will be evaluating.

(b) For the purpose of computing when evaluator training is due, the Authority will consider that an evaluator who satisfactorily completes a curriculum required by paragraph (a)(3) in the calendar month before or the calendar month after the month in which it was due, to have taken it in the month it was due.

(c) The Authority may give credit for the requirements of paragraph (a)(3) to an evaluator who has satisfactorily completed an evaluator training course for an AOC holder if the Authority finds such a course equivalent to the requirements of paragraph (a)(3).

9.175 LEVEL 1 ATO PERSONNEL (a) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall have

adequate personnel, including licenced flight instructors, licenced ground instructors, and holders of a commercial pilot licence with a lighter-than-air rating, if applicable, and a chief instructor who are qualified and competent to perform the duties assigned in each approved training course.

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(b) Each instructor for ground or flight training shall hold a flight instructor licence, ground instructor licence, or commercial pilot licence with a lighter-than-air rating, as appropriate, with ratings for the approved training course and any aircraft used in that course.

9.180 LEVEL 1 ATO CHIEF INSTRUCTOR QUALIFICATIONS (a) To be designated as a chief instructor for a Level 1 ATO course, a person

shall meet one or more of the requirements prescribed by the Authority. See Appendix 1 to 9.180 for chief instructor qualification requirements.

9.185 LEVEL 1 ATO ASSISTANT CHIEF INSTRUCTOR QUALIFICATIONS (a) To be designated as an assistant chief instructor for a Level 1 ATO course,

a person shall meet the requirements prescribed by the Authority. See Appendix 9.185 for assistant chief instructor qualification requirements.

9.190 LEVEL 1 ATO CHECK INSTRUCTOR QUALIFICATIONS (a) To be designated as a check instructor for a Level 1 ATO conducting

student stage checks, end-of-course tests, and instructor proficiency checks under this Schedule, a person shall meet the applicable requirements prescribed by the Authority. See Appendix 1 to 9.190 for check instructor qualification requirements.

9.195 LEVEL 1 ATO INSTRUCTOR FLIGHT TRAINING (a) No person other than a licenced flight instructor or commercial pilot with a

lighter-than-air rating who has the ratings and the minimum qualifications specified in the approved training course outline may give a student flight training under an approved course of training.

(b) No ATO may authorise a student pilot to start a solo flight until the flight has been approved by an authorised instructor who is present at the origination.

(c) Each chief instructor and assistant chief instructor assigned to a training course shall complete, at least once every 12 calendar months, an approved syllabus of training consisting of ground or flight training, or both, or an approved flight instructor refresher course.

(d) Each licenced flight instructor or commercial pilot with a lighter-than-air rating who is assigned to a flight training course shall satisfactorily complete the following tasks, which shall be administered by the school’s chief instructor, assistant chief instructor, or check instructor — (1) Prior to receiving authorisation to train students in a flight training

course, accomplish — (i) A review of and a briefing on the objectives and standards of

that training course; and (ii) An initial proficiency check in each make and model of aircraft

used in that training course in which that person provides training.

(2) Every 12 calendar months after the month in which the person last complied with paragraph (d)(1)(ii), accomplish a proficiency check in one of the aircraft in which the person trains students.

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9.200 LEVEL 1 ATO INSTRUCTOR GROUND TRAINING (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), each instructor who is assigned to a

ground training course, shall hold a flight or ground instructor licence, or a commercial pilot licence with a lighter-than-air rating with the appropriate rating for that course of training.

(b) A person who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (a) may be assigned ground training duties in a ground training course, if — (1) The chief instructor who is assigned to that ground training course

finds the person qualified to give that training; and (2) The instructor serves under the supervision of the chief instructor or

the assistant chief instructor who is present at the facility when the training is given.

An instructor may not be used in a ground training course until that instructor has been briefed in regard to the objectives and standards of that course by the chief instructor, assistant chief instructor, or check instructor.

9.205 LEVEL 1 ATO CHIEF INSTRUCTOR RESPONSIBILITIES (a) During training, each Level 1 ATO shall ensure that the chief instructor or

an assistant chief instructor is available — (1) At the Level 1 ATO; or (2) By telephone, radio, or other electronic means.

Section V: Operating Rules 9.210 APPLICABILITY (a) This section prescribes the operating rules applicable to a certified ATO

and operating a course or training program curriculum approved in accordance with this Schedule.

9.215 PRIVILEGES (a) A Level 2 ATO certificate holder may allow flight simulator instructors and

evaluators to meet recency of experience requirements through the use of a flight simulator or flight training device if that flight simulator or flight training device is used in an approved course.

(b) The holder of an ATO certificate may advertise and conduct approved pilot training courses in accordance with the certificate and any ratings that it holds.

(c) A Level 1 ATO may credit towards the curriculum requirements of a course previous training and pilot experience and knowledge, provided the student meets the prescribed requirements. See Appendix 1 to 9.215 for specific transfer credit requirements.

9.220 LIMITATIONS: ATO (a) Each ATO shall —

(1) Ensure that a flight simulator or flight training device freeze, slow motion, or repositioning feature is not used during testing or checking; and

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(2) Ensure that a repositioning feature is used during line operational simulation for evaluation and line-oriented flight training only to advance along a flight route to the point where the descent and approach phase of the flight begins.

(b) When practical testing, flight checking, or line operational simulation is being conducted, the Level 2 ATO shall ensure that one of the following occupies each supporting crew member position — (1) A crew member qualified as SIC in the aircraft category and class,

provided that no flight instructor who is giving instruction may occupy a crew member position; and

(2) A student, provided that no student may be used in a crew member position with any other student not in the same specific course.

(c) Maintenance of Personnel, Facilities, and Equipment: The holder of an ATO certificate may not provide training to a student who is enrolled in an approved course of training unless each airport, all flight training equipment, and each authorised instructor and evaluator continuously meets the requirements and the standards specified in the certificate holder’s training specifications.

(d) A certified ATO may not require any student to attend classes of instruction more than 8 hours in any day or more than 6 days or 40 hours in any consecutive 7-day period.

9.225 LIMITATIONS: ENROLLED STUDENTS IN ACTUAL FLIGHT CURRICULA

(a) Each student pilot shall carry the following items on each aircraft used for flight training and solo flights — (1) A pre-takeoff and pre-landing checklist; and (2) The operator’s handbook or AFM for the aircraft if one is furnished by

the manufacturer or copies of the handbook to each student using the aircraft.

9.230 LEVEL 1 ATO ENROLMENT DOCUMENTS (a) The holder of a Level 1 ATO certificate shall furnish each student, upon

enrolment, with a copy of the following — (1) A certificate of enrolment containing —

(i) The name of the course in which the student is enrolled; and (ii) The date of that enrolment.

(2) A copy of the student’s training syllabus. (3) For pilot students, a copy of the safety procedures and practices that

describe — (i) The use of facilities and the operation of its aircraft;

(ii) The weather minimums required by the school for dual and solo flights;

(iii) The procedures for starting and taxiing aircraft on the ramp; (iv) Fire precautions and procedures; (v) Redispatch procedures after unprogrammed landings, on and off

airports;

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(vi) Aircraft discrepancies and write-offs; (vii) Securing of aircraft when not in use;

(viii) Fuel reserves necessary for local and cross-country flights; (ix) Avoidance of other aircraft in flight and on the ground; (x) Minimum altitude limitations and simulated emergency landing

instructions; and (xi) A description of and instructions regarding the use of assigned

practice areas. (4) The holder of a Level 1 ATO certificate shall maintain a monthly

listing of persons enrolled in each training course offered by the school.

(b) Each Level 1 ATO applicant shall ensure that each training course for which it seeks approval meets the minimum curriculum requirements. See Appendix 1 to 9.230 for Level 1 training course contents.

SUBPART E AIRMEN OTHER THAN FLIGHT CREW

Section I: Airmen Except AMTs

9.235 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart provides an alternative means to accomplish flight training

required by Schedules 2 or 9. (b) Certification under this Subpart is not required for training that is —

(1) Approved under the provisions of Schedules 11; and (2) Conducted under Schedule 8, unless that Schedule requires

certification under this Schedule. 9.240 OTHER TRAINING COURSES (a) The Authority may approve the following courses of instruction to an

applicant for, or holder of an ATO certificate, provided the applicant meets the applicable requirements for: (1) Operational Control Person. (2) Flight engineer. (3) Flight attendants. (4) Material handlers. (5) Ground servicing personnel. (6) Load controllers. (7) Security personnel. (8) Others approved by the Authority.

(b) The Authority will approve a course for which the application is made if the ATO, or ATO applicant, shows that the course contains a curriculum that will achieve a level of competency equal to, or greater than, that required by the applicable Schedules of these regulations. See Appendix 5 to 9.090 for Flight Engineer Training Course Requirements.

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9.245 APPLICATION, DURATION, AND RENEWAL (a) Application. An ATO proposing to train Operational Control Persons shall

submit an application containing — (1) Instruction in the areas of knowledge and topics; (2) A minimum of 200 total course hours; and (3) An outline of the major topics and subtopics to be covered and the

number of hours proposed for each. (b) Duration and renewal.

(1) The authority to operate an aircraft Operational Control Person licensing course expires 24 months after the last day of the month of issuance of the authority.

(2) The holder of an approval for an aircraft Operational Control Person licensing course shall apply to the Authority for renewal within 30 days prior to the expiration date.

(c) Instruction. (1) The holder of a course approval shall ensure that it maintains an

adequate number of instructors who maintain a 24 calendar-month average of at least 80 percent of the graduates of that school passing the practical test on the first attempt.

See Appendix 1 to 9.250 for course approval requirements. Section II: AMT Training Courses

9.250 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart prescribes the requirements for —

(1) Issuing ATO certificates and ratings; (2) Conducting licensing courses and associated ratings for AMTs; and (3) Instructing the general operating rules for the holders of AMT licences

and ratings. 9.255 AMT TRAINING COURSES (a) The Authority may approve the following courses of instruction to an

applicant for, or holder of an ATO certificate, provided the applicant meets the requirements for: (1) AMT —

(i) Airframe rating; (ii) Powerplant rating; and (iii) Airframe and Powerplant rating

9.260 GENERAL CURRICULUM REQUIREMENTS (a) Each ATO shall have an approved curriculum that is designed to qualify its

students to perform the duties of an AMT for a particular rating or ratings. (b) The curriculum shall offer at least the following number of hours of

instruction shown, and the instruction unit hour shall be not less than 50 minutes in length.

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(1) Airframe — 1,150 hours (400 general plus 750 airframe). (2) Powerplant — 1,150 hours (400 general and 750 powerplant). (3) Combined airframe and powerplant — 1,900 hours (400 general plus

750 airframe and 750 powerplant). (c) The curriculum shall cover the prescribed subjects and items. (d) Each ATO shall teach each subject to at least the indicated level of

proficiency prescribed by the Authority. (e) The certificate holder shall maintain a curriculum that shows —

(1) The required practical projects to be completed; (2) For each subject, the proportions of theory and other instruction to be

given; and (3) A list of the minimum required tests to be given.

(f) Each ATO may issue AMT licences of competency to persons successfully completing speciality courses provided that all requirements are met and the licences of competency specifies the aircraft make and model to which the licence applies.

See Appendix 1 to 9.260 for applicable AMT course curriculum subjects and items. 9.265 AMT TRAINING PROGRAM PROVIDERS (a) The holder of a training organization applicant may apply to the Authority

for approval for an AMT training program. (b) An AOC holder, an AMO, or an ATO may apply to the Authority for approval

for an AMT training program that meets the requirements of this Subpart. 9.270 INSTRUCTOR REQUIREMENTS (a) Each ATO shall provide the number of instructors holding appropriate licences

and ratings, issued under Schedule 8, that the Authority determines is necessary to provide adequate instruction and supervision of the students, including at least one such instructor for each 25 students in each class held in a shop where students are performing actual tasks appropriate to the curriculum.

(b) An ATO may provide specialised instructors, who are not licenced in accordance with Schedule 8, to teach mathematics, physics, basic electricity, basic hydraulics, drawing, and similar subjects.

(c) Each ATO shall maintain a list of the names and qualifications of such specialised instructors, and upon request, provide a copy of the list, with a summary of the qualifications of each specialised instructor to the Authority.

9.275 ATTENDANCE AND CREDIT FOR PRIOR INSTRUCTION OR EXPERIENCE

(a) An ATO may credit a student with instruction or previous experience as follows: (1) Instruction satisfactorily completed at —

(i) An accredited university, college, or junior college; (ii) An accredited vocational, technical, trade or high school;

(iii) A military technical school; or (iv) An ATO.

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(2) Previous aviation maintenance experience comparable to required curriculum subjects — (i) By determining the amount of credit to be allowed by

documents verifying previous experience; and (ii) By giving the student a test equal to the one given to students

who complete the comparable required curriculum subject at the ATO.

(3) Credit to be allowed for previous instruction — (i) By an entrance test equal to one given to the students who

complete a comparable required curriculum subject at the crediting ATO;

(ii) By an evaluation of an authenticated transcript from the student’s former school; or

(iii) In the case of an applicant from a military school, only on the basis of an entrance test.

(4) A certificate holder may credit a student seeking an additional rating with previous satisfactory completion of the general portion of an AMT’s curriculum.

(b) Each ATO shall show hours of absence allowed and how it will make missed material available to the student.

APPENDICES APPENDIX 1 TO 9.020

APPLICATION FOR ATO CERTIFICATE (a) Each applicant for an ATO certificate and training specification shall

provide to the Authority the following information: (1) A statement showing that the minimum qualification requirements for

each management position are met or exceeded. (2) A statement acknowledging that the applicant may notify the

Authority within 10 working days of any change made in the assignment of persons in the required management positions.

(3) The proposed training specifications requested by the applicant. (4) The proposed evaluation authorisation. (5) A description of the flight training equipment that the applicant

proposes to use. (6) A description of the applicant’s training facilities, equipment, and

qualifications of personnel to be used, and proposed evaluation plans. (7) A training program curriculum, including syllabi, outlines,

courseware, procedures, and documentation to support the required items upon request by the Authority.

(8) A description of a recordkeeping system that will identify and document the details of training, qualification, and licensing of students, instructors, and evaluators.

(9) A description of quality control measures proposed.

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(10) A method of demonstrating the applicant’s qualification and ability to provide training for a licence or rating in fewer than the minimum hours prescribed in Schedule 8 if the applicant proposes to do so.

APPENDIX 1 TO 9.025 TRAINING COURSE CONTENTS

(a) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure that each training course contains — (1) A description of each flight simulator or flight training device used for

training; (2) A listing of the airports at which training flights originate and a

description of the facilities, including pilot briefing areas that are available for use by the school’s students and personnel at each of those airports;

(3) A description of the type of aircraft including any special equipment used for each phase of training;

(4) The minimum qualifications and ratings for each instructor assigned to ground or flight training; and

(5) A training syllabus that includes — (i) The prerequisites for enrolling in the ground and flight portion

of the course that include the pilot licence and rating (if required by this Schedule), training, pilot experience, and pilot knowledge;

(ii) A detailed description of each lesson, including the lesson’s objectives, standards, and planned time for completion;

(iii) Course learning objectives; (iv) Stage learning objectives and standards; and (v) A description of the checks and tests to be used to measure

learning after each stage of training. (b) A Level 1 ATO may —

(1) Include training in a flight simulator or flight training device, provided it is representative of the aircraft for which the course is approved, meets the requirements of this paragraph, and the training is given by an authorised instructor; and

(2) Permit a student to credit training in a flight simulator that meets the requirements for a maximum of 25 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved course.

APPENDIX 1 TO 9.050 FACILITIES FOR AMT COURSES

(a) An applicant for, and holder of, an ATO certificate shall have facilities the Authority determines are appropriate for the maximum number of students expected to be taught at any time, as follows: (1) An enclosed classroom.

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(2) Suitable facilities arranged to assure proper separation from the working space, for parts, tools, materials, and similar articles.

(3) Suitable area for application of finishing materials, including paint spraying.

(4) Suitable areas equipped with washtank and degreasing equipment with air pressure or other adequate cleaning equipment.

(5) Suitable facilities for running engines. (6) Suitable area with adequate equipment, including benches, tables, and

test equipment, to disassemble, service, and inspect — (i) Ignition systems, electrical equipment, and appliances;

(ii) Carburettors and fuel systems; and (iii) Hydraulic and vacuum systems for aircraft, aircraft engines, and

their appliances. (7) Suitable space with adequate equipment, including tables, benches,

stands, and jacks, for disassembling, inspecting, and rigging aircraft. (8) Suitable space with adequate equipment for disassembling, inspecting,

assembling, troubleshooting, and timing engines. APPENDIX 1 TO 9.090

PRIVATE PILOT LICENSING COURSE (a) Applicability. Appendix A prescribes the minimum curriculum for a private

pilot licensing course with the following ratings — (1) Aeroplane single-engine; (2) Aeroplane multi-engine; (3) Rotorcraft helicopter; (4) Rotorcraft gyroplane; (5) Powered-lift; (6) Glider; (7) Lighter-than-air airship; and (8) Lighter-than-air balloon.

(b) Eligibility for enrolment. A person shall hold a student pilot licence prior to enrolling in the flight portion of the private pilot licensing course.

(c) Aeronautical knowledge training. (1) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall

ensure that each approved course includes at least the following hours of ground training on the following aeronautical knowledge areas, appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating — (i) 35 hours for an aeroplane, rotorcraft, or powered-lift category

rating; (ii) 15 hours for a glider category rating;

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(iii) 10 hours for a lighter-than-air category with a balloon class rating; and (iv) 35 hours for a lighter-than-air category with an airship class rating.

(2) Ground training shall include the following aeronautical knowledge areas —

(i) Applicable Bahamian regulations for private pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations;

(ii) Accident reporting requirements of The Bahamas; (iii) Applicable subjects of the Authority provided aeronautical

information publications; (iv) Aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage, dead

reckoning, and navigation systems; (v) Radio communication procedures;

(vi) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts;

(vii) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence;

(viii) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance; (ix) Weight and balance computations; (x) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems;

(xi) If the training course is for an aeroplane category or glider category rating, stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery techniques;

(xii) Aeronautical decision making and judgement; and (xiii) Pre-flight action that includes —

(A) Obtaining information on runway lengths, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and forecasts, and fuel requirements; and

(B) Planning for alternatives if a planned flight cannot be completed or delays are encountered.

(d) Flight training. (1) Each applicant for, and holder of, an ATO certificate with this rating

shall include at least the following hours of flight training on the areas of operation listed in paragraph (d), appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating — (i) 35 hours for an aeroplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or airship

rating; (ii) 6 hours for a glider rating; and

(iii) 8 hours for a balloon rating. (2) Each applicant for, and holder of, an ATO certificate with this rating

shall include at least the following hours of flight training in each course —

(i) For each category and class, unless otherwise noted, 20 hours from a licenced flight instructor on the applicable areas of operation that includes at least —

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(A) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in the category and class involved;

(B) 3 hours of night flight training in the category and class involved that includes —

1. One cross-country flight of more than 100-nautical-miles total distance; and

2. 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern).

(ii) (A) 3 hours of instrument training in the category and class involved; and

(B) 3 hours in the category and class involved in preparation for the practical test within 60 days proceeding the date of the test.

(3) Specific training for other categories and classes as shown: (i) For a rotorcraft helicopter and gyroplane course:

(A) 3 hours of night flight training in a helicopter that includes one cross-country flight of more than 50-nautical-miles total distance.

(ii) For a glider course: 4 hours from a licenced flight instructor on the areas of operation in paragraph (d)(6) that includes at least — (A) Five training flights in a glider on launch/tow procedures

approved for the course and in the applicable areas of operation listed in paragraph (d)(6); and

(B) Three training flights in a glider in preparation for the practical test within 60 days proceeding the date of the test.

(iii) For a lighter-than-air airship course: 20 hours from a commercial pilot with an airship rating on the areas of operation in paragraph (e)(7) that includes at least — (A) The training shown in paragraph (c)(1)(iv), taken in a

lighter-than-air airship; (B) 3 hours of night flight training in an airship that includes —

1. One cross-country flight over 25 nautical-miles total distance; and

2. Five takeoffs and five landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern).

(iv) For a lighter-than-air balloon course: 8 hours, including at least five flights, from a commercial pilot with a balloon rating on the areas of operation in paragraph (e)(8), that includes — (A) If the training is being performed in a gas balloon —

1. Two flights of 1 hour each; 2. One flight involving a controlled ascent to 3,000 feet

above the launch site; and 3. Two flights in preparation for the practical test within

60 days proceeding the date of the test.

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(B) If the training is being performed in a balloon with an airborne heater — 1. Two flights of 30 minutes each; 2. One flight involving a controlled ascent to 2,000 feet

above the launch site; and 3. Two flights in preparation for the practical test within 60

days proceeding the date of the test. (4) Each approved course shall include flight training in the following areas

of operation that are applicable to the aircraft category and class rating — (i) Preflight preparation;

(ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance manoeuvres;

(vi) Ground reference manoeuvres; (vii) Navigation;

(viii) Slow flight and stalls; (ix) Basic instrument manoeuvres; (x) Emergency operations;

(xi) Night operations; and (xii) Postflight procedures.

(5) In addition, for the specific category and class of aircraft shown, each approved course shall include the applicable flight training in the following areas of operation:

(i) For a multi-engine aeroplane course — (A) Multi-engine operations.

(ii) For a rotorcraft helicopter course — (A) Hovering manoeuvres.

(iii) For a rotorcraft gyroplane course — (A) Flight at slow airspeeds.

(iv) For a powered-lift course — (A) Hovering manoeuvres.

(v) For a glider course — (A) Launches/tows, as appropriate, and landings; (B) Performance speeds; and (C) Soaring techniques.

(vi) For a lighter-than-air balloon course — (A) Launches and landings.

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(e) Solo flight training. Each approved course shall include at least the following solo flight training — (1) For an aeroplane single-engine course: 5 hours of solo flight training

in a single-engine aeroplane on the applicable areas of operation in paragraph (d) that includes at least — (i) One solo cross-country flight of at least 100 nautical miles with

landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and

(ii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.

(2) For an aeroplane multi-engine course: 5 hours of flight training in a multi-engine aeroplane performing the functions of a pilot in command while under the supervision of a licenced flight instructor. The training shall consist of the applicable areas of operation in paragraph (d) and include at least — (i) One cross-country flight of at least 100 nautical miles with

landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and

(ii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.

(3) For a rotorcraft helicopter course: 5 hours of solo flight training in a helicopter on the areas of operation in paragraph (d) that includes at least — (i) One solo cross-country flight of more than 50 nautical miles

with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and

(ii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.

(4) For a rotorcraft gyroplane course: 5 hours of solo flight training in gyroplanes on the applicable areas of operation in paragraph (d) that includes at least — (i) One solo cross-country flight of more than 50 nautical miles

with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations; and

(ii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower.

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(5) For a powered-lift course: 5 hours of solo flight training in a powered- lift on the applicable areas of operation in paragraph (d) that includes at least —

(i) One solo cross-country flight of at least 100 nautical miles with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles between the takeoff and landing locations;

(ii) Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport with an operating control tower; and

(iii) Transition from hover to forward flight using wing lift. (6) For a glider course: Two solo flights in a glider on the applicable areas

of operation in paragraph (d) and the launch and tow procedures appropriate for the approved course.

(7) For a lighter-than-air airship course: 5 hours of flight training in the applicable areas of operation shown in paragraph (d) in an airship performing the functions of pilot in command while under the supervision of a commercial pilot with an airship rating.

(8) For a lighter-than-air balloon course: Training on the applicable areas of operation in paragraph (d), as applicable, and —

(i) Two solo flights in a balloon with an airborne heater; or (ii) At least two flights in a gas balloon performing the functions of

pilot in command while under the supervision of a commercial pilot with a balloon rating.

(f) Stage checks and end-of-course tests. (1) Each student, to graduate from a private pilot course shall

satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, consisting of the applicable areas of operation listed in paragraph (d) for the aircraft category and class rating.

(2) Each student shall demonstrate satisfactory proficiency prior to being endorsed to operate an aircraft in solo flight.

APPENDIX 2 TO 9.090 COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENSING COURSE

(a) Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for a commercial pilot licensing course required under this Schedule, for the following ratings: (1) Aeroplane single-engine. (2) Aeroplane multi-engine. (3) Rotorcraft helicopter. (4) Rotorcraft gyroplane. (5) Powered-lift. (6) Glider.

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(7) Lighter-than-air airship. (8) Lighter-than-air balloon.

(b) Eligibility for enrolment. A person shall hold the following prior to enrolling in the flight portion of the commercial pilot licensing course — (1) At least a private pilot licence; and (2) If the course is for a rating in an aeroplane or a powered-lift category —

(i) Hold an instrument rating in the aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category rating for which the course applies; or

(ii) Be enrolled concurrently in an instrument rating course that is appropriate to the aircraft category rating for which the course applies, and pass the required instrument rating practical test prior to completing the commercial pilot licensing course.

(c) Aeronautical knowledge training. (1) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall

ensure that each course includes at least the following ground training on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (b): (i) 65 hours for an aeroplane category rating, powered-lift category

rating, or a lighter-than-air category with an airship class rating. (ii) 30 hours for a rotorcraft category rating. (iii) 20 hours for a glider category rating. (iv) 20 hours for a lighter-than-air category with a balloon class

rating. (2) Ground training shall include the following aeronautical knowledge

areas: (i) Bahamian regulations that apply to commercial pilot privileges,

limitations, and flight operations. (ii) Accident reporting requirements of The Bahamas. (iii) Basic aerodynamics and the principles of flight. (iv) Meteorology, to include recognition of critical weather

situations, windshear recognition and avoidance, and the use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts.

(v) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft. (vi) Weight and balance computations.

(vii) Use of performance charts. (viii) Significance and effects of exceeding aircraft performance

limitations. (ix) Use of aeronautical charts and a magnetic compass for pilotage

and dead reckoning. (x) Use of air navigation facilities.

(xi) Aeronautical decision making and judgement. (xii) Principles and functions of aircraft systems.

(xiii) Manoeuvres, procedures, and emergency operations appropriate to the aircraft.

(xiv) Night and high-altitude operations.

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(xv) Descriptions of and procedures for operating within the Bahamian Airspace System.

(xvi) Procedures for flight and ground training for lighter-than-air ratings.

(d) Flight training. (1) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall

ensure that each course includes at least the following flight training on the applicable areas of operation listed in paragraph (c):

(i) 155 hours for an aeroplane, powered-lift, or an airship rating. (ii) 115 hours for a rotorcraft rating.

(iii) 6 hours for a glider rating. (iv) 10 hours and 8 training flights for a balloon rating.

(2) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure that each course includes at least the following flight training —

(i) For an aeroplane single-engine course: 55 hours of flight training from a licenced flight instructor on the areas of operation listed in paragraph (c)(1) that includes at least — (A) 5 hours of instrument training in a single-engine aeroplane; (B) 10 hours of training in a single-engine aeroplane that has

retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller, or is turbine-powered;

(C) One cross-country flight in a single-engine aeroplane of at least a 2-hour duration, a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure, and occurring in day VFR conditions;

(D) One cross-country flight in a single-engine aeroplane of at least a 2-hour duration, a total straight-line distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the original point of departure, and occurring in night VFR conditions; and

(E) 3 hours in a single-engine aeroplane in preparation for the practical test within 60 days proceeding the date of the test.

(ii) For an aeroplane multi-engine course: The flight training shown in paragraph (d)(1), accomplished in a multi-engine aeroplane.

(iii) For a rotorcraft helicopter and gyroplane course — (A) The flight training shown in paragraph (d)(1),

accomplished in a helicopter; except 30 hours of flight training from a licenced flight instructor on the areas of operation listed in paragraph (e)(3) that includes at least — 1. 5 hours of instrument training; 2. One cross-country flight in a helicopter of at least a 2-

hour duration, a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure, and occurring in day VFR conditions; and

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3. One cross-country flight in a helicopter of at least a 2-hour duration, a total straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure, and occurring in night VFR conditions.

(iv) For a powered-lift course: The applicable flight training shown in paragraph (d)(1), flown in a powered-lift aircraft.

(v) For a glider course: 4 hours of flight training from a licenced flight instructor on the areas of operation in paragraph (e)(6), that includes at least — (A) Five training flights in a glider on launch/tow procedures

approved for the course and on the appropriate areas of operation listed in paragraph (e)(6); and

(B) Three training flights in a glider in preparation for the practical test within the 60 days proceeding the date of the test.

(vi) For a lighter-than-air airship course: 55 hours of training in airships from a commercial pilot with an airship rating on the areas of operation in paragraph (c)(7) that includes at least — (A) 3 hours of instrument training in an airship; (B) One cross-country flight in an airship of at least a 1-hour

duration, a total straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure, and occurring in day VFR conditions; and

(C) One cross-country flight in an airship of at least a 1-hour duration, a total straight-line distance of more than 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure, and occurring in night VFR conditions; and

(D) 3 hours in an airship, in preparation for the practical test within 60 days proceeding the date of the test.

(vii) For a lighter-than-air balloon course: Flight training from a commercial pilot with a balloon rating on the areas of operation in paragraph (e)(8) that includes at least — (A) For a gas balloon —

1. Two flights of 1 hour each; 2. One flight involving a controlled ascent to at least

5,000 feet above the launch site; and 3. Two flights in preparation for the practical test within

60 days proceeding the date of the test. (B) For a balloon with an airborne heater —

1. Two flights of 30 minutes each; 2. One flight involving a controlled ascent to at least

3,000 feet above the launch site; and 3. Two flights in preparation for the practical test within

60 days proceeding the date of the test.

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(3) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure that each course includes the flight training on the following areas of operation, as applicable —

(i) For an aeroplane single-engine course — (A) Preflight preparation; (B) Preflight procedures; (C) Airport and seaplane base operations; (D) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (E) Performance manoeuvres; (F) Navigation; (G) Slow flight and stalls; (H) Emergency operations; (I) High-altitude operations; and (J) Postflight procedures.

(4) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure that each course for the following category and class ratings includes flight training on the applicable areas of operation: (i) For an aeroplane multi-engine course —

(A) Multi-engine operations. (ii) For a rotorcraft helicopter course —

(A) Hovering manoeuvres; (B) Transition to wing-borne flight; (C) Transition to hover; and (D) Special operations.

(iii) For a rotorcraft gyroplane course — (A) Flight at slow airspeeds.

(iv) For a powered-lift course — (A) Hovering manoeuvres; and (B) Special operations.

(v) For a glider course — (A) Launches/tows, as appropriate, and landings; and (B) Soaring techniques.

(vi) For a lighter-than-air airship course — (A) Fundamentals of instructing; (B) Technical subjects; and (C) Preflight lessons on a manoeuvre to be performed in flight.

(vii) For a lighter-than-air balloon course — (A) Fundamentals of instructing; (B) Technical subjects; (C) Preflight lesson on a manoeuvre to be performed in flight; and

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(D) Launches and landings. (e) Solo training. Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate,

shall ensure that each approved course includes at least the following solo flight training — (1) For an aeroplane single-engine course: 10 hours of solo flight training

in a single-engine aeroplane on the areas of operation in paragraph (d)(3)(i) that include at least — (i) One cross-country flight, if the training is being performed on a

small island, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one of the segments consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 150 nautical miles;

(ii) One cross-country flight, if the training is being performed on other than a small island, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles; and

(iii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings with each landing involving a flight with a traffic pattern at an airport with an operating control tower.

(2) For an aeroplane multi-engine course: 10 hours of flight training in a multi-engine aeroplane performing the functions of pilot in command while under the supervision of a licenced flight instructor, consisting of the areas of operation in paragraph (d)(4)(i) that include at least — (i) One cross-country flight, if the training is being performed on a

small island, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one of the segments consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 150 nautical miles;

(ii) One cross-country flight, if the training is being performed on a small island, with landings at a minimum of three points and one segment of the flight consisting of straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles; and

(iii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings with each landing involving a flight with a traffic pattern at an airport with an operating control tower.

(3) For a rotorcraft helicopter course: 10 hours of solo flight training in a helicopter on the areas of operation in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) that include at least — (i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three

points and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings with each landing involving a flight with a traffic pattern at an airport with an operating control tower.

(4) For a rotorcraft-gyroplane course: 10 hours of solo flight training in a gyroplane on the areas of operation in paragraph (d)(4)(iii) that include at least —

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(i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings with each landing involving a flight with a traffic pattern at an airport with an operating control tower.

(5) For a powered-lift course: 10 hours of solo flight training in a powered-lift on the areas of operation in paragraph (d)(4)(iv) that include at least — (i) One cross-country flight, if the training is being performed on a

small island, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting a straight-line distance of at least 150 nautical miles;

(ii) One cross-country flight, if the training is being performed on a small island, with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 250 nautical miles; and

(iii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings with each landing involving a flight with a traffic pattern at an airport with an operating control tower.

(6) For a glider course: 5 solo flights in a glider the areas of operation in paragraph (d)(4)(v).

(7) For a lighter-than-air airship course: 10 hours of flight training in an airship, while performing the functions of pilot in command under the supervision of a commercial pilot with an airship rating consisting of the areas of operation in paragraph (d)(4)(vi) that include at least —

(i) One cross-country flight with landings at a minimum of three points, and one segment of the flight consisting of a straight-line distance of at least 25 nautical miles from the original point of departure; and

(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings with each landing involving a flight with a traffic pattern.

(8) For a lighter-than-air balloon course: (i) Training on the applicable areas of operation in paragraph

(d)(4)(vii), while performing the duties of pilot in command under the supervision of a commercial pilot with a balloon rating.

(ii) Two solo flights is for a hot air balloon rating. (iii) At least two flights in a gas balloon for a gas balloon rating.

(f) Stage checks and end-of-course tests. (1) Each student, to graduate from a commercial pilot course, shall

satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests consisting of the applicable areas of operation listed in paragraph (d)(4).

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APPENDIX 3 TO 9.090 INSTRUMENT RATING COURSE

(a) Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for an instrument rating course and additional instrument rating course, required under this Schedule, for the following ratings: (1) Instrument: aeroplane. (2) Instrument: helicopter. (3) Instrument: powered-lift.

(b) Eligibility for enrolment. A person shall hold at least a private pilot licence with an aircraft category and class rating appropriate to the instrument rating for which the course applies prior to enrolling in the flight portion of the instrument rating course.

(c) Aeronautical knowledge training. (1) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall

ensure that each approved course includes at least the following hours of ground training on the aeronautical knowledge areas appropriate to the instrument rating sought — (i) 30 hours for an initial instrument rating.

(ii) 20 hours for an additional instrument rating. (2) Ground training shall include the following aeronautical knowledge

areas — (i) Applicable Bahamian regulations for IFR flight operations;

(ii) Appropriate information in aeronautical information publications provided by the Authority;

(iii) Air traffic control system and procedures for instrument flight operations;

(iv) IFR navigation and instrument approaches to an airport by use of navigation systems;

(v) Use of IFR en route and instrument approach procedure charts; (vi) Procurement and use of aviation weather reports and forecasts,

and the elements of forecasting weather trends on the basis of that information and personal observation of weather conditions;

(vii) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft under IFR conditions; (viii) Recognition of critical weather situations and windshear

avoidance; (ix) Aeronautical decision making and judgement; and (x) Crew resource management, to include crew communication and

co-ordination. (d) Flight training.

(1) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure that each course includes at least the following hours of flight training on the applicable areas of operation listed in paragraph (c) — (i) 35 hours for an initial instrument rating;

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(ii) 15 hours for an additional instrument rating. (2) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall

ensure that each course includes the following flight training — (i) For an instrument aeroplane course: Instrument training from a

licenced flight instructor with an instrument rating on the applicable areas of operation in paragraph (c) including at least one cross-country flight that — (A) Is in the category and class of aeroplane that the course is

approved for, and is performed under IFR; (B) Is a distance of at least 250 nautical miles with one

segment of the flight consisting of at least a straight-line distance of 100 nautical miles between airports;

(C) Involves an instrument approach at each airport; and (D) Involves three approaches with the using different kinds of

navigation systems. (ii) For an instrument helicopter course: Instrument training from a

licenced flight instructor with an instrument rating on the applicable areas of operation in paragraph (c) including at least one cross-country flight that — (A) Is performed in a helicopter under IFR; (B) Is a distance of at least 100 nautical miles with one

segment of the flight consisting of at least a straight-line distance of 50 nautical miles between airports;

(C) Involves an instrument approach at each airport; and (D) Involves three approaches with the using different kinds of

navigation systems. (iii) For an instrument powered-lift course: Instrument training from

a licenced flight instructor with an instrument rating on the areas of operation in paragraph (c) including at least one cross- country flight that — (A) Is in a powered-lift and is performed under IFR; (B) Involves transition from wing-borne to rotor-borne flight

under IFR; (C) Is a distance of at least 250 nautical miles with one

segment of the flight consisting of at least a straight-line distance of 100 nautical miles between airports;

(D) Involves an instrument approach at each airport; and (E) Involves three different kinds of approaches with the use

of navigation systems. (3) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall

ensure that each course includes the flight training on the applicable areas of operation listed in this paragraph appropriate to the instrument aircraft category and class rating —

(i) Preflight preparation;

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(ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Air traffic control clearances and procedures; (iv) Flight by reference to instruments; (v) Navigation systems; (vi) Instrument approach procedures;

(vii) Emergency operations; and (viii) Postflight procedures:

(e) Stage checks and end-of-course tests. (1) Each student, to graduate from an instrument rating course shall

satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, consisting of the areas of operation listed in paragraph (c) that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating.

APPENDIX 4 TO 9.090 AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENSING COURSE

(a) Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for a airline transport pilot licensing course under this Schedule, for the following ratings — (1) Aeroplane single-engine. (2) Aeroplane multi-engine. (3) Rotorcraft helicopter. (4) Powered-lift.

(b) Eligibility for enrolment. Prior to enrolling in the flight portion of the airline transport pilot licensing course, a person shall — (1) Meet the aeronautical experience requirements prescribed in Schedule

8 for an airline transport pilot licence that is appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies;

(2) Hold at least a commercial pilot licence and an instrument rating; (3) Meet the military experience requirements to qualify for a commercial

pilot licence and an instrument rating, if the person is a rated military pilot or former rated military pilot of an Armed Force of The Bahamas; or

(4) Hold a foreign airline transport pilot licence or foreign commercial pilot licence and an instrument rating, issued by a contracting State to the Convention on International Civil Aviation.

(c) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall

ensure that each course includes at least 40 hours of ground training on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (b).

(2) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure that ground training includes the following aeronautical knowledge areas — (i) Applicable Bahamian regulations that relate to airline transport

pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations;

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(ii) Meteorology, including knowledge of and effects of fronts, frontal characteristics, cloud formations, icing, and upper-air data;

(iii) General system of weather and NOTAM collection, dissemination, interpretation, and use;

(iv) Interpretation and use of weather charts, maps, forecasts, sequence reports, abbreviations, symbols;

(v) Bahamian Weather Service functions as they pertain to operations in the The Bahamas Airspace System;

(vi) Windshear and microburst awareness, identification, and avoidance;

(vii) Principles of air navigation under instrument meteorological conditions in the Bahamian Airspace System;

(viii) Air traffic control procedures and pilot responsibilities as they relate to en route operations, terminal area and radar operations, and instrument departure and approach procedures;

(ix) Aircraft loading; weight and balance; use of charts, graphs, tables, formulas, and computations; and the effects on aircraft performance;

(x) Aerodynamics relating to an aircraft’s flight characteristics and performance in normal and abnormal flight regimes;

(xi) Human factors; (xii) Aeronautical decision making and judgement; and

(xiii) Crew resource management to include crew communication and co-ordination.

(d) Flight training. (1) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall

ensure that each course includes at least 25 hours of flight training on the applicable areas of operation listed in paragraph 3(b), including at least 15 hours of be instrument flight training; and

(2) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure that each course includes flight training on the following areas of operation, as applicable —

(i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures;

(iii) Takeoff and departure phase; (iv) In-flight manoeuvres; (v) Instrument procedures;

(vi) Landings and approaches to landings; (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;

(viii) Emergency procedures; and (ix) Postflight procedures.

(e) Stage checks and end-of-course tests. (1) Each student, to graduate from an airline transport pilot course shall

satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests,

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consisting of the areas of operation listed in paragraph 3(b) that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies.

APPENDIX 5 TO 9.090 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR LICENSING COURSE

(a) Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for a flight instructor licensing course and an additional flight instructor rating course required under this Schedule, for the following ratings — (1) Aeroplane single-engine. (2) Aeroplane multi-engine. (3) Rotorcraft helicopter. (4) Rotorcraft gyroplane. (5) Powered-lift. (6) Glider category.

(b) Eligibility for enrolment. A person shall hold the following prior to enrolling in the flight portion of the flight instructor or additional flight instructor rating course — (1) A commercial pilot licence or an airline transport pilot licence with an

aircraft category and class rating appropriate to the flight instructor rating for which the course applies; and

(2) An instrument rating or privilege in an aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies, if the course is for a flight instructor aeroplane or powered-lift instrument rating.

(c) Aeronautical knowledge training. (1) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall

ensure that each course includes at least the following ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (d) — (i) 40 hours of training if the course is for an initial issuance of a

flight instructor certificate; or (ii) 20 hours of training if the course is for an additional flight

instructor rating. (2) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall

ensure that ground training includes the following aeronautical knowledge areas — (i) The fundamentals of instructing, including —

(A) The learning process; (B) Elements of effective teaching; (C) Student evaluation and testing; (D) Course development;

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(E) Lesson planning; and (F) Classroom training techniques.

(ii) The aeronautical knowledge areas required for — (A) A private and commercial pilot licence that is appropriate to

the category and class rating sought; and (B) An instrument rating that is appropriate to the aircraft

category and class rating for which the course applies, if the course is for an aeroplane or powered-lift aircraft rating.

(3) A Level 1 ATO may credit a student who satisfactorily completes 2 years of study on the principles of education at a college or university with no more than 20 hours of the training required in paragraph (c)(1).

(d) Flight training. (1) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall

ensure that each course includes at least the following flight training on the applicable areas of operation of paragraphs (d)(2) and (d)(3) —

(i) 25 hours for an aeroplane, rotorcraft, or powered-lift rating; and (ii) 10 hours and 10 flights for a glider category rating.

(2) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure that each course includes flight training on the following areas of operation, as applicable for each category and class —

(i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subject areas;

(iii) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lesson on a manoeuvre to be performed in flight; (v) Preflight procedures;

(vi) Airport and seaplane base operations; (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds;

(viii) Fundamentals of flight; (ix) Performance manoeuvres; (x) Ground reference manoeuvres;

(xi) Slow flight, stalls, and spins; (xii) Basic instrument manoeuvres;

(xiii) Emergency operations; and (xiv) Postflight procedures.

(3) For the category and class of aircraft shown below, each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure that each course includes flight training in the following areas of operation, as applicable:

(i) For an aeroplane: multi-engine course — (A) Multi-engine operations.

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(ii) For a rotorcraft: helicopter course — (A) Hovering manoeuvres; and (B) Special operations.

(iii) For a rotorcraft: gyroplane course — (A) Flight at slow airspeeds.

(iv) For a powered-lift course — (A) Hovering manoeuvres; (B) Transition to wing-borne flight; (C) Transition to hover; and (D) Special operations.

(v) For a glider course — (A) Launches, landings, and go-arounds; (B) Performance speeds; and (C) Soaring techniques.

(e) Stage checks and end-of-course tests. (1) Each student, to graduate from a flight instructor course shall

satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, consisting of the applicable areas of operation listed in paragraph 4 of this Appendix.

(2) A student enrolled in a flight instructor-aeroplane rating or flight instructor-glider rating course shall have — (i) Received a logbook endorsement from a licenced flight

instructor certifying the student received ground and flight training on stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures in an aircraft that is certified for spins and that is appropriate to the rating sought; and

(ii) Demonstrated instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery procedures.

APPENDIX 6 TO 9.090 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR INSTRUMENT LICENSING COURSE

(a) Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for a flight instructor instrument licensing course required under this Schedule, for the following ratings — (1) Flight Instructor Instrument: Aeroplane. (2) Flight Instructor Instrument: Helicopter. (3) Flight Instructor Instrument: Powered-lift aircraft.

(b) Eligibility for enrolment. A pilot shall hold, prior to enrolling in the flight portion of the course — (1) A commercial pilot licence or airline transport pilot licence with a

category and class rating appropriate to the rating sought; and

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(2) For commercial pilot licence holders, an instrument rating that is appropriate to the rating sought.

(c) Aeronautical knowledge training. (1) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure

that each course includes at least 15 hours of ground training on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (c)(2).

(2) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure that each course includes ground training on the following aeronautical knowledge areas —

(i) The fundamentals of instructing including — (A) Learning process; (B) Elements of effective teaching; (C) Student evaluation and testing; (D) Course development; (E) Lesson planning; and (F) Classroom training techniques.

(ii) The aeronautical knowledge areas required for the instrument rating that is appropriate to the category and class of aircraft.

(d) Flight training. (1) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall

ensure that each course includes at least 15 hours of flight training in the applicable areas of operation of paragraph (b).

(2) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure that each course for the flight instructor-instrument rating includes flight training on the following areas of operation in paragraph (d)(2) —

(i) Fundamentals of instructing; (ii) Technical subject areas;

(iii) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lesson on a manoeuvre to be performed in flight; (v) Air traffic control clearances and procedures;

(vi) Flight by reference to instruments; (vii) Navigation systems;

(viii) Instrument approach procedures; (ix) Emergency operations; and (x) Postflight procedures.

(e) Stage checks and end-of-course tests. (1) Each student, to graduate from a flight instructor instrument course shall

satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, consisting of the applicable areas of operation listed in paragraph (d).

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APPENDIX 7 TO 9.090 GROUND INSTRUCTOR LICENSING COURSE

(a) Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for a ground instructor licensing course and an additional ground instructor rating course, issued under Schedule 8 for the following ratings — (1) Ground Instructor: Basic. (2) Ground Instructor: Advanced. (3) Ground Instructor: Instrument.

(b) Aeronautical knowledge training. (1) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure

that each course includes at least the following ground training on the applicable knowledge areas listed in paragraphs (b), (c), (d), and (e) — (i) 20 hours of training for an initial issuance of a ground instructor

certificate; or (ii) 10 hours of training for an additional ground instructor rating.

(2) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure that ground training includes the following aeronautical knowledge areas — (i) Learning process;

(ii) Elements of effective teaching; (iii) Student evaluation and testing; (iv) Course development; (v) Lesson planning; and (vi) Classroom training techniques.

(3) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure that ground training for a basic ground instructor licence includes the aeronautical knowledge areas applicable to a private pilot.

(4) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure that ground training for an advanced ground instructor rating includes the aeronautical knowledge areas applicable to a private, commercial, and airline transport pilot.

(5) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure that ground training for an instrument ground instructor rating includes the aeronautical knowledge areas applicable to an instrument rating.

(6) A Level 1 ATO may credit a student who satisfactorily completed 2 years of study on the principles of education at a college or university with 10 hours of the training required in paragraph (a)(1).

(c) Stage checks and end-of-course tests. (1) Each student, to graduate from a ground instructor course shall

satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, consisting of the applicable knowledge areas of this appendix.

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APPENDIX 8 TO 9.090 ADDITIONAL AIRCRAFT CATEGORY OR CLASS RATING COURSE

(a) Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for an additional aircraft category rating course or an additional aircraft class rating course required under this Schedule, for the following ratings: (1) Aeroplane single-engine. (2) Aeroplane multi-engine. (3) Rotorcraft helicopter. (4) Rotorcraft gyroplane. (5) Powered-lift. (6) Glider. (7) Lighter-than-air airship. (8) Lighter-than-air balloon.

(b) Eligibility for enrolment. A person shall hold the level of pilot licence for the additional aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies prior to enrolling in the flight portion of an additional aircraft category or additional aircraft class rating course.

(c) Aeronautical knowledge training. Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure that each course for an additional category rating and additional class rating includes the total number of hours of training in all the aeronautical knowledge areas appropriate to the aircraft rating and pilot licence level sought.

(d) Flight training. Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure that each course for an additional aircraft category rating or additional aircraft class includes the total number of hours of flight training on all of the areas of operation of this paragraph appropriate to the aircraft rating and pilot licence level for which the course applies.

(e) Stage checks and end-of-course tests. (1) Each student, to graduate from an additional aircraft category rating

course or an additional aircraft class rating course shall satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, consisting of the applicable areas of operation in this appendix.

(2) Each student shall demonstrate satisfactory proficiency prior to being endorsed to operate an aircraft in solo flight.

APPENDIX 9 TO 9.090 AIRCRAFT TYPE RATING COURSE

(a) Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum Level 1 ATO curriculum for an aircraft type rating course for: (1) A type rating in an aeroplane category: single-engine class. (2) A type rating in an aeroplane category: multi-engine class. (3) A type rating in a rotorcraft category: helicopter class.

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(4) A type rating in a powered-lift category. (5) Other aircraft type ratings specified by the Authority through the

aircraft type certificate procedures. (b) Eligibility for enrolment.

(1) Prior to enrolling in the flight portion of an aircraft type rating course, a person shall hold at least a private pilot licence and — (i) An instrument rating in the category and class of aircraft that is

appropriate to the aircraft type rating for which the course applies, provided the aircraft’s type certificate does not have a VFR limitation; or

(ii) Be concurrently enrolled in an instrument rating course in an aircraft of the type rating sought, and pass the required instrument rating practical test concurrently with the type rating practical test.

(c) Aeronautical knowledge training. (1) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall

ensure that each course includes at least 10 hours of ground training on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (b).

(2) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall ensure that ground training includes the following aeronautical areas — (i) Subjects requiring a practical knowledge of the aircraft type and

its powerplant, systems, components, operational, and performance factors;

(ii) The aircraft’s normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures, and the operations and limitations relating thereto;

(iii) Appropriate provisions of the approved aircraft’s flight manual; (iv) Location of and purpose of inspecting each item on the aircraft’s

checklist that relate to the exterior and interior preflight; and (v) Use of the aircraft’s prestart checklist, appropriate control

system checks, starting procedures, radio and electronic equipment checks, and the selection of proper navigation and communication radio facilities and frequencies.

(d) Flight training. (1) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall

ensure that each course includes at least — (i) Flight training on the applicable areas of operation of paragraph

(b) in the aircraft type for which the course applies; and (ii) At least 5 hours shall be instrument training in the aircraft for

which the course applies. (2) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall

ensure that each type rating course includes the flight training on the following areas of operation —

(i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures;

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(iii) Takeoff and departure phase; (iv) In-flight manoeuvres; (v) Instrument procedures;

(vi) Landings and approaches to landings; (vii) Normal and abnormal procedures;

(viii) Emergency procedures; and (ix) Postflight procedures.

(e) Stage checks and end-of-course tests. Each student, to graduate from an aircraft type rating course shall satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, consisting of the applicable areas of operation for the airline transport pilot licence.

APPENDIX 10 TO 9.090 SPECIAL PREPARATION COURSES

(a) Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for certain special preparation courses.

(b) Eligibility for enrolment. Prior to enrolling in the flight portion of a special preparation course, a person shall hold a pilot licence, flight instructor certificate, or ground instructor licence that is appropriate for the exercise of the operating privileges or authorisations sought.

(c) General requirements. (1) To be approved, an applicant for a special preparation course shall

present to the Authority a proposal that: (i) Meets the appropriate requirements of this Appendix.

(ii) Prepares the graduate with the necessary skills, competency, and proficiency to exercise safely the privileges of the certificate, rating, or authorisation for which the course is established.

(iii) Includes ground and flight training on the operating privileges or authorisation sought.

(d) Stage check and end-of-course tests. (1) Each person, to graduate from a special preparation course shall

satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, consisting of the areas of operation that are appropriate to the operating privileges or authorisation sought, and for which the course applies.

(e) Agricultural aircraft operations course. (1) A special preparation course for pilots in agricultural aircraft

operations shall include at least the following — (i) 25 hours of training on —

(A) Agricultural aircraft operations; (B) Safe piloting operating practices and procedures for

handling, dispensing, and disposing agricultural and industrial chemicals, including operating in and around congested areas; and

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(C) Applicable provisions of Schedule 11. (ii) 15 hours of flight training on agricultural aircraft operations.

(f) Rotorcraft external-load operations course. (1) A special preparation course for pilots of external-load operations

shall include at least the following: (i) 10 hours of training on —

(A) Rotorcraft external-load operations; (B) Safe piloting operating practices and procedures for

external-load operations, including operating in and around congested areas; and

(C) Applicable provisions of Schedule 11. (ii) 15 hours of flight training on external-load operations.

(g) Test pilot course. (1) Each applicant for, and holder of, a special preparation course for test

pilot duties shall include at least the following: (i) Aeronautical knowledge training on —

(A) Performing aircraft maintenance, quality assurance, and certification test flight operations; and

(B) Applicable parts of these regulations that pertain to aircraft maintenance, quality assurance, and certification tests.

(ii) 15 hours of flight training. (h) Special operations course.

(1) A special preparation course for pilots in special operations that are mission-specific for certain aircraft shall include at least the following: (i) Aeronautical knowledge training on —

(A) Performing that special flight operation; (B) Safe piloting operating practices and procedures for

performing that special flight operation; (C) Applicable parts of these regulations that pertain to that

special flight operation; and (D) Pilot in command duties and responsibilities for performing

that special flight operation. (ii) Flight training on that special flight operation.

(i) Pilot refresher course. (1) Each applicant for, and holder of, a special preparation pilot refresher

course for a pilot licence, aircraft category and class rating, or an instrument rating shall include at least the following: (i) 4 hours of aeronautical knowledge training on —

(A) The aeronautical knowledge areas that are applicable to the level of pilot licence, category rating, class rating, or instrument rating sought;

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(B) Safe piloting operating practices and procedures; and (C) Applicable provisions of Schedules 2 and 9.

(ii) 6 hours of flight training on the areas of operation that are applicable to the level of pilot licence, aircraft category and class rating, or instrument rating, as appropriate, for performing pilot- in-command duties and responsibilities.

(j) Flight instructor refresher course. (1) Each applicant for, and holder of, a special preparation flight

instructor refresher course shall include at least a combined total of 16 hours of aeronautical knowledge training, flight training, or any combination of ground and flight training on the following:

(i) Aeronautical knowledge training on — (A) The aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to student,

private, and commercial pilot licences and instrument ratings;

(B) The aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to flight instructor certificates;

(C) Safe piloting operating practices and procedures, including airport operations and operating in the The Bahamas Airspace System; and

(D) Applicable provisions of Schedules 2 and 9. (ii) Flight training, to review —

(A) The areas of operations applicable to student, private, and commercial pilot licences and instrument ratings; and

(B) The skills, competency, and proficiency for performing flight instructor duties and responsibilities.

(k) Ground instructor refresher course. (1) A special preparation ground instructor refresher course shall include

at least 16 hours of aeronautical knowledge training on — (i) The aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to student, private,

and commercial pilots and instrument rated pilots and ground instructors;

(ii) Safe piloting operating practices and procedures, including airport operations and operating in the The Bahamas Airspace System; and

(iii) Applicable provisions of Schedules 2 and 9.

APPENDIX 11 TO 9.090 PILOT GROUND SCHOOL COURSE

(a) Applicability. This appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for a pilot ground school course.

(b) General requirements. Each applicant for, and holder of, an approved training course for a pilot ground school shall include training on the aeronautical knowledge areas that are — (1) Needed to safely exercise the privileges of the certificate, rating, or

authority for which the course is established; and

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(2) Conducted to develop competency, proficiency, resourcefulness, self- confidence, and self-reliance in each student.

(c) Aeronautical knowledge training requirements. Each applicant for, and holder of, an approved pilot ground school course shall include — (1) The aeronautical knowledge training that is appropriate to the aircraft

rating and pilot licence level for which the course applies; and (2) An adequate number of total aeronautical knowledge training hours

appropriate to the aircraft rating and pilot licence level for which the course applies.

(d) Stage checks and end-of-course tests. Each person, to graduate from a pilot ground school course shall satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, consisting of the areas of operation that are appropriate to the operating privileges or authorisation that graduation from the course will permit.

APPENDIX 12 TO 9.090 FLIGHT ENGINEER COURSE

(a) Each flight engineer training course holder shall comply with the following — (1) Training course outline:

(i) Format. An applicant shall prepare separate course outlines for each type of aeroplane.

(ii) Ground course outline. (iii) The Authority will accept any arrangement of subjects if all the

subject material listed here is included and at least the minimum programmed hours are assigned to each subject.

(iv) If any flight engineer training course holder desires to include additional subjects in the ground course curriculum, the hours allotted these additional subjects may not be included in the minimum programmed classroom hours.

(v) All subjects, except Theory of Flight and Aerodynamics and Regulations, shall apply to the same type of aeroplane in which the flight engineer training course holder presents training.

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Subject Area Classroom Hours

Civil Aviation Regulations

10

Theory of Flight and Aerodynamics

10

Specifications 90 Construction features

Aeroplane Familiarisation, to include, as applicable: Flight controls Hydraulic systems Pneumatic systems Electrical systems Anti-icing and de-icing systems Pressurisation and air-conditioning systems Vacuum systems Pilot static systems Instrument systems Fuel and oil systems Emergency equipment

Specifications 45 Construction features

Engine Familiarisation, to include, as applicable: Lubrication Ignition Fuel systems Accessories Propellers Instrumentation Emergency equipment

Servicing methods and procedures 50 Operation of all the aeroplane systems

Normal Operations (Ground and Flight), to include, as appropriate

Operation of all the engine systems

Loading and center of gravity computations Cruise control (normal, long range, maximum

endurance)

Power and fuel computation Meteorology as applicable to engine operation Emergency Operations, to include

Landing gear, brakes, flaps, speed brakes, and leading edge devices

80

Pressurisation and air-conditioning Portable fire extinguishers Fuselage fire and smoke control Loss of electrical power Engine fire control Engine shut-down and restart Oxygen Total (exclusive of final tests)

235

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(2) Flight Course Outline. (i) The flight training curriculum shall include at least 10 hours of flight

instruction in an aeroplane. A student may not credit the flight time required for the practical test as part of the required flight instruction.

(ii) The flight engineer training course holder shall present all of the flight training in the same type aircraft.

(iii) As appropriate to the aircraft type, the flight engineer training course holder shall teach the following subjects in the flight training course:

Subject Area To include as appropriate- Normal Duties,

Procedures and Operations Aeroplane preflight. Engine starting, power checks, pre-takeoff, post-landing and shut-

down procedures. Power control. Temperature control. Engine operation analysis. Operation of all systems. Fuel management. Logbook entries. Pressurisation and air conditioning.

Analysis of abnormal engine operation. Recognition and Correction of In-Flight Malfunctions

Analysis of abnormal operation of all systems.

Corrective action. Emergency Operations in Flight

Engine fire control.

Fuselage fire control. Smoke control. Loss of power or pressure in each system. Engine overspeed. Fuel dumping. Landing gear, spoilers, speed brakes, and flap extension and

retraction. Engine shut-down and restart. Use of oxygen.

(iv) The Authority may allow the school to teach the flight training time in a flight simulator.

(v) To obtain credit for flight training time in an flight simulator, the student shall occupy the flight engineer station and operate the controls.

(b) Revisions. Each flight engineer training course holder shall request revisions of the course outlines, facilities or equipment by following the procedures for original approval of the course.

(c) Ground school credits. (1) A flight engineer training course holder may grant credit to a student in the

ground school course for comparable previous training or experience that the student can show by written evidence —

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(2) A flight engineer training course holder shall meet the quality of instruction described in this Appendix.

(3) Before granting credit for previous training or experience, the flight engineer training course holder shall ensure that the student passes a test given by the flight engineer training course holder on the subject for which the credit is to be given.

(4) The flight engineer training course holder shall incorporate results of the test, the basis for credit allowance, and the hours credited as part of the student’s records.

(d) Records and reports. (1) The flight engineer training course holder shall maintain, for at least

two years after a student graduates, fails, or drops from a course, a record of the student’s training, including a chronological log of the subject course, attendance examinations, and grades.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (3), the flight engineer training course holder shall submit to the Authority, not later than January 31 of each year, a report for the previous calendar year’s training, to include —

(i) Name, enrolment and graduation date of each student; (ii) Ground school hours and grades of each student;

(iii) Flight and flight simulator hours, and grades of each student; and

(iv) Names of students failed or dropped, together with their school grades and reasons for dropping.

(3) Upon request, the Authority may waive the reporting requirements of subparagraph (2) of this paragraph for an approved flight engineer course that is part of an approved training course under Schedule 12.

(e) Quality of instruction. (1) The Authority shall revoke approval of a flight engineer training

course holder’s ground course whenever less than 80 percent of the students pass the Authority knowledge test on the first attempt.

(2) The Authority shall revoke approval of a flight engineer training course holder’s flight course whenever less than 80 percent of the student’s pass the Authority practical test on the first attempt.

(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2), the Authority may allow continued approval of a ground or flight course when the Authority finds —

(i) That the failure rate was based on less than a representative number of students; or

(ii) That the flight engineer training course holder has taken satisfactory means to improve the effectiveness of the training.

(f) Time limitation. Each student shall apply for the written test and the flight test within 90 days after completing the ground school course.

(g) Statement of course completion. (1) Each flight engineer training course holder shall give to each student who

successfully completes an approved flight engineer ground school training course, and passes the Authority knowledge test, a statement of successful

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completion of the course that indicates the date of training, the type of aeroplane on which the ground course training was based, and the number of hours received in the ground school course.

(2) Each flight engineer training course holder shall give each student who successfully completes an approved flight engineer flight course, and passed the Authority practical test, a statement of successful completion of the flight course that indicates the dates of the training, the type of aeroplane used in the flight course, and the number of hours received in the flight course.

(3) A flight engineer training course holder who is approved to conduct both the ground course and the flight course may include both courses in a single statement of course completion if the provisions of paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection are included.

(4) The requirements of this paragraph do not apply to an AOC holder with an approved training course under Part 9, providing the student receives a flight engineer licence upon completion of that course.

(h) Duration. Except for a course operated as part of an approved training course under of Schedule 12, the approval to operate a flight engineer ground course or flight course terminates 24 months after the last day of the month of issue.

APPENDIX 1 TO 9.115 AIRPORT REQUIREMENTS

(a) Each applicant for, and holder of, a Level 1 ATO certificate shall show that the airport at which training flights originate has the following: (1) At least one runway or takeoff area that allows training aircraft to

make a normal takeoff and landing at the aircraft’s maximum certified takeoff gross weight under the following conditions — (i) Wind not more than 5 knots;

(ii) Temperatures equal to the mean high temperature for the hottest month of the year in the operating area;

(iii) If applicable, with the powerplant operation, and landing gear and flap operation recommended by the manufacturer; and

(iv) In the case of a takeoff — (A) With smooth transition from liftoff to the best rate of climb

speed without exceptional piloting skills or techniques; and (B) Clearing all obstacles in the takeoff flight path by at least

50 feet. (2) A wind direction indicator that is visible from the end of each runway

at ground level. (3) A traffic direction indicator when —

(i) The airport does not have an operating control tower; and (ii) Traffic and wind advisories are not available.

(4) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(5), permanent runway lights if that airport is to be used for night training flights.

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(5) Adequate non-permanent lighting or shoreline lighting for an airport or seaplane base for night training flights in seaplanes, if approved by the Authority.

APPENDIX 1 TO 9.165 LEVEL 2 ATO INSTRUCTOR TRAINING AND TESTING REQUIREMENTS (a) Prior to initial designation, each flight and simulator flight instructor shall

complete the following requirements — (1) Complete at least 8 hours of ground training on the following subject

matter: (i) Instruction methods and techniques.

(ii) Training policies and procedures. (iii) The fundamental principles of the learning process. (iv) Instructor duties, privileges, responsibilities, and limitations. (v) Proper operation of simulation controls and systems.

(vi) Proper operation of environmental control and warning or caution panels.

(vii) Limitations of simulation. (viii) Minimum equipment requirements for each curriculum.

(ix) Revisions to the training courses. (x) Cockpit resource management and crew co-ordination.

(2) Satisfactorily complete a knowledge test — (i) On the subjects specified in paragraph (a)(1); and

(ii) That is accepted by the Authority as being of equivalent difficulty, complexity, and scope as the tests provided by the Authority for the flight instructor aeroplane and instrument flight instructor knowledge tests.

(b) Each certificate holder shall ensure that each instructor who instructs in a flight simulator that the Authority has approved for all training and all testing for the airline transport pilot licensing test, aircraft type rating test, or both, has met at least one of the following requirements: (1) Each instructor shall have performed 2 hours in flight, including three

takeoffs and three landings as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft of the same category and class, and, if a type rating is required, of the same type replicated by the approved flight simulator in which that instructor is designated to instruct;

(2) Each instructor shall have participated in an approved line-observation program, and that — (i) Was accomplished in the same aeroplane type as the aeroplane

represented by the flight simulator in which that instructor is designated to instruct; and

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(ii) Included line-oriented flight training of at least 1 hour of flight during which the instructor was the sole manipulator of the controls in a flight simulator that replicated the same type aircraft for which that instructor is designated to instruct.

APPENDIX 1 TO 9.180 LEVEL 1 ATO CHIEF FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR QUALIFICATIONS

(a) Each ATO shall designate a supervisory instructor for a flight training course who shall meet one or more of the following requirements, as applicable: (1) Hold a commercial pilot licence or an airline transport pilot licence,

and, except for a chief instructor for a training course solely for a lighter-than-air rating, a current flight instructor licence with appropriate aircraft category, class, and instrument ratings for the category and class of aircraft used in the course.

(2) Meet the prescribed pilot-in-command recent flight experience requirements.

(3) Pass a knowledge test on — (i) Teaching methods;

(ii) Applicable provisions of Authority provided aeronautical information publications;

(iii) Applicable provisions of Parts 2, 3, and 8; and (iv) The objectives and approved course completion standards of the

course for which the person seeks to obtain designation. (4) Pass a proficiency test on instructional skills and ability to train

students on the flight procedures and manoeuvres appropriate to the course.

(b) Except for a training course for gliders, balloons, or airships, the chief instructor shall meet the applicable requirements in paragraphs (c), (d), and (e).

(c) For a training course for a private pilot licence or rating, a chief instructor shall have — (1) At least 1,000 hours as pilot in command; and (2) Primary flight training experience as a licenced flight instructor or an

instructor in a military pilot flight training program, or a combination thereof, consisting of at least 2 years and a total of 500 flight hours.

(d) For a training course for an instrument rating or a rating with instrument privileges, a chief instructor shall have — (1) At least 100 hours of flight time under actual or simulated instrument

conditions; (2) At least 1,000 hours as pilot in command; and (3) Instrument flight instructor experience as a licenced flight instructor-

instrument or an instructor in a military pilot flight training program, or a combination thereof, consisting of at least — (i) 2 years and a total of 250 flight hours; or

(ii) 400 flight hours of instrument flight instruction.

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(e) For a training course for other than a private pilot licence or rating, or an instrument rating or a rating with instrument privileges, a chief instructor shall have — (1) At least 2,000 hours as pilot in command; and (2) Flight training experience as a licenced flight instructor or an

instructor in a military pilot flight training program, or a combination thereof, consisting of at least 3 years and a total of 1,000 flight hours.

(f) A chief instructor for a training course for gliders or balloons is required to have only 40 percent of the hours required in paragraphs (c) and (e).

(g) A chief instructor for a training course for airships is required to have only 40 percent of the hours required in paragraphs (c), (d), and (e).

(h) To be eligible as chief instructor for a ground school course, a person shall have one year of experience as a ground school instructor at a certified Level 1 ATO.

APPENDIX 1 TO 9.185 LEVEL 1 ATO ASSISTANT CHIEF INSTRUCTOR QUALIFICATIONS

(a) To be eligible for designation as an assistant chief instructor, a person shall meet the following requirements — (1) Hold a commercial pilot or an airline transport pilot licence and,

except for the assistant chief instructor for a training course for a lighter-than-air rating, a current flight instructor licence with appropriate aircraft category, class, and instrument ratings for the category and class of aircraft used in the course.

(2) Meet the pilot in command recent flight experience requirements. (3) Pass a knowledge test on —

(i) Teaching methods; (ii) Applicable provisions of the Bahamian-provided aeronautical

information publications; (iii) Applicable provisions of Schedules 7, 8 and 9; and (iv) The objectives and approved course completion standards of the

course for which the person seeks to obtain designation. (4) Pass a proficiency test on the flight procedures and manoeuvres

appropriate to that course. (5) Meet the applicable requirements in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d),

except that an assistant chief instructor for a training course for gliders, balloons, or airships is required to have only 40 percent of the hours required in paragraphs (b) and (c).

(b) For a training course for a private pilot licence or rating, an assistant chief instructor shall have — (1) At least 500 hours as pilot-in-command; and (2) Flight training experience as a licenced flight instructor or an

instructor in a military pilot flight training program, or a combination thereof, consisting of at least 1 year and a total of 250 flight hours.

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(c) For a training course for an instrument rating or a rating with instrument privileges, an assistant chief flight instructor shall have — (1) At least 50 hours of flight time under actual or simulated instrument

conditions; (2) At least 500 hours as pilot in command; and (3) Instrument flight instructor experience as a licenced flight instructor-

instrument or an instructor in a military pilot flight training program, or a combination thereof, consisting of at least 1 year and a total of 125 flight hours.

(d) For a training course other than for a private pilot licence or rating, or an instrument rating or a rating with instrument privileges, an assistant chief instructor shall have — (1) At least 1,000 hours as pilot in command; and (2) Flight training experience as a licenced flight instructor or an

instructor in a military pilot flight training program, or a combination thereof, consisting of at least 1½ years and a total of 500 flight hours.

(e) To be eligible for designation as an assistant chief instructor for a ground school course, a person shall have 6 months of experience as a ground school instructor at a certified Level 1 ATO.

APPENDIX 1 TO 9.190 LEVEL 1 ATO CHECK INSTRUCTOR QUALIFICATIONS

(a) To be designated as a check instructor for conducting student stage checks, end-of-course tests, and instructor proficiency checks under this Schedule, a person shall meet the following requirements, as applicable — (1) Pass a test, given by the chief instructor, on —

(i) Teaching methods; (ii) Applicable provisions of the Bahamian-provided aeronautical

information publications; (iii) Applicable provisions of Schedules 2, 8, and this Schedule; and (iv) The objectives and course completion standards of the approved

training course for the designation sought. (2) For flight checks and tests —

(i) Meet the requirements in paragraph (a)(1); (ii) Hold a commercial pilot licence or an airline transport pilot

licence and, except for a check instructor for a training course for a lighter-than-air rating, a current flight instructor licence, with appropriate aircraft category, class, and instrument ratings for the category and class of aircraft used in the course;

(iii) Meet the pilot-in-command recent flight experience requirements, as applicable; and

(iv) Pass a proficiency test, given by the chief instructor or assistant chief instructor, on the flight procedures and manoeuvres of the approved training course.

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(3) For checks and tests that relate to ground training — (i) Meet the requirements in paragraph (a)(1);

(ii) Except for a training course for a lighter-than-air rating, hold a current flight instructor licence or ground instructor licence with ratings appropriate to the category and class of aircraft used in the course; and

(iii) For a training course for a lighter-than-air rating, hold a commercial pilot licence with a lighter-than-air category rating and the appropriate class rating.

(b) Before functioning as a check instructor, a person who meets the eligibility requirements in paragraph (a) shall — (1) Be designated in writing by the chief instructor to conduct student stage

checks, end-of-course tests, and instructor proficiency checks; and (2) Be approved by the Authority.

(c) A check instructor may not conduct a stage check or an end-of-course test of any student for whom the check instructor has — (1) Served as the principal instructor; or (2) Recommended for a stage check or end-of-course test.

APPENDIX 1 TO 9.215 TRANSFER PRIVILEGES

(a) A Level 1 ATO receiving a student from another Level 1 ATO may credit that pilot’s previous experience towards the curriculum requirements of a course subject to the following conditions: (1) If the credit is based upon the prescribed requirements of this

Schedule, the gaining ATO may credit that student not more than 50 percent of the curriculum requirements;

(2) If the credit is not based upon this Schedule, the gaining ATO may credit that student not more than 25 percent of the curriculum requirements;

Note: The receiving ATO shall determine the amount of course credit to be credited under paragraph (1) or paragraph (2), based on a proficiency test or knowledge test, or both, of the student.

(b) The receiving ATO may grant credit for training specified in paragraph (a)(1) or paragraph (2) only if the previous provider of the training has certified the kind and amount of training provided, and the result of each stage check and end-of-course test, if applicable, given to the student.

(c) An AMT training course holder may evaluate and grant credit for an entrant’s previous training provided — (1) The AMT training course holder determines that the training is

verifiable and comparable to portions of the training program. (2) The individual requesting credit passes an examination given by the AMT

training course holder, which is equivalent to those examinations given by the AMT training course holder for the same subject in the training program.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 9.260 AMT AIRFRAME AND/OR POWERPLANT RATING

Curriculum Requirements This appendix defines terms used in Section A, B, and C of this part, and describes the levels of proficiency at which items under each subject in each curriculum must be taught, as outlined in Sections A, B, and C. (a) Definitions. As used in Sections A, B, and C:

(1) “Inspect” means to examine by sight and touch. (2) “Check” means to verify proper operation. (3) “Troubleshoot” means to analyse and identify malfunctions. (4) “Service” means to perform functions that assure continued operation. (5) “Repair” means to correct a defective condition. Repair of an airframe

or powerplant system includes component replacement and adjustment, but not component repair.

(6) “Overhaul” means to disassemble, inspect, repair as necessary, and check.

(b) Teaching levels. (1) Level 1 requires:

(i) Knowledge of general principles, but no practical application. (ii) No development of manipulative skill. (iii) Instruction by lecture, demonstration, and discussion.

(2) Level 2 requires: (i) Knowledge of general principles, and limited practical

application. (ii) Development of sufficient manipulative skill to perform basic

operations. (iii) Instruction by lecture, demonstration, discussion, and limited

practical application. (3) Level 3 requires:

(i) Knowledge of general principles, and performance of a high degree of practical application.

(ii) Development of sufficient manipulative skills to simulate return to service.

(iii) Instruction by lecture, demonstration, discussion, and a high degree of practical application.

(c) Teaching materials and equipment. (1) The curriculum may be presented utilising currently accepted

educational materials and equipment, including, but not limited to: calculators, computers, and audio-visual equipment.

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Section A — General Curriculum Subjects This section list the subjects required for at least 400 hours of general

curriculum subjects. The number in parentheses before each item listed under each subject heading indicates the level of proficiency at which that item shall be taught.

Teaching Level

A. BASIC ELECTRICITY

(2) 1. Calculate and measure capacitance and inductance. (2) 2. Calculate and measure electrical power. (3) 3. Measure voltage, current, resistance, and continuity. (3) 4. Determine the relationship of voltage, current, and resistance in electrical

circuits. (3) 5. Read and interpret aircraft electrical circuit diagrams, including solid

state devices and logic functions. (3) 6. Inspect and service batteries.

B. AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS

(2) 7. Use aircraft drawings, symbols, and system schematics. (3) 9. Draw sketches of repairs and alterations. (3) 9. Use blueprint information. (3) 10. Use graphs and charts.

C. WEIGHT AND BALANCE

(2) 11. Weigh aircraft. (3) 12. Perform complete weight and balance check and record data.

D. FLUID LINES AND FITTINGS

(3) 13. Fabricate and install rigid and flexible fluid lines and fittings.

E. MATERIALS AND PROCESSES

(1) 14. Identify and select appropriate non-destructive testing methods. (2) 15. Perform dye penetrate, eddy current, ultrasonic, and magnetic particle

inspections. (1) 16. Perform basic heat treating processes. (3) 17. Identify and select aircraft hardware and materials. (3) 19. Inspect and check welds. (3) 19. Perform precision measurements.

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F. GROUND OPERATION AND SERVICING

(2) 20. Start, ground operate, move, service, and secure aircraft and identify typical ground operation hazards.

(2) 21. Identify and select fuels.

G. CLEANING AND CORROSION CONTROL

(3) 22. Identify and select cleaning materials. (3) 23. Inspect, identify, remove, and treat aircraft corrosion and perform

aircraft cleaning.

H. MATHEMATICS

(3) 24. Extract roots and raise numbers to a given power. (3) 25. Determine areas and volumes of various geometric shapes. (3) 26. Solve ratio, proportion, and percentage problems. (3) 27. Perform algebraic operations involving addition, subtraction, multi-

plication, and division of positive and negative numbers.

I. MAINTENANCE FORMS AND RECORDS

(3) 29. Write descriptions of work performed including aircraft discrepancies and corrective actions using typical aircraft maintenance records.

(3) 29. Complete required maintenance forms, records, and inspection reports.

J. BASIC PHYSICS

(2) 30. Use and understand the principles of simple machines; sound, fluid, and heat dynamics; basic aerodynamics; aircraft structures; and theory of flight.

K. MAINTENANCE PUBLICATIONS

(3) 31. Demonstrate ability to read, comprehend, and apply information contained in FAA and manufacturers’ aircraft maintenance specifica- tions, data sheets, manuals, publications, and related Federal Aviation Regulations, Airworthiness Directives, and Advisory Material.

(3) 32. Read technical data.

L. MECHANIC PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

(3) 33. Exercise mechanic privileges within the limitations prescribed by Schedule 5 of this chapter.

Section B — Airframe Curriculum Subjects This section list the subjects required in at least 750 hours of each airframe

curriculum, in addition to at least 400 hours in general curriculum subjects. The number in parentheses before each item listed under each subject heading indicates the level of proficiency at which that item must be taught.

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I. AIRFRAME STRUCTURES A. WOOD STRUCTURES

(1) 1. Service and repair wood structures. (1) 2. Identify wood defects. (1) 3. Inspect wood structures.

B. AIRCRAFT COVERING

(1) 4. Select and apply fabric and fiberglass covering materials. (1) 5. Inspect, test, and repair fabric and fiberglass.

C. AIRCRAFT FINISHES

(1) 6. Apply trim, letters, and touchup paint. (2) 7. Identify and select aircraft finishing materials. (2) 9. Apply finishing materials. (2) 9. Inspect finishes and identify defects.

D. SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLIC STRUCTURES

(2) 10. Select, install, and remove special fasteners for metallic, bonded, and composite structures.

(2) 11. Inspect bonded structures. (2) 12. Inspect, test and repair fiberglass, plastics, honeycomb, composite, and

laminated primary and secondary structures. (2) 13. Inspect, check, service, and repair windows, doors, and interior furnish-

ings. (3) 14. Inspect and repair sheet metal structures. (3) 15. Install conventional rivets. (3) 16. Form, layout, and bend sheet metal.

E. WELDING

(1) 17. Weld magnesium and titanium. (1) 19. Solder stainless steel. (1) 19. Fabricate tubular structures. (2) 20. Solder, braze, gas weld, and arc weld steel. (1) 21. Weld aluminum and stainless steel.

F. ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING

(1) 22. Rig rotary wing aircraft. (2) 23. Rig fixed wing aircraft. (2) 24. Check alignment of structures.

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(3) 25. Assemble aircraft components, including flight control surfaces. (3) 26. Balance, rig, and inspect movable primary and secondary flight control

surfaces. (3) 27. Jack aircraft.

G. AIRFRAME INSPECTION

(3) 29. Perform airframe conformity and airworthiness inspections.

II. AIRFRAME SYSTEMS AND COMPONENTS A. AIRCRAFT LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS

(3) 29. Inspect, check, service, and repair landing gear, retraction systems, shock struts, brakes, wheels, tires, and steering systems.

B. HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER SYSTEMS

(2) 30. Repair hydraulic and pneumatic power systems components. (3) 31. Identify and select hydraulic fluids. (3) 32. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair hydraulic and pneumatic

power systems.

C. CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL SYSTEMS

(1) 33. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair heating, cooling, air conditioning, pressurization systems, and air cycle machines.

(1) 34. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair heating, cooling, air conditioning, and pressurization systems.

(2) 35. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service and repair oxygen systems.

D. AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS

(1) 36. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair electronic flight instrument systems and both mechanical and electrical heading, speed, altitude, temperature, pressure, and position indicating systems to include the use of built-in test equipment.

(2) 37. Install instruments and perform a static pressure system leak test.

E. COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION SYSTEMS

(1) 39. Inspect, check, and troubleshoot autopilot, servos, and approach coupling systems.

(1) 39. Inspect, check, and service aircraft electronic communication and navigation systems, including VHF passenger address interphones and static discharge devices, aircraft VOR, ILS, LORAN, Radar beacon transponders, flight management computers, and GPWS.

(2) 40. Inspect and repair antenna and electronic equipment installations.

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F. AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEMS

(1) 41. Check and service fuel dump systems. (1) 42. Perform fuel management transfer, and defueling. (1) 43. Inspect, check, and repair pressure-fueling systems. (2) 44. Repair aircraft fuel system components. (2) 45. Inspect and repair fluid quantity indicating systems. (2) 46. Troubleshoot service, and repair fluid pressure and temperature warning

systems. (3) 47. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair aircraft fuel systems.

G. AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS

(2) 49. Repair and inspect aircraft electrical system components; crimp and splice wiring to manufacturers’ specifications, and repair pins and sockets of aircraft connectors.

(3) 49. Install, check, and service airframe electrical wiring, controls, switches, indicators, and protective devices.

(3) 50.a. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair alternating and direct current electrical systems.

(1) 50.b. Inspect, check, and troubleshoot constant speed and integrated speed drive generators.

H. POSITION AND WARNING SYSTEMS

(2) 51. Inspect, check, and service speed and configuration warning systems, electrical brake controls, and anti-skid systems.

(3) 52. Inspect, check, troubleshoot and service landing gear position indicating and warning systems.

I. ICE AND RAIN CONTROL SYSTEMS

(2) 53. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair airframe ice and rain control systems.

J. FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEMS

(1) 54. Inspect, check, and service smoke and carbon monoxide detection systems.

(3) 55. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair aircraft fire detection and extinguishing systems.

Section C — Powerplant Curriculum Subjects This section list the subjects required in at least 750 hours of each powerplant

curriculum, in addition to at least 400 hours in general curriculum subjects. The number in parentheses before each item listed under each subject

heading indicates the level of proficiency at which that item must be taught.

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I. POWERPLANT THEORY AND MAINTENANCE A. RECIPROCATING ENGINES

(1) 1. Inspect and repair a radial engine. (2) 2. Overhaul reciprocating engine. (3) 3. Inspect, check, service, and repair reciprocating engines and engine

installations. (3) 4. Install, troubleshoot, and remove reciprocating engines.

B. TURBINE ENGINES

(2) 5. Overhaul turbine engine. (3) 6. Inspect, check, service, and repair turbine engines and turbine engine

installations. (3) 7. Install, troubleshoot, and remove turbine engines.

C. ENGINE INSPECTION (3) 9. Perform powerplant conformity and airworthiness inspections.

II. POWERPLANT SYSTEMS AND COMPONENTS A. ENGINE INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS

(2) 9. Troubleshoot, service, and repair electrical and mechanical fluid rate-of- flow indicating systems.

(3) 10. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair electrical and mechanical engine temperature, pressure, and rpm indicating systems.

B. ENGINE FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEMS

(3) 11. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair engine fire detection and extinguishing systems.

C. ENGINE ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS

(2) 12. Repair engine electrical system components. (3) 13. Install, check, and service engine electrical wiring, controls, switches,

indicators, and protective devices.

D. LUBRICATION SYSTEMS

(2) 14. Identify and select lubricants. (2) 15. Repair engine lubrication system components. (3) 16. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair engine lubrication

systems.

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E. IGNITION AND STARTING SYSTEMS (2) 17. Overhaul magneto and ignition harness. (2) 19. Inspect, service, troubleshoot, and repair reciprocating and turbine engine

ignition systems and components. (3) 19.a. Inspect, service, troubleshoot, and repair turbine engine electrical

starting systems. (1) 19.b. Inspect, service, and troubleshoot turbine engine pneumatic starting

systems. F. FUEL METERING SYSTEMS

(1) 20. Troubleshoot and adjust turbine engine fuel metering systems and electronic engine fuel controls.

(2) 21. Overhaul carburetor. (2) 22. Repair engine fuel metering system components. (3) 23. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair reciprocating and turbine

engine fuel metering systems. G. ENGINE FUEL SYSTEMS

(2) 24. Repair engine fuel system components. (3) 25. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair engine fuel systems.

H. INDUCTION AND ENGINE AIRFLOW SYSTEMS (2) 26. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair engine ice and rain

control systems. (1) 27. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot and repair heat exchangers, super-

chargers, and turbine engine airflow and temperature control systems. (3) 29. Inspect, check, service, and repair carburetor air intake and induction

manifolds. I. ENGINE COOLING SYSTEMS

(2) 29. Repair engine cooling system components. (3) 30. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair engine cooling systems.

J. ENGINE EXHAUST AND REVERSER SYSTEMS (2) 31. Repair engine exhaust system components. (3) 32.a. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair engine exhaust systems. (1) 32.b. Troubleshoot and repair engine thrust reverser systems and related

components.

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K. PROPELLERS

(1) 33. Inspect, check, service, and repair propeller synchronizing and ice control systems.

(2) 34. Identify and select propeller lubricants. (1) 35. Balance propellers. (2) 36. Repair propeller control system components. (3) 37. Inspect, check, service, and repair fixed pitch, constant speed, and

feathering propellers, and propeller governing systems. (3) 39. Install, troubleshoot, and remove propellers. (3) 39. Repair aluminum alloy propeller blades.

L. UNDUCTED FANS

(1) 40. Inspect and troubleshoot unducted fan systems and components.

M. AUXILIARY POWER UNITS

(1) 41. Inspect, check, service, and troubleshoot turbine driven auxiliary power units.

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SCHEDULE 10 OPERATIONS OF AIRCRAFT

SUBPART A: GENERAL 10.001 Applicability 10.005 Definitions 10.010 Acronyms SUBPART B: AIRCRAFT REQUIREMENTS 10.015 Registration Markings 10.020 Civil Aircraft Airworthiness 10.025 Special Airworthiness Certificate Operational Restrictions 10.030 Aircraft Instruments and Equipment 10.035 Inoperative Instruments and Equipment 10.040 Civil Aircraft Flight Manual, Marking and Placard Requirements 10.045 Required Aircraft and Equipment Inspections 10.050 Documents to be Carried on Aircraft: All Operations in The Bahamas 10.051 Additional Documents Applicable to International Flights 10.055 Additional Document Requirements: Commercial Air Transport SUBPART C: FLIGHT CREW REQUIREMENTS 10.060 Composition of the Flight Crew 10.065 Flight Crew Qualifications 10.070 Authorisation in Lieu of a Type Rating 10.075 Licences Required 10.077 Radio Operator Licence 10.080 Medical Certificate Required 10.085 Airman: Limitations on Use of Services for Commercial Air Transport 10.090 Rating Required for IFR Operations 10.095 Special Authorisation Required for Category II/III Operations 10.100 Pilot Logbooks 10.105 PIC Currency: Takeoff and Landings 10.110 Pilot Currency: IFR Operations 10.115 Pilot Currency: General Aviation Operations 10.120 Additional Commercial Air Transport Qualifications 10.125 Pilot Privileges and Limitations 10.130 Airline Transport Pilot Privileges — General 10.135 Commercial Pilot Privileges and Limitations — General 10.140 Private Pilot Privileges and Limitations: Required Crew Member 10.145 Student Pilot — General Limitations SUBPART D: CREW MEMBER DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES 10.150 Authority and Responsibility of the PIC 10.155 Designation of PIC for Commercial Air Transport 10.160 Compliance with Local Regulations 10.165 Negligent or Reckless Operations of the Aircraft 10.170 Fitness of Flight Crew Members 10.175 Use of Narcotics, Drugs or Intoxicating Liquor 10.180 Crew Member Use of Seat Belts and Shoulder Harnesses

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10.185 Flight Crew Members at Duty Stations 10.190 Required Crew Member Equipment 10.195 Compliance with Checklists 10.200 Search and Rescue Information 10.205 Production of Aircraft and Flight Documentation 10.210 Locking of Flight Deck Compartment Door: Commercial Air

Transport 10.215 Admission to the Flight Deck: Commercial Air Transport 10.220 Admission of Inspector to the Flight Deck 10.225 Duties During Critical Phases of Flight: Commercial Air Transport 10.227 Flight Deck Communications 10.230 Manipulation of the Controls: Commercial Air Transport 10.235 Simulated Abnormal Situations in Flight: Commercial Air Transport 10.238 Responsibility for Required Documents 10.240 Completion of the Aircraft Technical Logbook: Commercial Air

Transport 10.245 Reporting Mechanical Irregularities 10.250 Reporting of Facility and Navigation Air Inadequacies 10.255 Reporting of Hazardous Conditions 10.260 Reporting of Incidents 10.265 Accident Notification 10.270 Operation of Flight Deck Voice and Flight Data Recorders 10.275 Crew Member Oxygen: Minimum Supply and Use 10.280 Portable Electronic Devices 10.282 Carriage of Dangerous Goods SUBPART E: ALL PASSENGER CARRYING OPERATIONS 10.285 Applicability 10.287 Unacceptable Conduct 10.290 Refuelling with Passengers on Board 10.295 Passenger Seats, Safety Belts, and Shoulder Harnesses 10.300 Passenger Briefing 10.305 Inflight Emergency Instruction 10.310 Passenger Oxygen: Minimum Supply and Use 10.315 Alcohol or Drugs SUBPART F: FLIGHT PLANS 10.325 Submission of a Flight Plan 10.330 Air Traffic Control Flight Plan: Commercial Air Transport 10.335 Contents of a Flight Plan 10.340 Planned Reclearance 10.345 Changes to a Flight Plan 10.350 Closing a Flight Plan SUBPART G: FLIGHT PLANNING AND PREPARATION 10.355 Aircraft Airworthiness and Safety Precautions 10.360 Adequacy of Operating Facilities 10.365 Weather Reports and Forecasts 10.370 Weather Limitations for VFR Flights 10.375 IFR Destination Aerodromes

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10.380 IFR Destination Alternate Requirement 10.385 IFR Alternate Aerodrome Selection Criteria 10.390 Off-Shore Alternates for Helicopter Operations 10.395 Takeoff Alternate Aerodromes: Commercial Air Transport Operations 10.400 Maximum Distance from an Adequate Aerodrome Without an

ETOPS Approval 10.405 Extended Range Operations with Two-Engined Aeroplanes 10.410 En Route Alternate Aerodromes: ETOPS Operations 10.415 Fuel, Oil, and Oxygen Planning and Contingency Factors 10.420 Minimum Fuel Supply for VFR Flights 10.425 Minimum Fuel Supply for IFR Flights 10.430 Aircraft Loading, Mass and Balance 10.435 Aircraft Performance and Operating Limitations 10.440 Flight Release Required: Commercial Air Transport 10.445 Operational Flight Plan: Commercial Air Transport 10.450 Flight Planning Document Distribution and Retention: Commercial

Air Transport SUBPART H: FLIGHT RULES FOR ALL OPERATIONS 10.477 Compliance with Local Regulations 10.480 Operation of Aircraft on the Ground 10.482 Takeoff and Landing — Licenced Aerodrome 10.484 Pre-Takeoff Inspections 10.485 Takeoff Conditions 10.487 Noise Abatement 10.490 Flight into Known or Expected Icing 10.493 Aircraft Operating Limitations 10.495 Altimeter Settings 10.500 Minimum Safe Altitudes: General 10.505 Minimum Safe VFR Altitudes: Commercial Air Transport Operations 10.510 Instrument Approach Operating Minima 10.515 Diversion Decision 10.520 Operating Near Other Aircraft 10.525 Right-of-Way Rules: Except Water Operations 10.530 Right-of-Way Rules: Water Operations 10.535 Use of Aircraft Lights 10.540 Simulated Instrument Flight 10.545 Inflight Simulation: Commercial Air Transport 10.550 Dropping, Spraying, Towing 10.555 Aerobatic Flight 10.560 Flight Test Areas 10.565 Prohibited Areas and Restricted Areas 10.570 Operations in MNPS or RVSM Airspace 10.575 Operations on or in the Vicinity of an Uncontrolled Aerodrome 10.580 Aerodrome Traffic Pattern Altitudes: Turbojet, Turbofan, or Large

Aircraft 10.585 Compliance with Visual and Electronic Glide Slopes 10.590 Restriction or Suspension of Operations: Commercial Air Transport 10.595 Continuation of Flight Commercial Air Transport 10.600 Interception

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SUBPART I: OPERATIONS IN CONTROLLED FLIGHT 10.605 ATC Clearances 10.610 Adherence to ATC Clearances 10.615 Communications 10.620 Route to be Flown 10.625 Inadvertent Changes 10.630 ATC Clearance: Intended Changes 10.635 Position Reports 10.640 Operations on or in the Vicinity of a Controlled Aerodrome 10.645 Unlawful Interference 10.650 Time Cheeks 10.655 Universal Signals SUBPART J: VFR FLIGHT RULES 10.660 Visual Meteorological Conditions 10.665 VFR Weather Minimums for Takeoff and Landing 10.670 Special VFR Operations 10.675 VFR Cruising Altitudes 10.680 ATC Clearances for VFR Flights 10.685 VFR Flights Requiring ATC Authorisation 10.690 Weather Deterioration Below VMC 10.695 Changing from VFR to IFR 10.700 Two-way Radio Communication Failure in VFR SUBPART K: IFR FLIGHT RULES 10.703 Applicability 10.705 IFR in Controlled Airspace 10.710 IFR Flights Outside Controlled Airspace 10.715 IFR Takeoff Minimums for Commercial Air Transport 10.720 Minimum Altitudes for IFR Operations 10.725 Minimum Altitudes for Use of an Autopilot 10.730 IFR Cruising Altitude or Flight Level in Controlled Airspace 10.735 IFR Cruising Altitude or Flight Level in Uncontrolled Airspace 10.740 IFR Radio Communications 10.745 Operation under IFR in Controlled Airspace: Malfunction Reports 10.750 Continuation of IFR Flight Toward a Destination 10.755 Instrument Approaches to Civil Aerodromes 10.757 Approval Required: Category II or III Approaches 10.760 Instrument Approach Procedures and IFR Landing Minimums 10.765 Commencing an Instrument Approach: Commercial Air Transport 10.770 Operation Below DH or MDA 10.775 Landing During Instrument Meteorological Conditions 10.780 Execution of a Missed Approach Procedure 10.785 Change from IFR Flight to VFR Flight 10.790 Two-Way Radio Communications Failure in IFR

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APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 10.035: Inoperative Instruments and Equipment Appendix 1 to 10.175: Use of Narcotics, Drugs or Intoxicating Liquor Appendix 1 to 10.185: Flight Crew Members at Duty Stations Appendix 1 to 10.400: Determination of Flight Planning Speed — ETOPS Appendix 1 to 10.410: ETOPS Alternate Planning Appendix 1 to 10.495: Altimeter Settings Appendix 1 to 10.600: Universal Interception Signals Appendix 1 to 10.655: Universal Aviation Signals

SUBPART A GENERAL

10.001 APPLICABILITY (a) This Schedule prescribes the requirements for:

(1) Operations conducted by airman certified in The Bahamas while operating aircraft registered in The Bahamas.

(2) Operations of foreign registered aircraft by Bahamian AOC holders. (3) Operations of aircraft within The Bahamas by airman or AOC holders

of a foreign State. (b) For operations outside of The Bahamas, all Bahamian pilots and operators shall

comply with these requirements unless compliance would result in a violation of the laws of the foreign State in which the operation is conducted. Note: Where the a particular requirement is applicable only to a particular segment of aviation operations, it will be identified by a reference to those particular operations, such as “commercial air transport” or “small non- turbojet or turbofan aeroplanes”. Note: Those specific subsections not applicable to foreign operators will include the phrase “This requirement is not applicable to foreign operators”.

10.005 DEFINITIONS (a) For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply —

(1) Advisory airspace. An airspace of defined dimensions, or designated route, within which air traffic advisory service is available.

(2) Aerial work. An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialised services such as agriculture, construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and rescue, aerial advertisement, etc.

(3) Aerobatic flight. Manoeuvres intentionally performed by an aircraft involving an abrupt change in its attitude, an abnormal attitude, or an abnormal variation in speed.

(4) Air navigation facility. Any facility used in, available for use in, or designed for use in aid of air navigation, including aerodromes, landing areas, lights, any apparatus or equipment for disseminating weather information, for

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signalling, for radio directional finding, or for radio or other electrical communication, and any other structure or mechanism having a similar purpose for guiding or controlling flight in the air or the landing and take-off of aircraft.

(5) Calendar day. The period of elapsed time, using Co-ordinated Universal Time or local time, that begins at midnight and ends 24 hours later in the next midnight.

(6) Controlled flight. Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance.

(7) Critical engine. The engine whose failure would most adversely affect the performance or handling qualities of an aircraft.

(8) Critical phases of flight. Those portions of operations involving taxiing, takeoff and landing, and all flight operations below 10,000 feet, except cruise flight.

(9) Extended overwater operation. With respect to aircraft other than helicopters, an operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 nm from the nearest shoreline; and to helicopters, an operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 nm from the nearest shoreline and more than 50 nm from an offshore heliport structure.

(10) Flight plan. Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft. The term “flight plan” is used to mean variously, full information on all items comprised in the flight plan description, covering the whole route of a flight, or limited information required when the purpose is to obtain a clearance for a minor portion of a flight such as to cross an airway, to take off from, or to land at a controlled aerodrome.

(11) General aviation operation. An aircraft operation other than a commercial air transport operation or an aerial work operation.

(12) Helideck. A heliport located on a floating or fixed offshore structure. (13) Heliport. An aerodrome or defined area on a structure intended to be

used wholly or in part for the arrival, departure, and surface movement of helicopters.

(14) Journey log. A form signed by the PIC of each flight that records the aircraft’s registration, crew member names and duty assignments, the type of flight, and the date, place, and time of arrival and departure.

(15) Master minimum equipment list (MMEL). A list established for a particular aircraft type by the manufacturer with the approval of the State of Manufacture containing items, one or more of which is permitted to be unserviceable at the commencement of a flight. The MMEL may be associated with special operating conditions, limitations or procedures. The MMEL provides the basis for development, review, and approval by the Authority of an individual operator’s MEL.

(16) Operational flight plan. The operator’s plan for the safe conduct of the flight based on considerations of aircraft performance, other operating limitations, and relevant expected conditions on the route to be followed and at the aerodromes or heliports concerned.

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10.010 ACRONYMS (a) The following acronyms are used in this Schedule:

(1) AFM — Aircraft Flight Manual (2) AGL — Above Ground Level (3) AOC — Air Operator Certificate (4) AOM — Aircraft Operating Manual (5) ATC — Air Traffic Control (6) CAT — Category (7) CDL — Configuration Deviation List (8) DH — Decision Height (9) ETA — Estimated Time of Arrival (10) ETOPS — Extended Twin-engine Operations (11) FL — Flight Level (12) IMC — Instrument Meteorological Conditions (13) LOC — Localizer (14) LVTO — Low Visibility Take Off (15) MDA — Minimum Decent Altitude (16) MEA — Minimum En Route Altitude (17) MEL — Minimum Equipment List (18) MMEL — Master Minimum Equipment List (19) MOCA — Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (20) MSL — Mean Sea Level (21) NOTAM — Notice to Airmen (22) RFM — Rotorcraft Flight Manual (23) RVR — Runway Visibility Range (24) RVSM — Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (25) PBE — Protective Breathing Equipment (26) PIC — Pilot-In-Command (27) SIC — Second-In-Command (28) SCA — Senior Cabin Attendant (29) SM — Statute Miles (30) VMC — Visual Meteorological Conditions (31) VSM — Vertical Separation Minimum

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SUBPART B AIRCRAFT REQUIREMENTS

10.015 REGISTRATION MARKINGS (a) No person may operate a Bahamian-registered aircraft unless it displays the

proper markings prescribed in Schedule 3. (b) No person may operate a aircraft in The Bahamas unless it displays

registration markings in accordance with ICAO Annex 7. 10.020 CIVIL AIRCRAFT AIRWORTHINESS (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless it is in an airworthy condition. (b) Each PIC shall determine whether an aircraft is in a condition for safe flight. (c) The PIC shall discontinue a flight as soon as practicable when an

unairworthy mechanical, electrical or structural condition occurs. 10.022 SPECIAL AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATE OPERATIONAL

RESTRICTIONS (a) No person may operate an aircraft with a special airworthiness certificate

except as provided in the limitations issued with that certificate. 10.030 AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT (a) No person may operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with the

instruments and equipment requirements of Schedule 7 appropriate to the type of flight operation conducted and the route being flown.

10.035 INOPERATIVE INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT (a) No person may takeoff an aircraft with inoperative instruments or

equipment installed, except as authorised by the Authority. (b) No person may takeoff in a multi-engine aircraft with inoperative instruments

and equipment installed unless the following conditions are met: (1) An approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that aircraft. (2) The Authority has issued the specific operating provisions authorising

operations in accordance with an approved Minimum Equipment List. The flight crew shall have direct access at all times prior to flight to all of the information contained in the approved Minimum Equipment List through printed or other means approved by the Authority in the AOC Holders specific operating provisions. An approved Minimum Equipment List, as authorised by the specific operating provisions, constitutes an approved change to the type design without requiring recertification.

(3) The approved Minimum Equipment List must: (i) Be prepared in accordance with the limitations specified in

paragraph (c) of this section. (ii) Provide for the operation of the aircraft with certain instruments

and equipment in an inoperative condition. (4) Records identifying the inoperative instruments and equipment and

the information required by paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section must be available to the pilot.

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(5) The aircraft is operated under all applicable conditions and limitations contained in the Minimum Equipment List and the specific operating provisions authorising use of the Minimum Equipment List.

(c) The following instruments and equipment may not be included in the Minimum Equipment List: (1) Instruments and equipment that are either specifically or otherwise

required by the airworthiness requirements under which the aircraft is type certificated and which are essential for safe operations under all operating conditions.

(2) Instruments and equipment required by an airworthiness directive to be in operable condition unless the airworthiness directive provides otherwise.

(3) Instruments and equipment required for specific operations under Schedule 10, Schedule 11 and/or 12.

(d) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1)and (c)(3) of this section, an aircraft with inoperative instruments or equipment may be operated under a special flight permit issued under Schedule 5. See Appendix 1 to 10.035 for specific limitation on inoperative instruments and equipment.

10.040 CIVIL AIRCRAFT FLIGHT MANUAL, MARKING AND PLACARD REQUIREMENTS

(a) No person may operate a Bahamian-registered civil aircraft unless there is available in the aircraft — (1) A current, approved AFM or RFM; or (2) An AOM approved by the Authority for the AOC holder; (3) If no AFM or RFM exists, approved manual material, markings and

placards, or any combination thereof which provide the PIC with the necessary limitations for safe operation.

(b) This information may be displayed in the aircraft in the form of placards, listings, instrument markings or combination thereof, containing those operating limitations prescribed by the certifying authority for the aircraft’s State of Registry for visual presentation.

(c) Each person operating a civil aircraft shall cause the AFM or RFM to be updated by implementing changes made mandatory by the State of Registry.

10.045 REQUIRED AIRCRAFT AND EQUIPMENT INSPECTIONS (a) Unless otherwise authorised by the Authority, no person may operate a

Bahamian civil aircraft unless it has had the following inspections and evidence of those inspections are carried on the aircraft — (1) An annual inspection within the past 12 calendar months; (2) For remuneration or hire operations, a 100-hour inspection; (3) For IFR operations, an altimeter and pitot-static system inspection in

the past 24 calendar months; (4) For transponder equipped aircraft, a transponder check within the past

12 calendar months;

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(5) For ELT-equipped aircraft, an ELT check within the past 12 calendar months, and

(6) For IFR aircraft, a VOR receiver check within the past 30 days in accordance with the method prescribed by the Authority.

Note: IFR aircraft maintained under a continuous maintenance program will have a different requirement other than 30-day requirement.

(b) The requirements for these inspections are contained in Schedule 5. (c) Aircraft maintained under an alternate maintenance and inspection program

approved by the Authority, as specified in Schedule 5, may not have current annual or 100-hour inspections in their maintenance records. Note: An “alternate maintenance and inspection program” may include a manufacturer’s recommended program, instructions for continued airworthiness, or a program designed by the operator and approved by the Authority.

10.050 DOCUMENTS TO BE CARRIED ON AIRCRAFT: ALL OPERATIONS IN THE BAHAMAS

(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless it has within it the current and approved documents appropriate to the operations to be conducted: (1) Properly displayed registration certificate issued to the owner. (2) Properly airworthiness certificate. (3) AFM or RFM. (4) Normal, abnormal and emergency checklists. (5) Pilot operating handbook (or aircraft operating manual). (6) Performance and Mass and Balance tables or graphs.

10.051 ADDITIONAL DOCUMENTS APPLICABLE TO INTERNATIONAL FLIGHTS

(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft for flights across international borders unless it has within it the additional documents necessary for such flights, including — (1) For international flights, a general declaration for customs. (2) List of passenger names and points of embarkation and destination, if

applicable. (3) Aircraft radio licence. (4) Noise Certificate, if required. (5) Any other documentation that may be required by the Authority or

States concerned with a proposed flight. Note The noise certificate shall state the standards in ICAO Annex 16. Volume 1 The statement may be contained in any document, carried on board approved by the Authority.

10.055 ADDITIONAL DOCUMENT REQUIREMENTS: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) The following current and approved documents must be carried on board the aircraft during commercial air transport operations: (1) Aircraft Journey Log.

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(2) Aircraft Technical Log. (3) Aircraft Load Manifest. (4) Operational Flight Plan. (5) NOTAMs briefing documentation. (6) Meteorological information. (7) Filed ATC flight plan. (8) Part(s) of the Operations Manual relevant to operation(s) conducted. (9) Aircraft Operating Manual acceptable to the State of the Operator (10) MEL approved by the State of the Operator (11) Air Operator Certificate, if required. (12) Bomb search checklist (13) Least Risk Location instruction in the event a bomb is found (14) Forms for complying with the reporting requirements of the Authority

and the AOC holder. SUBPART C

FLIGHT CREW REQUIREMENTS 10.060 COMPOSITION OF THE FLIGHT CREW (a) The number and composition of the flight crew may not be less than that

specified in the flight manual or other documents associated with the airworthiness certificate.

(b) A SIC is required for IFR commercial air transport operations, unless the Authority has issued a deviation.

(c) The flight crews shall include flight crew members in addition to the minimum numbers specified in the flight manual or other documents associated with the certificate of airworthiness when necessitated by considerations related to the type of aeroplane use, the type of operations involved and the duration of flight between points where flight crews are exchanged.

10.065 FLIGHT CREW QUALIFICATIONS (a) The PIC shall ensure that the licences of each flight crew member have

been issued or rendered valid by the State of Registry, contain the proper ratings, and that all that the flight crew members have maintained recency of experience.

(b) No person may operate a civil aircraft in commercial air transport or aerial work unless that person is qualified for the specific operation and in the specific type of aircraft used.

10.070 AUTHORISATION IN LIEU OF A TYPE RATING (a) The Authority may authorise a pilot to operate an aircraft requiring a type

rating without a type rating for up to 60 days, provided — (1) The Authority has determined that an equivalent level of safety can be

achieved through the operating limitations on the authorisation; (2) The applicant shows that compliance with this subsection is

impracticable for the flight or series of flights;

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(3) The operations — (i) Involve only a ferry flight, training flight, test flight, or practical

test for a pilot licence or rating; (ii) Are within The Bahamas, unless, by previous agreement with

the Authority, the aircraft is flown to an adjacent contracting State for maintenance;

(iii) Are not for compensation or hire unless the compensation or hire involves payment for the use of the aircraft for training or taking a practical test; and

(iv) Involve only the carriage of flight crew members considered essential for the flight.

(4) If the purpose of the authorisation provided by this paragraph cannot be accomplished within the time limit of the authorisation, the Authority may authorise an additional period of up to 60 days.

10.075 LICENCES REQUIRED (a) No person may act as PIC or in any other capacity as a required flight crew

member of a civil aircraft of: (1) Bahamian registry, unless he or she carries in their personal

possession the appropriate and current licence for that flight crew position for that type of aircraft and a valid medical certificate.

(2) Foreign registry, unless he or she carries in their personal possession a valid and current licence for that type of aircraft issued to them by the State in which the aircraft is registered.

10.077 RADIO OPERATOR LICENCE (a) For international operations, the flight crew shall include at least one

member who holds a valid licence, issued or rendered valid by the State of Registry, authorizing operation of the type of radio transmitting equipment to be used.

10.080 MEDICAL CERTIFICATE REQUIRED (a) No person may serve as an airman not may any person use an airman unless

that person has in their personal possession a valid airman medical certificate.

(b) The medical certificate is valid for — (1) 6 calendar months — for operations requiring airline transport pilot

privileges; Note: It is permissible for the pilot of an air operator of another ICAO Contracting State when flying in the Bahamas to have a certificate valid for 12 months provided that they have not passed the age of 40. (2) 12 calendar months — for operations requiring commercial pilot or

flight engineer privileges; (3) 24 calendar months — for operations requiring private privileges.

10.085 AIRMAN: LIMITATIONS ON USE OF SERVICES FOR COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No person may serve as an airman, nor may any person use an airman in commercial air transport unless that person is qualified for the operations for which they are to be used in accordance with Schedule 14.

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10.090 RATING REQUIRED FOR IFR OPERATIONS (a) No person may act as PIC of a civil aircraft under IFR or in weather

conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR flight unless — (1) In the case of an aeroplane, the pilot holds an instrument rating or an

ATP licence with an appropriate aeroplane category, class, and type (if required) rating for the aeroplane being flown;

(2) In the case of helicopter, the pilot holds a helicopter instrument rating or an ATP licence for helicopters not limited to VFR operations.

10.095 SPECIAL AUTHORISATION REQUIRED FOR CATEGORY II/III OPERATIONS

(a) Except as shown in paragraph (b), no person may act as a pilot crew member of a civil aircraft in a Category II/III operation unless — (1) In the case of a PIC, he or she holds a current Category II or III pilot

authorisation for that type aircraft. (2) In the case of an SIC, he or she is authorised by the State of Registry

to act as SIC in that aircraft in Category II/III operations. (b) An authorisation is not required for individual pilots of an AOC holder that

has operations specifications approving Category II or III operations. 10.100 PILOT LOGBOOKS (a) Each pilot shall show the aeronautical training and experience used to meet

the requirements for a licence or rating, or recency of experience, by a reliable record.

(b) Each PIC shall carry his or her logbook on all general aviation international flights.

(c) A student pilot shall carry his or her logbook, including the proper flight instructor endorsements, on all solo cross-country flights. Note: The acceptable methods of logging experience are outlined in Schedule 8.

10.105 PIC CURRENCY: TAKEOFF AND LANDINGS (a) No person may act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers, nor of an

aircraft certified for more than one required pilot flight crew member unless, within the preceding 90 days that pilot has: (1) Made 3 takeoffs and landings as the sole manipulator of the flight

controls in an aircraft of the same category and class and if a type rating is required, of the same type.

(2) For a tailwheel aeroplane, made the 3 takeoffs and landings in a tailwheel aeroplane with each landing to a full stop.

(3) For night operations, made the 3 takeoffs and landings required by paragraph (a)(1) at night.

(b) A pilot who has not met the recency of experience for takeoffs and landings shall satisfactorily complete a requalification curriculum acceptable to the Authority.

(c) Requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) may be satisfied in a flight simulator approved by the Authority.

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10.110 PILOT CURRENCY: IFR OPERATIONS (a) No person may act as PIC under IFR, nor in IMC, unless he or she has,

within the preceding 6 calendar months — (1) Logged at least 6 hours of instrument flight time including at least 3

hours in flight in the category of aircraft; and (2) Completed at least 6 instrument approaches.

(b) A pilot who has completed an instrument competency check with an authorised representative of the Authority retains currency for IFR operations for 6 calendar months following that check.

10.115 PILOT CURRENCY: GENERAL AVIATION OPERATIONS (a) No person may act as PIC of an aircraft type certified for more than one

pilot unless, since the beginning of the preceding 12 calendar months, he or she has passed a proficiency check in an aircraft requiring more than one pilot with an authorised representative of the Authority.

(b) No person may act as PIC of an aircraft type certified for more than one pilot unless, since the beginning of the preceding 24 calendar months, he or she has passed a proficiency check in the type aircraft to be operated.

(c) No person may act as PIC of an aircraft type certified for a single pilot unless, since the beginning of the 24 calendar months, he or she has passed a proficiency check with an authorised representative of the Authority.

(d) The proficiency check shall be the manoeuvres listed for the type rating practical test.

(e) No person may act as SIC of an aircraft type certified for more than one pilot unless, since the beginning of the 12 calendar months, he or she has — (1) Become familiar with the aircraft systems, performance, normal and

emergency procedures; and (2) Logged 3 takeoff and landings as the sole manipulator of the controls. Note: Section 10.115 does not apply to pilots engaged in commercial air transport operations. Those requirements are outlined in Schedule 14.

10.120 ADDITIONAL COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT QUALIFICATIONS (a) All aviation personnel involved in commercial air transport shall also conform

to — (1) The initial and continuing qualification requirements of Schedule 14;

and (2) The requirements of Schedule 15 for maximum duty and flight time

and minimum rest periods. 10.125 PILOT PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS (a) A pilot may conduct operations only within the general privileges and

limitations of each licence as specified in Schedule 8 and the general guidance of the following paragraphs.

10.130 AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT PRIVILEGES — GENERAL (a) The Authority extends to the holder of an airline transport pilot licence the

same privileges as those extended to a holder of a commercial pilot licence with an instrument rating and the privilege to act as PIC and SIC in aircraft in commercial air transportation.

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Note: Additional privileges and limitations are contained in Schedule 8. 10.135 COMMERCIAL PILOT PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

GENERAL (a) A commercial pilot certificate may act as PIC of an aircraft for

compensation or hire, including the carriage of persons or property for compensation or hire, provided the pilot is qualified in accordance with the Schedules applicable to the operation intended. Note: Additional privileges and limitations are contained in Schedule 8. Note: The qualifications for most general aviation operations are contained in Schedule 10. Special qualification requirements are contained in Schedule 11 (aerial work) and Schedule 14 (commercial air transport).

10.140 PRIVATE PILOT PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS: REQUIRED CREW MEMBER

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this subsection, a private pilot may not act as a required crew member of an aircraft — (1) Carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire; or (2) Operated for compensation or hire.

(b) A private pilot may, for compensation or hire, act as a required crew member of an aircraft in connection with any business or employment if — (1) The flight is only incidental to that business or employment; and (2) The aircraft does not carry passengers or property for compensation or

hire. (c) A private pilot who is an aircraft salesman and who has at least 200 hours

of logged flight time may demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer.

(d) A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

(e) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this subsection, no private pilot may, for compensation or hire, act as SIC of an aircraft that is type certified for more than one pilot. Additional privileges and limitations are contained in Schedule 8.

10.145 STUDENT PILOT — GENERAL LIMITATIONS (a) A student pilot may not act as PIC of an aircraft —

(1) That is carrying a passenger; (2) That is carrying property for compensation or hire; (3) That is operated for compensation or hire; (4) In furtherance of a business; (5) On an international flight; (6) With a flight or surface visibility of less than 3 statute miles during

daylight hours or 5 statute miles at night; (7) When the flight cannot be made with visual reference to the surface; or

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(8) In a manner contrary to any limitations placed in the pilot’s logbook by an authorised instructor.

(b) A student pilot may not act as a required pilot flight crew member on any aircraft for which more than one pilot is required by the aircraft type certificate or by these Schedule under which the flight is conducted, except when receiving flight training from an authorised instructor on board an airship, and no person other than a required flight crew member is carried on the aircraft.

(c) A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight unless that student pilot has received within the 90 days preceding the date of the flight an endorsement from an authorised instructor for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown made — (1) On his or her student pilot licence; and (2) In the student’s logbook.

(d) A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight at night unless that student pilot has received and logged — (1) Flight training at night that includes takeoffs, approaches, landings,

and go-arounds at night at the airport where the student will conduct solo flight;

(2) Navigation training at night in the vicinity of the airport where the student pilot will conduct solo flight; and

(3) An endorsement for night solo flight. SUBPART D

CREW MEMBER DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES 10.150 AUTHORITY AND RESPONSIBILITY OF THE PIC (a) The PIC shall be responsible for the operations and safety of the aircraft

and for the safety of all persons on board, when the doors are closed and during flight.

(b) The PIC of an aircraft shall have final authority as to the operation of the aircraft while he or she is in command.

(c) The PIC of an aircraft shall, whether manipulating the controls or not, be responsible for the operation of the aircraft in accordance with the rules of the air, except that the PIC may depart from these rules in emergency circumstances that render such departure absolutely necessary in the interests of safety.

10.155 DESIGNATION OF PIC FOR COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT (a) The AOC holder shall, for each commercial air transport operation,

designate in writing one pilot as the PIC. 10.160 COMPLIANCE WITH LOCAL REGULATIONS (a) All persons shall comply with the relevant laws, regulations and procedures

of the States in which the aircraft is operated. (b) If an emergency situation which endangers the safety of the aircraft or persons

necessitates the taking of action which involves a violation of local regulations or procedures, the PIC shall — (1) Notify the appropriate local authority without delay;

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(2) Submit a report of the circumstances, if required by the State in which the incident occurs; and

(3) Submit a copy of this report to the Authority. (c) Each PIC shall submit reports specified in paragraph (b) to the Authority

within 10 days in the form prescribed. 10.165 NEGLIGENT OR RECKLESS OPERATIONS OF THE AIRCRAFT (a) No person may operate an aircraft in a negligent or reckless manner so as to

endanger life or property of others. 10.170 FITNESS OF FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS (a) No person may act as PIC or in any other capacity as a required flight crew

member when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise the privileges of his or her licence.

(b) The PIC shall be responsible for ensuring that a flight is not — (1) Commenced if any flight crew member is incapacitated from

performing duties by any cause such as injury, sickness, fatigue, the effects of alcohol or drugs; or

(2) Continued beyond the nearest suitable aerodrome if a flight crew members’ capacity to perform functions is significantly reduced by impairment of faculties from causes such as fatigue, sickness or lack of oxygen.

10.175 USE OF NARCOTICS, DRUGS OR INTOXICATING LIQUOR (a) No person may act or attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft —

(1) Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage; (2) While under the influence of alcohol; or (3) While using any drug that affects the person’s faculties in any way

contrary to safety. (b) A crew member shall, up to 8 hours before or immediately after acting or

attempting to act as a crew member, on the request of a law enforcement officer or the Authority, submit to a test to indicate the presence of alcohol or narcotic drugs in the blood. See Appendix 1 to 10.175 for specific requirements pertaining to testing for alcohol or narcotics.

10.180 CREW MEMBER USE OF SEAT BELTS AND SHOULDER HARNESSES

(a) Each crew member shall have his or her seat belts fastened during takeoff and landing and all other times when seated at his or her station.

(b) Each crew member occupying a station equipped with a shoulder harness shall fasten that harness during takeoff and landing.

(c) Each occupant of a seat equipped with a combined safety belt and shoulder harness shall have the combined safety belt and shoulder harness properly secured about that occupant during takeoff and landing and be able to properly perform assigned duties.

(d) At each unoccupied seat, the safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed, shall be secured so as not to interfere with crew members in the performance of their duties or with the rapid egress of occupants in an emergency.

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10.185 FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS AT DUTY STATIONS (a) Each required flight crew member shall remain at the assigned duty station

during take-off and landing and critical phases of flight. (b) Each flight crew member shall remain at his or her station during all other

phases of flight unless — (1) Absence is necessary for the performance of his or her duties in

connection with the operation; (2) Absence is necessary for physiological needs, provided one qualified

pilot remains at the controls at all times; or (3) The crew member is taking a rest period and a qualified relief crew

member replaces him or her at the duty station. See Appendix 1 to 10.185 for specific requirement pertaining to qualified relief crew members.

10.190 REQUIRED CREW MEMBER EQUIPMENT (a) Each crew member involved in night operations shall have a flashlight at

his or her station. (b) Each pilot crew member shall have at his or her station an aircraft checklist

containing at least the pre-takeoff, after takeoff, before landing and emergency procedures.

(c) Each pilot crew member shall have at his or her station current and suitable charts to cover the route of the proposed flight and any route along which it is reasonable to expect that the flight may be diverted.

(d) Each flight crew member assessed as fit to exercise the privileges of a licence subject to the use of suitable correcting lenses, shall have a spare set of the correcting lenses readily available when performing as a required crew member in commercial air transport.

10.195 COMPLIANCE WITH CHECKLISTS (a) The PIC shall ensure that the flight crew complies with the approved

checklist procedures in detail when operating the aircraft. (b) All members of the flight crew shall use the checklists prior to, during and after

all phases of operations and in an emergency to ensure compliance with the — (1) operating procedures contained in the aircraft operating manual; and (2) the flight manual; or (3) other documents associated with the certificate of airworthiness; and (4) otherwise in the operations manual.

10.200 SEARCH AND RESCUE INFORMATION (a) For all international flights, the PIC shall have on board the aircraft

essential information concerning the search and rescue services in the areas over which they intend to operate the aircraft.

10.205 PRODUCTION OF AIRCRAFT AND FLIGHT DOCUMENTATION (a) The PIC shall, within a reasonable time of being requested to do so by a

person authorised by the Authority, produce to that person the documentation required to be carried on the aircraft.

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10.210 LOCKING OF FLIGHT DECK COMPARTMENT DOOR: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) The PIC shall ensure that the flight deck compartment door (if installed) is locked at all times during passenger-carrying commercial air transport operations, except as necessary to accomplish approved operations or to provide for emergency evacuation.

10.215 ADMISSION TO THE FLIGHT DECK: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No person may admit any person to the flight deck of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport operations unless the person being admitted is — (1) An operating crew member; (2) A representative of the authority responsible for certification,

licensing or inspection, if this is required for the performance of his or her official duties; or

(3) Permitted by and carried out in accordance with instructions contained in the Operations Manual.

(b) The PIC shall ensure that — (1) In the interest of safety, admission on the flight deck does not cause

distraction and/or interference with the flight’s operations; and (2) All persons carried on the flight deck are made familiar with the

relevant safety procedures. 10.220 ADMISSION OF INSPECTOR TO THE FLIGHT DECK (a) Whenever, in performing the duties of conducting an inspection, an

inspector from the Authority presents an Aviation Safety Inspector’s Credential issued by the Bahamas CAD to the PIC, the PIC shall give the inspector free and uninterrupted access to the flight deck of the aircraft.

10.225 DUTIES DURING CRITICAL PHASES OF FLIGHT: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No flight crew member may perform any duties during a critical phase of flight except those required for the safe operation of the aircraft.

(b) No PIC may permit a flight crew member to engage in any activity during a critical phase of flight which could distract or interfere with the performance of their assigned duties.

10.227 FLIGHT DECK COMMUNICATIONS (a) Each required flight crew member shall use a boom or throat microphone to

communicate with each other and air traffic service below the transition area or 10,000 feet, whichever is lower.

10.230 MANIPULATION OF THE CONTROLS: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No PIC may allow an unqualified person to manipulate the controls of an aircraft during commercial air transport operations.

(b) No person may manipulate the controls of an aircraft during commercial air transport operations unless he or she is qualified to perform the applicable crew member functions and is authorised by the AOC holder.

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10.235 SIMULATED ABNORMAL SITUATIONS IN FLIGHT: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No person may cause or engage in simulated abnormal or emergency situations or the simulation of IMC by artificial means during commercial air transport operations.

10.238 RESPONSIBILITY FOR REQUIRED DOCUMENTS (a) For all international flights, the PIC shall ensure the completion,

safekeeping and delivery of the General Declaration. (b) For commercial air transport operations, the PIC shall ensure the

completion and safekeeping of the journey log. 10.240 COMPLETION OF THE AIRCRAFT TECHNICAL LOGBOOK:

COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT (a) The PIC shall ensure that all portions of the technical logbook are

completed at the appropriate points before, during and after flight operations.

10.245 REPORTING MECHANICAL IRREGULARITIES (a) At the termination of the flight, the PIC shall ensure that all known or suspected

defects discovered in flight are — (1) For general aviation operations, reported in writing to the operator of

the aircraft. (2) For commercial air transport operations, entered in the technical log of

the aircraft. (b) The operator of the aircraft shall ensure that these defects are properly

rectified prior to the next flight of the aircraft. 10.250 REPORTING OF FACILITY AND NAVIGATION AIR INADEQUACIES (a) Each crew member shall report, without delay, any inadequacy or

irregularity of a facility or navigational aid observed in the course of operations to the person responsible for that facility or navigational aid.

10.255 REPORTING OF HAZARDOUS CONDITIONS (a) The PIC shall report to the appropriate ATC facility, without delay and

with enough detail to be pertinent to the safety of other aircraft, any hazardous flight conditions encountered en route, including those associated with meteorological conditions.

10.260 REPORTING OF INCIDENTS (a) Air traffic report. The PIC shall submit, without delay, an air traffic incident

report whenever an aircraft in flight has been endangered by — (1) A near collision with another aircraft or object; (2) Faulty air traffic procedures or lack of compliance with applicable

procedures by ATC or by the flight crew; or (3) A failure of ATC facilities.

(b) Birds. In the event a bird constitutes an in-flight hazard or an actual bird strike the PIC shall, without delay — (1) Inform the appropriate ground station whenever a potential bird

hazard is observed; and

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(2) Submit a written bird strike report after landing. (c) Dangerous Goods. The PIC shall inform the appropriate ATC facility, if

the situation permits, when an in-flight emergency occurs involving dangerous goods on board.

(d) Unlawful Interference. The PIC shall submit a report to the local authorities and to the Authority, without delay, following an act of unlawful interference with the crew members on board an aircraft.

10.265 ACCIDENT NOTIFICATION (a) The PIC shall notify the nearest appropriate authority, by the quickest

available means, of any accident involving his or her aircraft that results in serious injury or death of any person, or substantial damage to the aircraft or property.

(b) The PIC shall submit a report to the Authority of any accident which occurred while he or she was responsible for the flight.

10.270 OPERATION OF FLIGHT DECK VOICE AND FLIGHT DATA RECORDERS

(a) The PIC shall ensure that whenever an aircraft has flight recorders installed, those recorders are operated continuously from the instant — (1) For a flight data recorder, the aircraft begins its takeoff roll until it has

completed the landing roll, and (2) For a flight deck voice recorder, the initiation of the pre-start checklist

until the end of the securing aircraft checklist. (b) The PIC may not permit a flight data recorder or flight deck voice recorder

to be disabled, switched off or erased during flight, unless necessary to preserve the data for an accident or incident investigation.

(c) In event of an accident or incident, the PIC shall act to preserve the recorded data for subsequent investigation.

10.275 CREW MEMBER OXYGEN: MINIMUM SUPPLY AND USE (a) The PIC shall ensure that breathing oxygen and masks are available to crew

members in sufficient quantities for all flights at such altitudes where a lack of oxygen might result in impairment of the faculties of crew members.

(b) In no case shall the minimum supply of oxygen on board the aircraft be less than that prescribed by the Authority. Note: The requirements for oxygen supply and use are prescribed in Schedule 7.

(c) The PIC shall ensure that all flight crew members, when engaged in performing duties essential to the safe operation of an aircraft in flight, use breathing oxygen continuously at cabin altitudes exceeding 10,000 ft for a period in excess of 30 minutes and whenever the cabin altitude exceeds 13,000 ft.

(d) One pilot at the controls of a pressurised aircraft in flight shall wear and use an oxygen mask — (1)For general aviation operations, at flight levels above 350, if there is no

other pilot at their duty station; and (2) For commercial air transport operations, at flight levels above 250, if

there is no other pilot at their duty station.

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10.280 PORTABLE ELECTRONIC DEVICES (a) No PIC or SCA may permit any person to use, nor may any person use a

portable electronic device on board an aircraft that may adversely affect the performance of aircraft systems and equipment unless — (1) For IFR operations other than commercial air transport, the PIC

allows such a device prior to its use; or (2) For commercial air transport operations, the AOC holder makes a

determination of acceptable devices and publishes that information in the Operations Manual for the crew members use; and

(3) The PIC informs passengers of the permitted use. 10.282 CARRIAGE OF DANGEROUS GOODS (a) No person shall load or cause to load any goods on an aircraft which that

person knows or ought to know or suspect to be dangerous goods, unless this act is in conformance with the requirements of Schedule 18 regarding carriage of dangerous goods by air.

SUBPART E ALL PASSENGER CARRYING OPERATIONS

10.285 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart applies to all passenger-carrying operations in civil aircraft. (b) Operators of large aircraft and AOC holders are also required to comply

with the additional requirements contained in Schedule 13. 10.287 UNACCEPTABLE CONDUCT (a) No person on board may interfere with a crew member in the performance

of his or her duties. (b) Each passenger shall fasten his or her seat belt and keep it fastened while

the seat belt sign is lighted. (c) No person on board an aircraft shall recklessly or negligently act or omit to

act in such a manner as to endanger the aircraft or persons and property therein.

(d) No person may secrete himself or herself nor secrete cargo on board an aircraft.

(e) No person may smoke while the no-smoking sign is lighted. (f) No person may smoke in any aircraft lavatory. (g) No person may tamper with, disable or destroy any smoke detector

installed in any aircraft lavatory. 10.290 REFUELLING WITH PASSENGERS ON BOARD (a) No PIC may allow an aircraft to be refuelled when passengers are embarking, on

board or disembarking unless — (1) The aircraft is manned by qualified personnel ready to initiate and

direct an evacuation; and (2) Two-way communication is maintained between the qualified personnel in

the aircraft and the ground crew supervising the refuelling.

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(b) Helicopters. Unless specifically authorised by the Authority, no person will allow a helicopter to be refuelled when — (1) Passengers are embarking, on board, or disembarking; or (2) The rotors are turning.

10.295 PASSENGER SEATS, SAFETY BELTS, AND SHOULDER HARNESSES (a) The PIC shall ensure that each person on onboard occupies an approved

seat or berth with their own individual safety belt and shoulder harness (if installed) properly secured about them during movement on the surface, takeoff and landing.

(b) Each passenger shall have his or her seatbelt securely fastened at any other time the PIC determines it is necessary for safety, especially during turbulence or emergency.

(c) A safety belt provided for the occupant of a seat may not be used during takeoff and landing by more than one person who has reached his or her second birthday. Note: When cabin attendants are required in a commercial air transport operation, the PIC may delegate this responsibility, but shall ascertain that the proper briefing has been conducted prior to takeoff.

10.300 PASSENGER BRIEFING (a) The PIC shall ensure that crew members and passengers are made familiar, by

means of an oral briefing or by other means, with the location and use of the following items, if appropriate — (1) Seat belts; (2) Emergency exits; (3) Life jackets; (4) Oxygen dispensing equipment; and (5) Other emergency equipment provided for individual use, including

passenger emergency briefing cards. (b) The PIC shall ensure that all persons on board are aware of the locations

and general manner of use of the principal emergency equipment carried for collective use. Note: For commercial air transport operations. the briefing shall contain all subjects approved by the Authority for the specific operations conducted as included in the pertinent Operations Manual. Note: When cabin attendants are required in a commercial air transport operation, the PIC may delegate this responsibility, but shall ascertain that the proper briefing has been conducted prior to takeoff.

10.305 INFLIGHT EMERGENCY INSTRUCTION (a) In an emergency during flight, the PIC shall ensure that all persons on

board are instructed in such emergency action as may be appropriate to the circumstances. Note: When cabin attendants are required in a commercial air transport operation, the PIC may delegate this responsibility, but shall ascertain that the proper briefing has been conducted.

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10.310 PASSENGER OXYGEN: MINIMUM SUPPLY AND USE (a) The PIC shall ensure that breathing oxygen and masks are available to

passengers in sufficient quantities for all flights at such altitudes where a lack of oxygen might harmfully effect passengers.

(b) The PIC shall ensure that the minimum supply of oxygen prescribed by the Authority is on board the aircraft. Note: The requirements for oxygen storage and dispensing apparatus are prescribed in Schedule 7.

(c) The PIC shall require all passengers to use oxygen continuously at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet.

10.315 ALCOHOL OR DRUGS (a) No person may permit the boarding or serving of any person who appears

to be intoxicated or who demonstrates, by manner or physical indications, that that person is under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care).

SUBPART F FLIGHT PLANS

10.325 SUBMISSION OF A FLIGHT PLAN (a) Prior to operating one of the following, a pilot shall file a VFR or IFR flight

plan, as applicable, for — (1) Any flight (or portion thereof) to be provided with air traffic control

service; (2) Any IFR flight within advisory airspace; (3) Any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes,

when so required by the appropriate ATC authority to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and search and rescue services;

(4) Any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required by the appropriate ATC authority to facilitate co- ordination with appropriate military units or with ATC facilities in adjacent states in order to avoid the possible need for interception for the purpose of identification; and

(5) Any flight across international borders. (b) The PIC shall submit a flight plan before departure or during flight, to the

appropriate ATC facility, unless arrangements have been made for submission of repetitive flight plans.

(c) Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATC authority, a pilot should submit a flight plan to the appropriate ATC facility — (1) At least sixty minutes before departure; or (2) If submitted during flight, at a time which will ensure its receipt by the

appropriate ATC facility at least ten minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach — (i) The intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area; or

(ii) The point of crossing an airway or advisory route.

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10.330 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL FLIGHT PLAN: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No person may takeoff an aircraft in commercial air transport if an ATC flight plan has not been filed, except as authorised by the Authority.

10.335 CONTENTS OF A FLIGHT PLAN (a) Each person filing an IFR or VFR flight plan shall include in it the following

information — (1) Aircraft identification; (2) Flight rules and type of flight; (3) Number and type(s) of aircraft and wake turbulence category; (4) Equipment; (5) Departure aerodrome and alternate (if required); (6) Estimated off-block time; (7) Cruising speed(s); (8) Cruising level(s); (9) Route to be followed; (10) Destination aerodrome and alternate (if required); (11) Fuel endurance; (12) Total number of persons on board; (13) Emergency and survival equipment; and (14) Other information. Note: Whatever the purpose for which it is submitted, a flight plan shall contain information, as applicable, on relevant items up to and including “alternate aerodrome(s)”regarding the whole route or the portion thereof for which the flight plan is submitted.

10.340 PLANNED RECLEARANCE (a) If during flight planning a person determines that there is a possibility,

depending on fuel endurance, that a flight may be able to change destinations and still comply with minimum fuel supply planning requirements, that person shall notify the appropriate ATC facility of this possibility when the flight plan is submitted. Note: The intent of this provision is to facilitate a new clearance to a revised destination, normally beyond the filed destination aerodrome.

(b) An AOC holder shall submit all pre-planned reclearance rationale to the Authority for approval in accordance with Schedule 12.

10.345 CHANGES TO A FLIGHT PLAN (a) When a change occurs to a flight plan submitted for an IFR flight or a VFR

flight operated as a controlled flight, the pilot shall report that change as soon as practicable to the appropriate ATC facility.

(b) For VFR flights other than those operated as controlled flight, the PIC shall report significant changes to a flight plan as soon as practicable to the appropriate ATC facility. Note: Information submitted prior to departure regarding fuel endurance or total

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number of persons carried on board, if incorrect at time of departure, constitutes a significant change and shall be reported.

10.350 CLOSING A FLIGHT PLAN (a) The PIC shall make a report of arrival either in person or by radio to the

appropriate ATC facility at the earliest possible moment after landing at the destination aerodrome, unless ATC automatically closes a flight plan.

(b) When a flight plan has been submitted for a portion of a flight, but not the arrival at destination, the pilot shall close that flight plan en route with the appropriate ATC facility.

(c) When no ATC facility exists at the arrival aerodrome, the pilot shall contact the nearest ATC facility to close the flight plan as soon as practicable after landing and by the quickest means available.

(d) Pilots shall include the following elements of information in their arrival reports — (1) Aircraft identification; (2) Departure aerodrome; (3) Destination aerodrome (only in the case of a diversionary landing); (4) Arrival aerodrome; and (5) Time of arrival.

SUBPART G FLIGHT PLANNING AND PREPARATION

10.355 AIRCRAFT AIRWORTHINESS AND SAFETY PRECAUTIONS (a) The PIC may not commence a flight in a civil aircraft in flight until satisfied

that — (1) The aircraft is airworthy, duly registered and that appropriate

certificates are aboard the aircraft; (2) The instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft are

appropriate, taking into account the expected flight conditions; and (3) Any necessary maintenance has been performed and a maintenance

release, if applicable, has been issued in respect to the aircraft. (b) For commercial air transport operations, before commencing the flight,

the PIC shall certify by signing the aircraft technical log that he or she is satisfied that the requirements of paragraph (a) have been met for a particular flight.

10.360 ADEQUACY OF OPERATING FACILITIES (a) No person may commence a flight unless it has been determined by every

reasonable means available that the ground and/or water areas and facilities available and directly required for such flight and for the safe operation of the aircraft, are adequate, including communication facilities and navigation aids. Note: “Reasonable means” denotes use, at the point of departure, of information available to the PIC either through official information published by the aeronautical information services or readily obtainable in other sources.

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10.365 WEATHER REPORTS AND FORECASTS (a) Before commencing a flight, the PIC shall be familiar with all available

meteorological information appropriate to the intended flight. (b) The PIC shall include, during preparation for a flight away from the vicinity of

the place of departure, and for every flight under the instrument flight rules — (1) A study of available current weather reports and forecasts; and (2) The planning of an alternative course of action to provide for the

eventuality that the flight cannot be completed as planned, because of weather conditions.

10.370 WEATHER LIMITATIONS FOR VFR FLIGHTS (a) No person may commence a flight to be conducted in accordance with VFR

unless available current meteorological reports, or a combination of current reports and forecasts, indicate that the meteorological conditions along the route, or that part of the route to be flown under VFR, will, at the appropriate time, allow VFR operations.

10.375 IFR DESTINATION AERODROMES (a) For IFR flight planning purposes, no person may commence an IFR flight

unless the available information indicates that the weather conditions at the aerodrome of intended landing and, if required, at least one suitable alternate at the estimated time of arrival, will be at or above the — (1) Minimum ceiling and visibility values for the standard instrument

approach procedure to be used; or (2) Minimum operating altitude, if no instrument approach procedure is to

be used, that would allow a VMC decent to the aerodrome. Note: A partial exception is granted for commercial air transport IFR flight planning, to the effect that the weather at the destination does not have to be at or above the approach minima to release and commence a flight, as long as the designated alternate aerodrome meets the IFR weather selection criteria.

10.380 IFR DESTINATION ALTERNATE REQUIREMENT (a) No person may commence an IFR flight in an aircraft without at least one

destination alternate aerodrome listed in the flight plan unless — (1) There is a standard instrument approach procedure prescribed for the

aerodrome of intended landing by the jurisdictional authorities; and (2) Available current meteorological information indicates that the following

meteorological conditions will exist from two hours before to two hours after the estimated time of arrival —

(i) A cloud base of at least 300 m (1,000 ft) above the minimum associated with the instrument approach procedure; and

(ii) Visibility of at least 5.5 km or of 4 km more than the minimum associated with the procedure.

(b) The ceiling and visibility requirements of paragraph (a) may be reduced upon approval of the Authority for — (1) Helicopters; or (2) Commercial air transport where no suitable destination alternate exists.

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10.385 IFR ALTERNATE AERODROME SELECTION CRITERIA (a) If alternate minimums are published, no PIC may designate an alternate

aerodrome in an IFR flight plan unless the current available forecast indicates that the meteorological conditions at that alternate at the ETA will be at or above those published alternate minimums.

(b) If alternate minimums are not published, and if there is no prohibition against using the aerodrome as an IFR planning alternate, each PIC shall ensure that the meteorological conditions at that alternate at the ETA will be at or above — (1) For a precision approach procedure, a ceiling of at least 600 feet and

visibility of not less than 2 statue miles; or (2) For a non-precision approach procedure, a ceiling of at least 800 feet

and visibility of not less than 2 statute miles. 10.390 OFF-SHORE ALTERNATES FOR HELICOPTER OPERATIONS (a) No person may designate an offshore alternate landing site when it is

possible to carry enough fuel to have an on-shore alternate landing site. Note: The selection of offshore alternates should be exceptional cases, the details of which have been approved by the Authority, and should not include payload enhancement in IMC.

(b) Each person selecting an off-shore alternate landing site shall consider the following: (1) Until the point of no return, using an on-shore alternate. The offshore

alternate may be used only after a point of no return. (2) Attaining one engine inoperative performance capability prior to

arrival at the alternate. (3) Guaranteeing helideck availability. (4) The weather information at the helideck shall be available from a

source approved by the Authority. (5) For IFR operations, an instrument approach procedure shall be

prescribed and available. Note: The landing technique specified in the slight manual following control system failure may preclude the selection of certain helidecks as alternate aerodromes. The mechanical reliability of critical control systems shall be taken into account when determining the suitability and necessity for an offshore alternate.

10.395 TAKEOFF ALTERNATE AERODROMES: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT OPERATIONS

(a) No person may commence a flight without a suitable takeoff alternate specified in the flight release if it would not be possible to return to the aerodrome of departure.

(b) Each operator shall ensure that each takeoff alternate specified shall be located within — (1) For two-engine aircraft, one hour flight time at single-engine cruise

speed unless the aircraft and crews are authorised for ETOPS; or (2) For three or four-engine aircraft, two hours flight time at single-engine

cruise speed.

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Note: All calculations are based on the one-engine-inoperative cruising speed according to the AFM in still air conditions based on the actual takeoff mass.

10.400 MAXIMUM DISTANCE FROM AN ADEQUATE AERODROME WITHOUT AN ETOPS APPROVAL

(a) Unless specifically approved by the Authority (ETOPS Approval), an AOC holder shall not operate a two-engined aeroplane over a route which contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome than, in the case of — (1) Large, turbine engine powered aeroplanes the distance flown in 60

minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed determined in accordance with paragraph (b) with either:

(i) A maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 20 or more; or

(ii) A maximum take-off mass of 45360 kg or more, (2) Reciprocating engine powered aeroplanes:

(i) The distance flown in 60 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed determined in accordance with paragraph (b); or

(ii) 300 nautical miles, whichever is less. See Appendix 1 to 10.400.

10.405 EXTENDED RANGE OPERATIONS WITH TWO-ENGINED AEROPLANES

(a) No person may conduct operations beyond the threshold distance determined in accordance with 10.400 unless approved to do so by the Authority.

(b) Prior to commencing an ETOPS flight, the persons exercising operational control shall ensure that a suitable ETOPS en route alternate is available, within either the approved diversion time or a diversion time based on MEL generated serviceability status of the aeroplane, whichever is shorter.

10.410 EN ROUTE ALTERNATE AERODROMES: ETOPS OPERATIONS (a) The PIC shall ensure that the required en route alternates for ETOPS are

selected and specified in ATC flight plans in accordance with the ETOPS diversion time approved by the Authority.

(b) No person shall select an aerodrome as an ETOPS en route alternate aerodrome unless the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that during a period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the expected time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the planning minima prescribed by the Authority, and in accordance with the operator’s ETOPS approval. Note: The forecast weather criteria used in the selection of alternate aerodromes for IFR flight will also be used for the selection of ETOPS alternates. See Appendix 1 to 10.410 for the ETOPS alternate planning chart.

10.415 FUEL, OIL, AND OXYGEN PLANNING AND CONTINGENCY FACTORS

(a) No person may commence a flight unless he or she takes into account the fuel, oil, and oxygen needed to ensure the safe completion of the flight, including any reserves to be carried for contingencies.

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(b) Each person computing the required minimum fuel supply shall ensure that additional fuel, oil, and oxygen are carried to provide for the increased consumption that would vault from any of the following contingencies — (1) Expected winds or other meteorological conditions; (2) Possible variations in ATC routings; (3) Anticipated traffic delays; (4) A complete instrument approach procedure and possible missed approach

at destination; (5) Loss of pressurisation en route; (6) Loss of one power-unit en route; and (7) Any other conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft or increase

fuel and oil consumption. 10.420 MINIMUM FUEL SUPPLY FOR VFR FLIGHTS (a) No person may commence a flight in an aeroplane under VFR unless,

considering the wind and forecast weather conditions, there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed for at least 45 minutes thereafter.

(b) No person may commence a flight in a helicopter under VFR unless (considering the wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed — (1) For 20 minutes thereafter; or (2) For international flights, for at least an additional 10% of the total

flight time calculated. 10.425 MINIMUM FUEL SUPPLY FOR IFR FLIGHTS (a) No person may commence a flight under IFR unless there is enough fuel supply,

considering weather reports and forecasts, to — (1) Fly to the first point of intended landing and execute an instrument

approach; (2) Execute a missed approach and fly from that aerodrome to the most

critical (in terms of fuel consumption) alternate aerodrome, if required; and

(3) Fly thereafter at normal cruising speed: (i) In a propeller-driven aeroplane, for 45 minutes.

(ii) In a rotorcraft, turbojet or turbofan aeroplane, for 30 minutes in a holding pattern at 450 m (1,500 ft) above the aerodrome under standard temperature conditions and approach and land, plus a reserve for contingencies specified by the operator and approved by the Authority.

10.430 AIRCRAFT LOADING, MASS AND BALANCE (a) No person may commence a flight unless all loads carried are properly

distributed and safely secured, taking into consideration the effect of the mass on centre of gravity and floor loading limitations.

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(b) No person may commence a flight unless the calculations for the mass of the aircraft and centre of gravity location indicate that the flight can be conducted safely and in accordance with the aircraft limitations, taking into account the flight conditions expected. Note: When load masters, load planners or other qualified personnel are provided by the AOC holder in a commercial air transport operation, the PIC may delegate these responsibilities, but shall ascertain that proper loading procedures are followed.

(c) Unless otherwise authorised by the Authority, the computations for the mass and balance shall be based on the AFM or RFM method for determination of the C.G. and the mass values used for these computations shall be based on the — (1) Aircraft empty weight derived through a periodic weighing of the aircraft; (2) Actual weights of the required crew, their equipment and baggage; (3) Actual weights of the passengers, their baggage and cargo; and (4) Actual weight of the usuable fuel boarded.

(d) For commercial air transport operations, no person may commence a flight unless these mass and balance computations are accomplished by qualified persons and are in conformance with the additional mass and balance requirements of Schedule 17 for AOC holders.

10.435 AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE AND OPERATING LIMITATIONS (a) The detailed and comprehensive performance code of the State of Registry

shall be the basis for any determination of aircraft performance. (b) No person may commence a flight unless the calculations for the performance of

the aircraft in all phases of flight indicate that the flight can be conducted safely and in accordance with the aircraft’s designed performance limitations for any operation, taking into account the flight conditions expected. Note: When applying performance data, each person performing calculations shall account for the aircraft configuration, environmental conditions, and the operation of any system or systems that may have an adverse effect on performance.

(c) No person may commence a flight that, given the aircraft’s weight and assuming normal engine operation, cannot safely clear all obstacles during all phases of flight, including all points along the intended en route path or any planned diversions.

(d) No person may commence a flight without ensuring that the maximum allowable weight for a flight does not exceed the maximum allowable takeoff or landing weight, or any applicable en route performance or landing distance limitations considering the — (1) Condition of the takeoff and landing areas to be used; (2) Gradient of runway to be used (landplanes only); (3) Pressure altitude; (4) Ambient temperature; (5) Current and forecast winds; and (6) Any known conditions (e.g., atmospheric and aircraft configuration), such

as density altitude, which may adversely affect performance.

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(e) For commercial air transport operations, no person may commence a flight unless the performance computations are accomplished by qualified persons and are in conformance with the additional performance requirements of Schedule 17 for AOC holders.

10.440 FLIGHT RELEASE REQUIRED: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT (a) No person may commence a flight under a flight following system without

specific authority from the person authorised by the AOC holder to exercise operational control over the flight.

(b) No person may commence a passenger-carrying flight in commercial air transport for which there is a published schedule, unless a qualified person authorised by the AOC holder to perform operational control functions has issued a flight release for that specific operation or series of operations.

10.445 OPERATIONAL FLIGHT PLAN: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT (a) No person may commence a flight unless the operational flight plan has

been signed by the PIC. (b) A PIC may sign the operational flight plan only when the PIC and the

person authorised by the operator to exercise operational control have determined that the flight can be safely completed. Note: The operational flight plan shall include the routing and fuel calculations, with respect to the meteorological and other factors expected, to complete the flight to the destination and all required alternates.

(c) The PIC signing the operational flight plan shall have access to the applicable flight planning information for fuel supply, alternate aerodromes, weather reports and forecasts and NOTAMs for the routing and aerodrome.

(d) No person may continue a flight from an intermediate aerodrome without a new operational flight plan if the aircraft has been on the ground more than 4 hours.

10.450 FLIGHT PLANNING DOCUMENT DISTRIBUTION AND RETENTION: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) For commercial air transport operations, the PIC shall complete and sign the following flight preparation documents before commencing a flight: (1) An operational flight plan, including NOTAMs and weather pertinent

to the flight planning decisions regarding minimum fuel supply, en route performance, and destination and alternate aerodromes.

(2) A load manifest, showing the distribution of the load, centre of gravity, takeoff and landing weights and compliance with maximum operating weight limitations, and performance analysis.

(3) An applicable technical log page, if mechanical irregularities were entered after a previous flight, maintenance or inspection functions were performed or a maintenance release was issued at the departure aerodrome.

(b) No person may takeoff an aircraft unless a copy of all flight preparation documents, signed by the PIC, are retained and available with a company representative at the point of departure, unless a different retention method has been approved by the Authority.

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(c) The PIC shall carry a copy of the documents specified in paragraph (a) on the aircraft to the destination aerodrome.

(d) These documents will be retained by the AOC holder for at least 3 months. Note: These documents are in addition to those specified in Subpart B for all aircraft operations. Note: The Authority may approve a different retention location where all documents can be available for subsequent review.

SUBPART H FLIGHT RULES FOR ALL OPERATIONS

10.477 COMPLIANCE WITH LOCAL REGULATIONS (a) All pilots shall be familiar with the laws, regulations and procedures pertinent to

the performance of their duties, prescribed for the — (1) areas to be traversed, (2) the aerodromes to be used; and (3) the air navigation facilities relating to them.

(b) All other members of the crew shall be familiar with the laws, regulations and procedures as are pertinent to the performance of their respective duties in the operation of the aircraft.

10.480 OPERATION OF AIRCRAFT ON THE GROUND (a) No person may taxi an aircraft on the movement area of an aerodrome unless

the person at the controls — (1) Has been authorised by the owner, the lessee, or a designated agent; (2) Is fully competent to taxi the aircraft; (3) Is qualified to use the radio if radio communications are required; and (4) Has received instruction from a competent person in respect of

aerodrome layout, and where appropriate, information on routes, signs, marking, lights, ATC signals and instructions, phraseology and procedures, and is able to conform to the operational standards required for safe aircraft movement at the aerodrome.

(b) No person shall cause a helicopter rotor to be turned under power unless there is a qualified pilot at the controls.

10.482 TAKEOFF AND LANDING — LICENCED AERODROME (a) No person shall cause an aircraft to takeoff or land at an aerodrome or heliport

within the Bahamas that is not licenced by the Government or a Government aerodrome for which permission for use has been received, if the purpose of the flight operation is — (1) commercial air transport with passengers; (2) flight instruction; or (3) solo flight by a student pilot.

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(b) No person shall cause an aircraft to takeoff or land at an aerodrome or heliport at night within the Bahamas for the purpose of commercial air transport carrying passengers, unless there is adequate lighting to — (1) Determine the landing direction, and (2) Make a safe approach and landing.

10.484 PRE-TAKEOFF INSPECTIONS (a) No person may takeoff an aircraft unless they have completed an inspection of

the aircraft, in accordance with a published checklist, of the — (1) Exterior for airworthiness; including the quantity and quality of the

fuel onboard; (2) Interior flight deck equipment, instruments and documents on the

aircraft; and (3) Pre-takeoff setup of the flight deck instruments and controls.

10.485 TAKEOFF CONDITIONS (a) No person may takeoff an aircraft, unless —

(1) According to the available information, the weather at the aerodrome and the condition of the runway intended to be used will allow for a safe takeoff and departure, and

(2) The RVR or visibility in the takeoff direction of the aircraft is equal to or better than the applicable minimum.

10.487 NOISE ABATEMENT (a) No person may takeoff an aircraft at an aerodrome where a noise abatement

departure is applicable to the aircraft, unless this action would not be considered safe or practical considering the existing conditions or performance limitations.

(b) Unless otherwise required by special circumstances at an aerodrome, the each person shall use, any one aircraft type, the same noise abatement procedure and profiles at all aerodromes.

(c) No person may takeoff or land an aircraft at a mass that exceeds the maximum demonstrated for that aircraft to comply with the noise certification standards, unless authorized by the competent authority of the State for a specific aerodrome or runway where there is no noise disturbance problem.

10.490 FLIGHT INTO KNOWN OR EXPECTED ICING (a) No person may takeoff an aircraft or continue to operate an aircraft en route

when the icing conditions are expected or encountered, without ensuring that the aircraft is certified for icing operations and has sufficient operational de-icing or anti-icing equipment.

(b) No person may takeoff an aircraft when frost, ice or snow is adhering to the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets or other critical surfaces of the aircraft which might adversely affect the performance or controllability of the aircraft.

(c) For commercial air transport operations, no person may takeoff an aircraft when conditions are such that frost, ice or snow may reasonably be expected to adhere to the aircraft, unless the procedures approved for the AOC holder by the Authority are followed to ensure ground de-icing and anti-icing is accomplished.

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10.493 AIRCRAFT OPERATING LIMITATIONS (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft within or over The Bahamas without

complying with the operating limitations specified in the approved AFM or RFM, markings and placards, or as otherwise prescribed by the certifying authority for the State of Registry.

10.495 ALTIMETER SETTINGS (a) Each person operating an aircraft shall maintain the cruising altitude or flight

level by reference to an altimeter set — (1) Below 18,000 ft MSL to —

(i) The current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 nautical miles of the aircraft;

(ii) The current report altimeter setting of a nearby station, if there is not a station along the route; or

(iii) In the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio the elevation of the departure aerodrome or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure; or

Note: This requirement does not apply when operating in airspace and on routes aircraft are required to use of 210.92” Hg below 18,000 MSL. (2) At or above 18 000 feet MSL to 210.92” Hg. See Appendix 1 to 10.495 for a table to determine the lowest usable flight level.

10.500 MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDES: GENERAL (a) Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an

aircraft below the following altitudes: (1) Anywhere. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, continuation of

flight or an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

(2) Over congested areas. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open-air assembly of persons, an altitude of 300m (1,000 feet) above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 600m (2,000 feet) of the aircraft.

(3) Over other than congested areas. An altitude of 150m (500 feet) above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas where the aircraft may not be operated closer than 150m (500 feet) to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

(4) Helicopters. Pilots of helicopters are not subject to the proximity restrictions provided they are operate in a manner that is not hazardous to persons and property on the surface. The PIC of a helicopter shall comply with any routes or altitudes for the area that are prescribed for helicopters by the Authority.

10.505 MINIMUM SAFE VFR ALTITUDES: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT OPERATIONS

(a) No person may operate an aeroplane in commercial air transport during the day, under VFR, at an altitude less than 1,000 feet above the surface or within 1,000 feet of any mountain, hill, or other obstruction to flight.

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(b) No person may operate an aeroplane in commercial air transport at night, under VFR, at an altitude less than 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of five miles from the centre of the intended course, or, in designated mountainous areas, less than 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of five miles from the centre of the intended course.

10.510 INSTRUMENT APPROACH OPERATING MINIMA (a) No person may operate to or from an aerodrome using operating minima

lower than those which may be established for that aerodrome by the State in which it is located, unless that State specifically approves that operation.

10.515 DIVERSION DECISION (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), the PIC shall land the aircraft at the

nearest suitable aerodrome at which a safe landing can be made whenever an engine of an aircraft fails or is shut down to prevent possible damage.

(b) If not more than one engine of an aeroplane having three or more engines fails, or its rotation is stopped, the PIC may proceed to an aerodrome if he or she decides that proceeding to that aerodrome is as safe as landing at the nearest suitable aerodrome after considering the — (1) Nature of the malfunction and the possible mechanical difficulties that

may occur if flight is continued; (2) Altitude, weight, and usable fuel at the time of engine stoppage; (3) Weather conditions en route and at possible landing points; (4) Air traffic congestion; (5) Kind of terrain; and (6) Familiarity with the aerodrome to be used.

10.520 OPERATING NEAR OTHER AIRCRAFT (a) No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a

collision hazard. (b) No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by

arrangement with the PIC of each aircraft in the formation. (c) No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in

formation flight. 10.525 RIGHT-OF·WAY RULES: EXCEPT WATER OPERATIONS (a) General.

(1) Each pilot shall maintain vigilance so as to see and avoid other aircraft; and

(2) When a rule of this subsection gives another aircraft the right-of-way, the pilot shall give way to that aircraft and may not pass over, under, or ahead of it unless well clear.

(b) In distress. An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic. (c) Converging.

(1) When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on, or nearly so), the aircraft to the other’s right has the right-of-way.

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(2) If the converging aircraft are of different categories — (i) A balloon has the right-of-way over any other category of aircraft;

(ii) A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, aeroplane, or rotorcraft; and

(iii) An airship has the right-of-way over an aeroplane or rotorcraft. (d) Towing or refuelling. An aircraft towing or refuelling other aircraft has the

right-of- way over all other engine-driven aircraft, except aircraft in distress. (e) Approaching head-on. When aircraft are approaching each other head-on,

or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the right. (f) Overtaking. Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-of-way and each

pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right to pass well clear. (g) Landing. Aircraft, while on final approach to land or while landing, have

the right-of-way over other aircraft in flight or operating on the surface. Note: The PIC may not take advantage of this rule to force an aircraft off the runway surface which has already landed and is attempting to make way for an aircraft on final approach.

(h) More than one landing aircraft. When two or more aircraft are approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way. Note: The PIC will not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft

10.530 RIGHT-OF-WAY RULES: WATER OPERATIONS (a) General. Each person operating an aircraft on the water shall, insofar as

possible, keep clear of all vessels and avoid impeding their navigation, and shall give way to any vessel or other aircraft that is given the right-of-way by any rule of this subsection.

(b) Crossing. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, are on crossing courses, the aircraft or vessel to the other’s right has the right-of-way.

(c) Approaching head-on. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel are approaching head-on or nearly so each shall alter its course to the right to keep well clear.

(d) Overtaking. Each aircraft or vessel that is being overtaken has the right-of- way, and the one overtaking shall alter course to keep well clear.

(e) Special circumstances. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, approach so as to involve risk of collision, each aircraft or vessel shall proceed with careful regard to existing circumstances, including the limitations of the respective craft.

10.535 USE OF AIRCRAFT LIGHTS (a) If an aircraft has red rotating beacon lights installed, the pilot shall switch

those lights on prior to starting engines and display those lights at all times the engines are running.

(b) No person may operate an aircraft between the period from sunset to sunrise unless — (1) It has lighted navigation lights; and

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(2) If anticollision lights are installed, those lights are lighted. Note: A pilot is permitted to switch off or reduce the intensity of any flashing lights if they do or are likely to adversely affect the satisfactory performance of duties or to subject an outside observer to harmful dazzle.

(c) No person may park or move an aircraft at night in, or in a dangerous proximity to, a movement area of an aerodrome, unless the aircraft — (1) Is clearly illuminated; (2) Has lighted navigation lights; or (3) Is in an area that is marked by obstruction lights.

(d) No person may anchor an aircraft unless that aircraft — (1) Has lighted anchor lights; or (2) Is in an area where anchor lights are not required on vessels.

10.540 SIMULATED INSTRUMENT FLIGHT (a) No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight unless —

(1) That aircraft has fully functioning dual controls; (2) The other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot who holds at least a

private pilot licence with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown; and

(3) The safety pilot has adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft, or a competent observer in the aircraft adequately supplements the vision of the safety pilot.

10.545 INFLIGHT SIMULATION: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT (a) No person may engage in simulated instrument flight conditions during

commercial air transport operations. (b) No person may simulate an abnormal or emergency situation during

commercial air transport operations. 10.550 DROPPING, SPRAYING, TOWING (a) Except under conditions prescribed by the Authority in Schedule 11, no pilot

may take the following actions — (1) Dropping, dusting or spraying from an aircraft; (2) Towing of aircraft or other objects; or (3) Allowing parachute descents.

10.555 AEROBATIC FLIGHT (a) No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight —

(1) Over any city, town or settlement; (2) Over an open air assembly of persons; (3) Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, C, D or

E airspace designated for an aerodrome; (4) Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface; or (5) When the flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.

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(b) No person may operate an aircraft in manoeuvres exceeding a bank of 60 degrees or pitch of 30 degrees from level flight attitude unless all occupants of the aircraft are wearing parachutes packed by a qualified parachute rigger in the past 12 calendar months.

10.560 FLIGHT TEST AREAS No person may flight-test an aircraft except over open water, or sparsely

populated areas having light traffic. 10.565 PROHIBITED AREAS AND RESTRICTED AREAS

No person may operate an aircraft in a danger area, restricted area or prohibited area, the particulars of which have been duly published, except in accordance with the conditions of the restrictions or by permission of the State over whose territory the areas are established. 10.570 OPERATIONS IN MNPS OR RVSM AIRSPACE (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft of Bahamian registry in the North

Atlantic airspace designated as MNPS airspace or in airspace designated as RVSM without a written authorisation issued by the Authority.

(b) No person may operate an aircraft in MNPS or RVSM airspace, except in accordance with the conditions of the procedures and restrictions required for this airspace. Note — See Schedule 7 for requirements regarding instruments and equipment required for operations in MNPS and RVSM airspace.

10.575 OPERATIONS ON OR IN THE VICINITY OF AN UNCONTROLLED AERODROME

(a) When approaching to land at an aerodrome without an operating control tower, each pilot of — (1) An aeroplane shall make all turns of that aeroplane to the left; or to the right, if appropriately indicated by the authorities having jurisdiction over that aerodrome; (2) A helicopter shall avoid the flow of aeroplanes.

(b) When departing an aerodrome without an operating control tower, each pilot of an aircraft shall comply with any traffic patterns established by the authorities having jurisdiction over that aerodrome.

(c) Each pilot of an aircraft shall land and takeoff into the wind unless safety, the runway configurations, or traffic considerations determine that a different direction is preferable. See Appendix 1 to 10.575 for the appropriate displays of light signals or visual markings.

10.580 AERODROME TRAFFIC PATTERN ALTITUDES: TURBOJET, TURBOFAN, OR LARGE AIRCRAFT

(a) When arriving at an aerodrome, the PIC of a turbojet, turbofan, or large aircraft shall enter the traffic pattern at least 1,500 feet AGL until further descent is required for landing.

(b) When departing the PIC of a turbojet turbofan or large aircraft shall climb to 1,500 feet AGL as rapidly as practicable.

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10.585 COMPLIANCE WITH VISUAL AND ELECTRONIC GLIDE SLOPES (a) The PIC of an aeroplane approaching to land on a runway served by a

visual approach slope indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

(b) The PIC of a turbojet, turbofan, or large aeroplane approaching to land on a runway served by an ILS shall fly that aeroplane at or above the glide slope from the point of interception to the middle marker.

10.590 RESTRICTION OR SUSPENSION OF OPERATIONS: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) If a PIC or an AOC holder knows of conditions including aerodrome and runway conditions, that are a hazard to safe operations, that person shall restrict or suspend all commercial air transport operations to such aerodromes and runways as necessary until those conditions are corrected.

10.595 CONTINUATION OF FLIGHT COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT (a) No PIC may continue a flight toward a destination aerodrome unless the

latest available information indicates that the weather at the estimated time of arrival at that the aerodrome or the alternate aerodrome will allow an approach and landing in accordance with the operating minima contained in the operations specifications.

(b) No PIC may allow a flight to continue toward any aerodrome of intended landing where commercial air transport operations have been restricted or suspended, unless — (1) In the opinion of the PIC, the conditions that are a hazard to safe

operations may reasonably be expected to be corrected by the estimated time of arrival; or

(2) There is no safer procedure. 10.600 INTERCEPTION (a) When intercepted by a military or government aircraft, each PIC shall

comply with the international standards when interpreting and responding to visual signals as specified in the implementing standards. See Appendix 1 to 10.600 for signals applicable to interception.

SUBPART I OPERATIONS IN CONTROLLED FLIGHT

10.605 ATC CLEARANCES (a) Each PIC shall obtain an ATC clearance prior to operating a controlled

flight, or a portion of a flight as a controlled flight. (b) Each PIC shall request an ATC clearance through the submission of a flight

plan to an ATC facility. (c) Whenever an aircraft has requested a clearance involving priority, each PIC

shall submit a report explaining the necessity for such priority, if requested by the appropriate ATC facility.

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(d) No person operating an aircraft on a controlled aerodrome may taxi on the manoeuvring area or any runway without clearance from the aerodrome control tower.

10.610 ADHERENCE TO ATC CLEARANCES (a) When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no PIC may deviate from the

clearance, except in an emergency, unless he or she obtains an amended clearance. Note: A flight plan may cover only part of a flight, as necessary, to describe that portion of the flight or those manoeuvres which are subject to air traffic control. A clearance may cover only part of a current flight plan, as indicated in a clearance limit or by reference to specific manoeuvres such as taxiing, landing or taking off. Note: Paragraph (a) does not prohibit a pilot from cancelling an IFR clearance when operating in VMC conditions or cancelling a controlled flight clearance when operating in airspace that does not required controlled flight.

(b) When operating in airspace requiring controlled flight, no PIC may operate contrary to ATC instructions, except in an emergency.

(c) Each PIC who deviates from an ATC clearance or instructions in an emergency, shall notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible.

10.615 COMMUNICATIONS (a) Each person operating an aircraft on a controlled flight shall maintain a

continuous listening watch on the appropriate radio frequency of, and establish two-way communication as required with, the appropriate ATC facility. Note: More specific procedures may be prescribed by the appropriate ATC authority in respect of aircraft forming part of aerodrome traffic at a controlled aerodrome. Note: Automatic signalling devices may be used to satisfy the requirement to maintain a continuous listening watch authorised by the Authority.

10.620 ROUTE TO BE FLOWN (a) Unless otherwise authorised or directed by the appropriate ATC facility, the PIC

of a controlled flight shall in so far as practicable — (1) When on an established ATC route, operate along the defined centre

line of that route; or (2) When on any other route, operate directly between the navigation

facilities and/or points defining that route. (b) The PIC of a controlled flight operating along an ATC route defined by

reference to VORs shall change over for primary navigation guidance from the facility behind the aircraft to that ahead of it at, or as close as operationally feasible to, the change-over point, where established. Note: These requirements do not prohibit manoeuvring the aircraff to pass well clear of other air traffic or the manoeuvring of the aircraft in VFR conditions to clear the intended flight path both before and during climb or descent.

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10.625 INADVERTENT CHANGES (a) A PIC shall take the following action in the event that a controlled flight

inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan: (1) Deviation from track. If the aircraft is off track, the PIC shall adjust

the heading of the aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable. (2) Variation in true airspeed. Each PIC shall inform the appropriate

ATC facility if the average true airspeed at cruising level between reporting points varies from that given in the flight plan or is expected to vary by plus or minus 5 percent of the true airspeed.

(3) Change in time estimate. Each PIC shall notify the appropriate ATC facility and give a revised estimated time given as soon as possible if the time estimate for a reporting point, flight information region boundary, or destination aerodrome, whichever comes first, is found to be in excess of three minutes from that notified to ATC, or such other period of time as is prescribed by the appropriate ATC authority or on the basis of air navigation regional agreements.

10.630 ATC CLEARANCE: INTENDED CHANGES (a) Requests for flight plan changes shall include the following information:

(1) Change of cruising level. Aircraft identification, requested new cruising level and cruising speed at this level, and revised time estimates, when applicable, at subsequent flight information region boundaries.

(2) Change of route — (i) Destination unchanged. Aircraft identification, flight rules;

description of new route of flight including related flight plan data beginning with the position from which requested change of route is to commence; revised time estimates, and any other pertinent information.

(ii) Destination change. Aircraft identification; flight rules; description of revised route of flight to revised destination aerodrome including related flight plan data, beginning with the position from which requested change of route is to commence; revised time estimates; alternate aerodrome(s); any other pertinent information.

10.635 POSITION REPORTS (a) Each pilot of a controlled flight shall report to the appropriate ATC facility,

as soon as possible, the time and level of passing each designated compulsory reporting point, together with any other required information, unless exempted from this requirement by the appropriate ATC authority.

(b) Each pilot of a controlled flight shall make position reports in relation to additional points or intervals when requested by the appropriate ATC facility

10.640 OPERATIONS ON OR IN THE VICINITY OF A CONTROLLED AERODROME

(a) No person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an aerodrome having an operational control tower unless two-way communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower.

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(b) On arrival, each PIC shall establish communications required by paragraph (a) prior to 4 nautical miles from the aerodrome when operating from the surface up to and including 2,500 feet.

(c) On departure, each PIC shall establish communications with the control tower prior to taxi.

(d) Takeoff, landing, taxi clearance. No person may, at any aerodrome with an operating control tower, operate an aircraft on a runway or taxiway or takeoff or land an aircraft, unless an appropriate clearance has been received by ATC. Note: A clearance to taxi to the takeoff runway is not a clearance to cross or taxi on to that runway. It does authorise the PIC to cross other runways during the taxi to the assigned runway. A clearance to “taxi to” any other point on the aerodrome is a clearance to cross all runways that intersect the taxi route to the assigned point.

(e) Communications failure. If the radio fails or two-way communication is lost, a PIC may continue a VFR flight operation and land if — (1) The weather conditions are at or above basic VFR minimums; and (2) Clearance to land is received by light signals. Note: During IFR operations, the two-way communications failure procedures will apply.

10.645 UNLAWFUL INTERFERENCE (a) A PIC shall, when and if possible, notify the appropriate ATC facility when

an aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference including — (1) Any significant circumstances associated with the unlawful

interference; and (2) Any deviation from the current flight plan necessitated by the

circumstances. 10.650 TIME CHECKS (a) Each PIC shall use Co-ordinated Universal Time (UTC), expressed in hours

and minutes of the 24-hour day beginning at midnight, in flight operations. (b) Each PIC shall obtain a time check prior to operating a controlled flight and

at such other times during the flight as may be necessary. 10.655 UNIVERSAL SIGNALS (a) Upon observing or receiving any of the designated universal aviation

signals, each person operating an aircraft shall take such action as may be required by the interpretation of the signal.

(b) Universal signals shall have only the meanings designated. (c) Each person using universal signals in the movement of aircraft shall only

use them for the purpose indicated. (d) No person may use signals likely to cause confusion with universal aviation

signals. See Appendix 1 to 10.655 for a list of universal aviation signals.

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SUBPART J VFR FLIGHT RULES

10.660 VISUAL METEOROLOGICAL CONDITIONS (a) No person may operate an aircraft under VFR when the flight visibility is

less than, or at a distance from the clouds that is less than that prescribed, or the corresponding altitude and class of airspace in the following table —

Airspace and VMC Minimums Airspace Class B C D E F G Above 900 m

(3,000 ft) MSL or above 300 m

At and below 900 m (3,000 ft) MSL or 300m (1,000 ft) above terrain, whichever is the higher

Distance from cloud

Clear of cloud 1,500 m horizontally 300 m (1,000 ft) vertically

Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface

Flight visibility 8 km at and above 3,050 in (10,000 ft) MSL km below 3,050 m (10,000 ft) MSL

5 km

When the height of the transition altitude is lower than 3,050 — (10,000 ft) AMSL, FL 100 should be used in lieu of 10,000 ft.

10.665 VFR WEATHER MINIMUMS FOR TAKEOFF AND LANDING (a) No person may enter the traffic pattern, land or takeoff an aircraft under VFR

from an aerodrome located in Class B, Class C, Class D or Class airspace unless the — (1) Reported ceiling is at least 1,000 feet; and (2) Reported ground visibility is at least 3 statute miles if reported.

(b) If the ground visibility is not reported, the pilot shall maintain 3 statute miles flight visibility.

(c) Class G Airspace. No person may enter the traffic pattern, land or takeoff an aircraft under VFR from an aerodrome located in Class G airspace below 1,200 AGL unless — (1) For aeroplanes. The visibility is at least 1 statute mile and the aircraft

can be operated clear of clouds within one-half mile of the runway; or (2) For helicopters. The helicopter can be operated clear of clouds at a

speed that allows the pilot adequate opportunity to see any air traffic or obstruction in time to avoid a collision.

Note: The only exception to the required weather minimums of this subsection is during a Special VFR operation.

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10.670 SPECIAL VFR OPERATIONS (a) No person may conduct a Special VFR flight operation to enter the traffic

pattern, land or takeoff an aircraft under Special VFR from an aerodrome located in Class B, Class C, Class D or Class airspace unless — (1) Authorised by an ATC clearance; (2) The aircraft remains clear of clouds; and (3) The flight visibility is at least 1 statute mile.

(b) No person may conduct a Special VFR flight operation in an aircraft between sunset and sunrise unless the — (1) The PIC is current and qualified for IFR operations; and (2) The aircraft is qualified to be operated for IFR flight.

10.675 VFR CRUISING ALTITUDES (a) Each person operating an aircraft in level cruising flight under VFR at

altitudes above 900 m (3,000 ft) from the ground or water, shall maintain: (1) For magnetic courses from zero degrees to 179 degrees, any odd thousand

MSL altitude or flight level plus 500 feet (such as 3,500, 5,500 or FL 215). (2) For magnetic courses from 180 degrees to 359 degrees, any even thousand

MSL attitude or flight level plus 500 feet (such as 4,500, 6,500 or FL 225). Paragraph (a) does not apply when otherwise authorised by ATC, when operating in a holding pattern, or during manoeuvring in turns.

10.680 ATC CLEARANCES FOR VFR FLIGHTS (a) Each pilot of a VFR flight shall obtain and comply with ATC clearances and

maintain a listening watch before and during operations — (1) Within Classes B, C and D airspace; (2) As part of aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes; and (3) Under Special VFR.

10.685 VFR FLIGHTS REQUIRING ATC AUTHORISATION (a) Unless authorised by the appropriate ATC authority, no pilot may operate in

VFR flight — (1) Above FL 200; or (2) At transonic and supersonic speeds. Note: ATC authorisation for VFR flights may not be granted in areas where a vertical separation minimum of only 300 m (1,000 ft) applied above FL 290.

10.690 WEATHER DETERIORATION BELOW VMC (a) Each pilot of a VFR flight operated as a controlled flight shall, when he or she

finds it is not practical or possible to maintain flight in VMC in accordance with the ATC flight plan — (1) Request an amended clearance enabling the aircraft to continue in VMC

to its destination or to an alternative aerodrome, or to leave the airspace within which an ATC clearance is required;

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(2) If no clearance can be obtained, continue to operate in VMC and notify the appropriate ATC facility of the action being taken either to leave the airspace concerned or to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome;

(3) Operating within a control zone, request authorisation to operate as a special VFR flight; or

(4) Request clearance to operate in IFR, if currently rated for IFR operations.

10.695 CHANGING FROM VFR TO IFR (a) Each pilot operating in VFR who wishes to change to IFR shall —

(1) If a flight plan was submitted, communicate the necessary changes to be effected to its current flight plan; or

(2) Submit a flight plan to the appropriate ATC facility and obtain a clearance prior to proceeding IFR when in controlled airspace.

10.700 TWO-WAY RADIO COMMUNICATION FAILURE IN VFR (a) If radio failure occurs in VFR while under ATC control, or if VFR conditions

are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall — (1) Continue the flight under VFR; (2) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome; and (3) Report arrival to ATC by the most expeditious means possible.

SUBPART K IFR FLIGHT RULES

10.703 APPLICABLILITY (a) The IFR rules of this Subpart are applicable in The Bahamas. (b) The holders of airman certificates issued by The Bahamas will comply with

these rules when flying outside the Bahamas, except where these rules may differ with the other State, in which case compliance with the rules of the State being overflown is required.

10.705 IFR IN CONTROLLED AIRSPACE (a) No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that

person has — (1) Filed an IFR flight plan; and (2) Received an appropriate ATC clearance.

10.710 IFR FLIGHTS OUTSIDE CONTROLLED AIRSPACE (a) Each PIC of an IFR flight operating outside controlled airspace but within

or into areas, or along routes, designated by the appropriate ATC authority, shall maintain a listening watch on the appropriate radio frequency and establish two-way communication, as necessary, with the ATC facility providing flight information service.

(b) Each PIC of an IFR flight operating outside controlled airspace for which the appropriate ATC authority requires a flight plan, a listening watch on the appropriate radio frequency and establishment of two-way communication, as necessary, with the ATC facility providing flight information service, shall report position as specified for controlled flights.

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10.715 IFR TAKEOFF MINIMUMS FOR COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT (a) Unless otherwise approved by the Authority, no pilot operating an aircraft in

commercial air transport operations may accept a clearance to take off from a civil aerodrome under IFR unless weather conditions are at or above — (1) For aircraft, other than helicopters, having two engines or less — 1

statute mile visibility. (2) For aircraft having more than two engines — ½ statute mile visibility. (3) For helicopters — ½ statute mile visibility.

10.720 MINIMUM ALTITUDES FOR IFR OPERATIONS (a) Operation of aircraft at minimum altitudes. Except when necessary for takeoff or

lading, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below — (1) The applicable minimum altitudes prescribed by the authorities having

jurisdiction over the airspace being overflown; or (2) If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed by the authorities —

(i) Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 600 in (2,000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft; and

(ii) Elsewhere than as specified in paragraph (a), at a level which is at least 300 in (1,000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.

(3) If an MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a particular route or route segment, a person may operate an aircraft below the MEA down to, but not below, the MOCA, when within 22 nautical miles of the VOR concerned.

(b) Climb for obstacle clearance. (1) If unable to communicate with ATC, each pilot shall climb to a higher

minimum IFR altitude immediately after passing the point beyond which that minimum altitude applies.

(2) If ground obstructions intervene, each pilot shall climb to a point beyond which that higher minimum altitude applies, at or above the applicable MCA.

10.725 MINIMUM ALTITUDES FOR USE OF AN AUTOPILOT (a) For en route operations, no person may use an autopilot at an altitude above

the terrain that is less than 500 feet. Note: If the maximum altitude loss specified in the AFM for a malfunction under cruise conditions when multiplied by two is more than 500 feet, then it becomes the controlling minimum altitude for use of the autopilot.

(b) For instrument approach operations, no person may use an autopilot at an altitude above the terrain that is less than 50 feet below the MDA or DH. Note: If the maximum altitude loss specified in the AFM for a malfunction under approach conditions when multiplied by two is more than 50 feet then it becomes the controlling minimum altitude for use of the autopilot.

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(c) For Category III approaches, the Authority may approve the use of a flight control guidance system with automatic capability to touchdown.

10.730 IFR CRUISING ALTITUDE OR FLIGHT LEVEL IN CONTROLLED AIRSPACE

(a) Each person operating an aircraft under IFR in level cruising flight in controlled airspace shall maintain the altitude or flight level assigned that aircraft by ATC.

(b) If the ATC clearance assigns VFR conditions on-top each person shall maintain a VFR cruising altitude in VMC. Note: The requirements for VFR cruising altitudes are in 0.

10.735 IFR CRUISING ALTITUDE OR FLIGHT LEVEL IN UNCONTROLLED AIRSPACE

(a) Each person operating an aircraft in level cruising flight under IMC at altitudes above 900 m (3,000 ft) from the ground or water, shall maintain — (1) For magnetic courses from zero degrees to 179 degrees any odd

thousand MSL altitude or flight level, such as 5,000, 7,000, or FL 210; and

(2) For magnetic courses from 180 degrees to 359 degrees any even thousand MSL altitude or flight level, such as 4,000, 6,000 or FL 220.

(b) A person may deviate from the cruising altitudes specified in paragraph (a) only when — (1) Authorised by ATC; (2) Operating in a holding pattern; or (3) Manoeuvring in turns.

10.740 IFR RADIO COMMUNICATIONS (a) Each PIC of an aircraft operated under IFR in controlled airspace shall have a

continuous watch maintained on the appropriate frequency and shall report by radio as soon as possible — (1) The time and altitude of passing each designated reporting point, or

the reporting points specified by ATC, except that while the aircraft is under radar control, only the passing of those reporting points specifically requested by ATC need be reported;

(2) Any unforecast weather conditions encountered; and (3) Any other information relating to the safety of flight, such as

hazardous weather or abnormal radio station indications. 10.745 OPERATION UNDER IFR IN CONTROLLED AIRSPACE:

MALFUNCTION REPORTS (a) The PIC of each aircraft operated in controlled airspace under IFR shall

report as soon as practical to ATC any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communication equipment occurring in flight.

(b) In each report specified in paragraph (a), the PIC shall include the — (1) Aircraft identification; (2) Equipment affected;

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(3) Degree to which the capability of the pilot to operate under IFR in the ATC system is impaired; and

(4) Nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC. 10.750 CONTINUATION OF IFR FLIGHT TOWARD A DESTINATION (a) No pilot may continue an IFR flight toward an aerodrome or heliport of

intended landing, unless the latest available meteorological information indicates that the conditions at that aerodrome, or at least one destination alternate aerodrome will, at the expected time of arrival, be at or above the specified instrument approach minima.

10.755 INSTRUMENT APPROACHES TO CIVIL AERODROMES (a) Each person operating an civil aircraft shall use a standard instrument

approach procedure prescribed by the State having jurisdiction over the aerodrome, unless otherwise authorised by the Authority.

(b) Authorised DH or MDA. For the purpose of this section, when the approach procedure being used provides for and requires the use of a DH or MDA, the authorised DH or MDA is the highest of the following: (1) The DH or MDA prescribed by the approach procedure. (2) The DH or MDA prescribed for the PIC. (3) The DH or MDA for which the aircraft is equipped.

10.757 APPROVAL REQUIRED: CATEGORY II OR III APPROACHES (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft of Bahamian registry or under a

Bahamian AOC to the instrument approach minimums for Category II or III approaches without the written approval of the Authority.

10.760 INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURES AND IFR LANDING MINIMUMS

(a) No person may make an instrument approach at an airport except in accordance with IFR weather minimums and the published instrument approach procedures.

(b) Adequate landing and rollout Runway Visual Range (RVR) information shall be available for all — (1) Takeoff, approach and landing operations with reported visibility less

than 2,400 feet; and (2) Category II and III approaches.

10.765 COMMENCING AN INSTRUMENT APPROACH: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) In commercial air transport operations, no pilot may continue an approach past the final approach fix, or where a final approach fix is not used, begin the final approach segment of an instrument approach procedure, at any aerodrome unless — (1) A source approved by the Authority issues a weather report for that

aerodrome; and (2) The latest weather report for that aerodrome reports the visibility to be

equal to or more than the visibility minimums prescribed for that procedure.

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(b) If a pilot begins the final approach segment of an instrument approach procedure and subsequently receives a weather report indicating below- minimum conditions, the pilot may continue the approach to DH or MDA. Note: For the purpose of this subsection, the final approach segment begins at the final approach fix or facility prescribed in the instrument approach procedure. When a final approach fix is not prescribed for a procedure that includes a procedure turn, the final approach segment begins at the point where the procedure turn is completed and the aircraft is established inbound toward the aerodrome on the final approach course within the distance prescribed in the procedure.

10.770 OPERATION BELOW DH OR MDA (a) Where a DH or MDA is applicable, no pilot may operate a civil aircraft at any

aerodrome or heliport below the authorised MDA, or continue an approach below the authorised DH unless — (1) The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a

landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal manoeuvres;

(2) For commercial air transport operations, a descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing;

(3) The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used; and

(4) At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot — (i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not

descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable;

(ii) The threshold; (iii) The threshold markings; (iv) Threshold lights; (v) The runway end identifier lights;

(vi) The visual approach slope indicator; (vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings;

(viii) The touchdown zone lights; (ix) The runway or runway markings; or (x) The runway lights.

Note: These visual references do not apply to Category II and III operations. The required visual references under Category II and III operations are provided in the AOC holder’s operations specifications or a special authorisation prescribed by the Authority.

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10.775 LANDING DURING INSTRUMENT METEOROLOGICAL CONDITIONS

(a) No pilot operating a civil aircraft may land that aircraft when the flight visibility is less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used.

10.780 EXECUTION OF A MISSED APPROACH PROCEDURE (a) Each pilot operating a civil aircraft shall immediately execute an appropriate

missed approach procedure when either of the following conditions exist: (1) Whenever the required visual reference criteria is not met in the

following situations: (i) When the aircraft is being operated below MDA; or

(ii) Upon arrival at the missed approach point, including a DH where a DH is specified and its use is required, and at any time after that until touchdown.

(2) Whenever an identifiable part of the aerodrome is not distinctly visible to the pilot during a circling manoeuvre at or above MDA, unless the inability to see an identifiable part of the aerodrome results only from a normal bank of the aircraft during the circling approach.

10.785 CHANGE FROM IFR FLIGHT TO VFR FLIGHT (a) An pilot electing to change from IFR flight to VFR flight shall notify the

appropriate ATC facility specifically that the IFR flight is cancelled and then communicate the changes to be made to his or her current flight plan.

(b) When a pilot operating under IFR encounters VMC, he or she may not cancel the IFR flight unless it is anticipated, and intended, that the flight will be continued for a reasonable period of time in uninterrupted VMC.

10.790 TWO-WAY RADIO COMMUNICATIONS FAILURE IN IFR (a) If two-way radio communication failure occurs in IFR conditions, or if

continued flight in VFR is judged not feasible, each pilot shall continue the flight according to the following: (1) Route —

(i) By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received; (ii) If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio

failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance;

(iii) In the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance; or

(iv) In the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan.

(2) Altitude. At the highest of the following altitudes or flight levels for the route segment being flown —

(i) The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance received;

(ii) The minimum altitude (converted, if appropriate, to minimum flight level for IFR operations); or

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(iii) The altitude or flight level ATC advised may be expected in a further clearance.

(3) Leave clearance limit. (i) When the clearance limit is at a fix from which an approach begins,

commence descent or descent and approach — (A) As close as possible to the expect-further-clearance time if

one has been received; or (B) If one has not been received, as close as possible to the

estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route.

(ii) If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins — (A) Leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance

time if one has been received, or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit;

(B) Proceed to a fix from which an approach begins, and (C) Commence descent or descent and approach as close as

possible to the ETA as calculated from the filed or amended with ATC estimated time en route.

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APPENDICES

APPENDIX 1 TO 10.035 INOPERATIVE INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT

(a) This implementing standard authorises flight operations with inoperative instruments and equipment installed in situations where no master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is available and no MEL is required for the specific aircraft operation under these Schedule.

(b) The inoperative instruments and equipment may not be — (1) Part of the VFR-day instruments and equipment prescribed in

Schedule 7; (2) Required on the aircraft’s equipment list or the operations equipment

list for the kind of flight operation being conducted; (3) Required by Schedule 7 for the specific kind of flight operation being

conducted; or (4) Required to be operational by an airworthiness directive.

(c) To be eligible for these provisions, the inoperative instruments and equipment shall be — (1) Determined by the PIC not to be a hazard to safe operation; (2) Deactivated and placarded Inoperative; and Note: If deactivation of the inoperative instrument or equipment involves maintenance, it must be accomplished and recorded in accordance with Schedule 5. (3) Removed from the aircraft, the flight deck control placarded and the

maintenance recorded in accordance with Schedule 5. (d) The following instruments and equipment may not be included in the MEL:

(1) Instruments and equipment that are either specifically or otherwise required by the certification airworthiness requirements and which are essential for safe operations under all operating conditions.

(2) Instruments and equipment required for operable condition by an airworthiness directive, unless the airworthiness directive provides otherwise.

(3) Instruments and equipment required for specific operations. Note: The required instruments and equipment for specific operations are listed in Schedule 7.

APPENDIX 1 TO 10.175 USE OF NARCOTICS, DRUGS OR INTOXICATING LIQUOR

(a) Whenever there is a reasonable basis to believe that a person may not be in compliance with 10.175 and upon the request of the Authority, that person shall furnish the Authority or authorise any clinic, doctor, or other person to release to the Authority, the results of each blood test taken for presence of alcohol or narcotic substances up to 8 hours before or immediately after acting or attempting to act as a crew members.

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(b) Any test information provided to the Authority under the provisions of this section may be used as evidence in any legal proceeding.

APPENDIX 1 TO 10.185 FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS AT DUTY STATIONS

(a) A required flight crew member may leave the assigned duty station if the crew member is taking a rest period, and relief is provided — (1) For the assigned PIC during the en route cruise portion of the flight by

a pilot who holds an airline transport pilot licence and an appropriate type rating, and who is currently qualified as PIC or SIC, and is qualified as PIC of that aircraft during the en route cruise portion of the flight; and

(2) In the case of the assigned SIC, by a pilot qualified to act as PIC or SIC of that aircraft during en route operations.

APPENDIX 1 TO 10.400 DETERMINATION OF FLIGHT PLANNING SPEED — ETOPS

(b) An AOC holder shall determine a speed for the calculation of the maximum distance to an adequate aerodrome for each two-engined aeroplane type or variant operated, not exceeding Vmo based upon the true airspeed that the aeroplane can maintain with one-engine-inoperative under the following conditions: (1) International Standard Atmosphere; (2) Level flight:

(i) For turbine engined powered aeroplanes at:

(A) FL 170; or (B) At the maximum flight level to which the aeroplane, with one

engine inoperative, can climb, and maintain, using the gross rate of climb specified in the AFM, whichever is less.

(ii) For propeller driven aeroplanes: (A) FL 80; or (B) At the maximum flight level to which the aeroplane, with one

engine inoperative, can climb, and maintain, using the gross rate of climb specified in the AFM, whichever is less.

(3) Maximum continuous thrust or power on the remaining operating engine;

(4) An aeroplane mass not less than that resulting from: (i) Take-off at sea-level at maximum take-off mass until the time

elapsed since take-off is equal to the applicable threshold prescribed in paragraph (a);

(ii) All engines climb to the optimum long range cruise altitude until the time elapsed since take-off is equal to the applicable threshold prescribed in subparagraph (a); and

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(iii) All engines cruise at the long range cruise speed at this altitude until the time elapsed since take-off is equal to the applicable threshold prescribed in paragraph (a).

(c) An AOC holder shall ensure that the following data, specific to each type or variant, is included in the Operations Manual: (1) The one-engine-inoperative cruise speed determined in accordance

with paragraph (b); and (2) The maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome determined in

accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b). Note: The speeds and altitudes (flight levels) specified above are only intended to be used for establishing the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome.

APPENDIX 1 TO 10.410 ETOPS ALTERNATE PLANNING

Type of Approach Planning Minima (RVR/visibility required & ceiling, if applicable)

Aerodrome with at least 2 separate approach procedures based on 2 separate aids serving 2 separate runways (See note 1)

at least 2 separate approach procedures based on 2 separate aids serving 1 runway or, at least 1 approach procedure based on 1 aid serving 1 runway

Precision Approach Cat II, III (ILS, MLS)

Precision Approach Cat I Minima

Non-Precision Approach Minima

Precision Approach Cat I (ILS, MLS)

Non-Precision Approach Minima

Circling minima or, if not available, non-precision approach minima plus 200 ft/1000m

Non-Precision Approach

The lower of non-precision approach minima plus 200 ft/1000 m or circling minima

The higher of non-precision approach minima plus 200 ft/1000 m or circling minima

Circling Approach Circling Minima

Note 1: Runways on the same aerodrome are considered to be separate runways when they are separate landing surfaces which may overlay or cross such that it one of the runways is blocked, if will not prevent the planned type of operations on the other runway and each of the landing surfaces has a separate approach based on a separate aid.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 10.495 ALTIMETER SETTINGS

The lowest usable flight level is determined by the atmospheric pressure in the area of operation as shown in the following table.

Current Altimeter Setting Lowest Usable Flight Level 210.92 (or higher) 180 210.91 through 210.42 185 210.41 through 28.92 190 28.91 through 28.42 195 28.41 through 27.92 200 27.91 through 27.42 205 27.41 through 26.92 210

APPENDIX 1 TO 10.600 UNIVERSAL INTERCEPTION SIGNALS

INTERCEPTION OF CIVIL AIRCRAFT

1 Principles to be observed by States 1.1 To achieve the uniformity in regulations which is necessary for the safety of navigation of civil aircraft due regard shall be had by Contracting States to the following principles when developing regulations and administrative directives: (a) Interception of civil aircraft will be undertaken only as a last resort; (b) If undertaken, an interception will be limited to determining the identity of the

aircraft, unless it is necessary to return the aircraft to its planned track, direct it beyond the boundaries of national airspace, guide it away from a prohibited, restricted or danger area or instruct it to effect a landing at a designated aerodrome;

(c) Practice interception of civil aircraft will not be undertaken; (d) Navigational guidance and related information will be given to an intercepted

aircraft by radiotelephony, whenever radio contact can be established; and (e) In the cast where an intercepted civil aircraft is required to land in the territory

overflown, the aerodrome designated for the landing is to be suitable for the safe landing of the aircraft type concerned.

Note: In the unanimous adoption by the 25th Session (Extraordinary) of the ICAO Assembly on 10 may 1984 of Article 3 is to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, the Contracting States have recognised that “every State must refrain from resorting to the use of weapons against civil aircraft in flight”. 1.2 Contracting States shall publish a standard method that has been established for the manoeuvring of aircraft intercepting a civil aircraft. Such method shall be designed to avoid any hazard for the intercepted aircraft.

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1.3 Contracting States shall ensure that provision is made for the use of secondary surveillance radar, A here available, to identify civil aircraft in areas where they may be subject to interception. 2 Action by intercepted aircraft 2.1 An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately: (a) Follow the instructions given by the intercepting aircraft, interpreting and

responding to visual signals in accordance with the specifications in Appendix 1:

(b) Notify if possible the appropriate air traffic services unit; (c) Attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft or with

the appropriate intercept control unit by making a general call on the emergency frequency 121.5 MHz, giving the identity of the intercepted aircraft and the nature of the flight; and if no contact has been established and if practicable, repeating this call on the emergency frequency 243 MHz;

(d) If equipped with SSR transponder, select Mode A, Code 7700, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic services unit.

2.2 If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the intercepted aircraft shall request immediate clarification while continuing to comply with the visual instructions given by the intercepting aircraft. 2.3 If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by radio, the intercepted aircraft shall request immediate clarification while continuing to comply with the radio instructions given by the intercepting aircraft.

(d) Radio communication during interception: (1) If radio contact is established during interception but communication

in a common language is not possible, attempts shall be made to convey instructions, acknowledgement of instructions and essential information by using the phrases and pronunciations in the table below and transmitting each phrase twice:

Phrases for use by INTERCEPTING aircraft Phrases for use by INTERCEPTED aircraft Phrase Pronunciation1 Meaning Phrase Pronunciation Meaning CALL SIGN FOLLOW DESCEND YOU LAND PROCEED

KOL SA-IN FOL-LO DEE-SEND YOU LAAND PRO-SEED

What is your call sign? Follow me Descend for landing Land at this aerodrome You may proceed

CALL SIGN (call sign)2 WILCO CAN NOT REPEAT AM LOST MAYDAY HIJACK LAND (place name) DESCEND

KOL SA-IN (call sign) VILL-KO KANN NOTT REE-PEET AM LOSST MAYDAY HI-JACK3 LAAND (place name) DEE-SEND

My call sign is (call sign) Understood Will comply Unable to comply Repeat your instruction Position unknown I am in distress I have been hijacked I request to land at (place name) I require descent

1 In the second column, syllables to be emphasised are underlined. 2 The call sign required to be given is that used in radiotelephone, communications with air traffic services units and corresponding to the aircraft identification in the flight plan. 3 Circumstances may not always permit, nor make desirable, the use of the phrase “HIJACK”.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 10.655 UNIVERSAL AVIATION SIGNALS

(a) Distress signals. The following signals, used either together or separately, mean that grave and imminent danger threatens, and immediate assistance is requested: Note: None of the provisions in this section shall prevent the use, by an aircraft in distress, of any means at its disposal to attract attention, make known its position and obtain help. Note: For full details of telecommunication transmission procedures for the distress and urgency signals, see ICAO Annex 10, Volume II, Chapter 5. Note: For details of the search and rescue visual signals, see ICAO Annex 12. (1) A signal made by radiotelegraphy or by any other signalling method

consisting of the group SOS ( • • • – – – • • • in the Morse Code); (2) A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY; (3) Rockets or shells throwing red lights, fired one at a time at short intervals; (4) A parachute flare showing a red light. Note: Article 41 of the ITU Radio Schedule (Nos. 3268, 3270 and 3271 refer) provides information on the alarm signals for actuating radiotelegraph and radiotelephone auto-alarm systems: 3268 The radiotelegraph alarm signal consists of a series of twelve dashes sent in one minute, the duration of each dash being four seconds and the duration of the interval between consecutive dashes one second. It may be transmitted by hand but its transmission by means of an automatic instrument is recommended. 3270 The radiotelephone alarm signal consists of two substantially sinusoidal audio frequency tones transmitted alternately. One tone shall have a frequency of 2 200 Hz and the other a frequency of 1 300 Hz, the duration of each tone being 250 milliseconds. 3271 The radiotelephone alarm signal, when generated by automatic means, shall be sent continuously for a period of at least thirty seconds but not exceeding one minute; when generated by other means, the signal shall be sent as continuously as practicable over a period of approximately one minute.

(b) The following signals, used either together or separately, mean that an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance: (1) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights; or (2) The repeated switching on and off of the navigation lights in such

manner as to be distinct from flashing navigation lights. (c) The following signals, used either together or separately, mean that an

aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight: (1) A signal made by radiotelegraphy or by any other signalling method

consisting of the group XXX. (2) A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN,

PAN.

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(d) The following signals shall be used in the event of interception: (1) Signals initiated by intercepting aircraft and responses by intercepted

aircraft. Series INTERCEPTING Aircraft Signals Meaning INTERCEPTED

Aircraft Responds Meaning

1 DAY or NIGHT — Rocking aircraft and flashing navigational lights at irregular intervals (and landing lights in the case of a helicopter) from a position slightly above and ahead of, and normally to the left of, the intercepted aircraft (or to the right if the intercepted aircraft is a helicopter) and, after acknowledgement, a slow level turn, normally to the left, (or to the right in the case of a helicopter) on the desired heading.

You have been intercepted. Follow me.

DAY or NIGHT — Rocking aircraft flashing navigational lights at irregular intervals and following.

Understood, will comply.

Note 1 — Meteorological conditions or terrain may require the intercepting aircraft to reverse the positions and direction of turn given above in Series 1.

Note 2 — If the intercepting aircraft is not able to keep pace with the intercepting aircraft, the latter is expected to fly a series of race-track patterns and to rock the aircraft each time it passes the intercepted aircraft

2 DAY or NIGHT — An abrupt break-away manoeuvre from the intercepted aircraft consisting of a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.

You may proceed.

DAY or NIGHT — Rocking the aircraft.

Understood, will comply.

3 DAY or NIGHT — Lowering landing gear (if fitted), showing steady landing lights and overflying runway in use or, if the intercepted aircraft is a helicopter, overflying the helicopter landing area. In the case of helicopters, the intercepting helicopter makes a landing approach, coming to hover near to the landing area.

Land at this aerodrome.

DAY or NIGHT — Lowering landing gear (if fitted), showing steady landing lights and following the intercepting aircraft and, if, after overflying the runway in use or helicopter landing area, landing is considered safe, proceeding to land.

Understood, will comply.

(2) Signals initiated by intercepted aircraft and responses by intercepting aircraft. Series INTERCEPTED Aircraft Signals Meaning INTERCEPTING

Aircraft Responds Meaning

4 DAY or NIGHT — Raising landing gear (if fitted) and flashing landing lights while passing over runway in use or helicopter landing area at a height exceeding 300 m (1,000 ft) but not exceeding 600 m (2,000 ft) (in the case of a helicopter, at a height exceeding 50 m (170 ft) but not exceeding 100 m (330 ft) above the aerodrome level, and continuing to circle runway in use or helicopter landing area. If unable to flash landing lights, flash any other lights available.

Aerodrome you have designated is inadequate.

DAY or NIGHT — If it is desired that the intercepted aircraft follow the intercepting aircraft to an alternate aerodrome, the intercepting aircraft raises its landing gear (if fitted) and uses the Series 1 signals prescribed for intercepting aircraft.

Understood, follow me. Understood, you may proceed.

If it is decided to release the incepted aircraft, the intercepting aircraft uses the Series 2 signals prescribed for intercepting aircraft.

5 DAY or NIGHT — Regular switching on and off of all available lights but in such a manner as to be distinct from flashing lights.

Cannot comply.

DAY or NIGHT — Use Series 2 signals prescribed for intercepting aircraft.

6 DAY or NIGHT — Irregular flashing of all available lights.

In distress. DAY or NIGHT — Use Series 2 signals prescribed for intercepting aircraft.

Understood.

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(e) Visual signals used to warn an unauthorised aircraft. By day and by night, a series of projectiles discharged from the ground at intervals of 10 seconds, each showing, on bursting, red and green lights or stars will indicate to an unauthorised aircraft that it is flying in or about to enter a restricted, prohibited, or danger area, and that the aircraft is to take such remedial action as may be necessary.

(f) Signals for aerodrome traffic. Aerodrome controllers shall use and pilots shall obey the following light and pyrotechnic signals:

From Aerodrome Control to: Light Aircraft in flight Aircraft on the ground

Steady green Cleared to land Cleared for take-off Steady red Give way to other aircraft and continue

circling Cleared to taxi

Directed towards aircraft concerned (See Figure 1.1)

Series of green flashes

Return for landing* Taxi clear of landing area in use

Series of red flashes Aerodrome unsafe, do not land Return to starting point on the aerodrome

Series of white flashes

Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron*

Red pyrotechnic Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being

*Clearances to land and to taxi will be given in duecourse.

Figure 8.1

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(g) Pilots shall acknowledge aerodrome controller signals as follows: (1) When in flight:

(i) During the hours of daylight by rocking the aircraft’s wings; Note: This signal should not be expected on the base and final legs of the approach.

(ii) During the hours of darkness by flashing on and off twice the aircraft’s landing lights or, if not so equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation lights.

(2) When on the ground: (i) During the hours of daylight by moving the aircraft’s ailerons or

rudder; (ii) During the hours of darkness by flashing on and off twice the

aircraft’s landing lights or, if not so equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation lights.

(h) Aerodrome authorities shall use the following visual ground signals shall be use during the following situations:

(1) Prohibition of landing. A horizontal red square panel with yellow diagonals (Figure 8.2) when displayed in a signal area indicates that landings are prohibited and that the prohibition is liable to be prolonged.

Figure 8.2 (2) Need for special precautions while approaching or landing. A

horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal (Figure 8.3) when displayed in a signal area indicates that owing to the bad state of the maoeuvring area, or for any other reason, special precautions must be observed in approaching to land or in landing.

Figure 8.3 (3) Use of runways and taxiways.

(i) A horizontal white dumb-bell (Figure 8.4) when displayed in a signal area indicates that aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only.

Figure 8.4

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F(ii) The same horizontal white dumb-bell as in Figure 8.4, but with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft across each circular portion f the dumb-bell (Figure 8.5) when displayed in a signal area indicates that aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways and taxiways

Figure 8.5

(4) Closed runways or taxiways. Crosses of single contrasting colour, yellow or white (Figure 8.6), displayed horizontally on runways and taxiways or parts thereof indicate an area unfit for movement of aircraft.

Figure 8.6

(5) Directions for landing or take-off.

(i) A horizontal white or orange landing T (Figure 8.7) indicates the direction to be used by aircraft for landing and rake-off, which shall be in a direction parallel to the shaft of the T towards the cross arm.

Note: When used at night, the landing T is either illuminated or outlined in white coloured lights.

Figure 8.7

(ii) A set of two digits (Figure 8.8) displayed vertically at or near the

aerodrome control tower indicates to aircraft on the manoeuvring area the direction for take-off, expressed in units of 10 degrees to the nearest 10 degrees of the magnetic compass.

Figure 8.8

(6) Right-hand traffic. When displayed in a signal area, or horizontally at

the end of the runway or strip in use, a right-hand arrow of conspicuous colour (Figure 8.9) indicates that turns are to be made to the right before landing and after take-off.

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Figure 8.9 (7) Air traffic services reporting office. The letter C displayed vertically in

black against a yellow background (Figure 8.10) indicates the location of the air traffic services reporting office.

Figure 8.10

(8) Glider flights in operation. A double white cross displayed horizontally (Figure 8.11) in the signal area indicates that the aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.

Figure 8.11

(i) The following marshalling signals shall be used from a signalman to an aircraft. Note: These signals are designated for use by the signalman, with hands illuminated as necessary to facilitate observation by the pilot, and facing the aircraft in a position: (1) For fixed-wing aircraft, the signalman shall be positioned forward of

the left-wing tip within view of the pilot and, for helicopters, where the signalman can best be seen by the pilot.

Note: The meaning of the relevant signals remains the same if bats, illuminated wands or torchlights are held. Note: The aircraft engines are numbered, for the signalman facing the aircraft, from right to left (i.e. No. 1 engine being the port outer engine). (2) Prior to using the following signals, the signalman shall ascertain that

the area within which an aircraft is to be guided is clear of objects which the aircraft might otherwise strike.

Note: The design of many aircraft is such that the path of the wing tips, engines and other extremities cannot always be monitored visually from the flight deck while the aircraft is being manoeuvred on the ground.

1. To proceed under further guidance by signalman Signalman directs pilot if traffic conditions on aerodrome require this action.

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2. This bay

Arms above head in vertical position with palms facing inward.

3. Proceed to next signalman

Right or left arm down, other arm moved across the body and extended to indicate direction of next signalman.

4. Move ahead

Arms a little aside, palms facing backward and repeatedly moved upward-backward from shoulder height.

5. Turn

(a) Turn to your left: right arm downward, left arm repeatedly moved upward-backward. Speed of arm movement indicating rate of turn.

(b) Turn to your right: left arm downward: right arm repeatedly moved upward- backward. Speed of arm movement indicating rate of turn.

6. Stop

Arms repeatedly crossed above head (the rapidity of the arm movement should be related to the urgency of the stop, i.e. the faster the movement the quicker the stop).

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7. Brakes (a) Engage brakes. raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist. (b) Release brakes. raise arm, with fist clenched, horizontally in front of body, then extend fingers.

8. Chocks (a) Chocks inserted: arms down, palms facing inwards, move arms from extended position inwards.

(b) Chocks removed: arms down, palms facing outwards, move arms outwards.

9. Start engine(s) Left hand overhead with appropriate number of fingers extended, to indicate the number of the engine to be started, and circular motion of right hand at head level.

10. Cut engines Either arm and hand level with shoulder, hand across throat, palm downward. The hand is moved sideways with the arm remaining bent.

11. Slow down Arms down with palms toward ground, then moved up and down several times.

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12. Slow down engine(s) on indicated side

Arms down with palms toward ground, then either right or left hand waved up and down indicating that the left or right side engine(s) respectively should be slowed down.

13. Move back

Arms by sides, palms facing forward, swept forward and upward repeatedly to shoulder height.

14. Turns while backing

(a) For tail to starboard: point left arm down, and right arm brought from overhead, vertical position to horizontal forward position, repeating right arm movement.

(b) For tail to port: point right arm down, and left arm brought from overhead, vertical position to horizontal forward position, repeating left arm movement.

15. All clear

Right arm raised at elbow with thumb erect.

16. Hover

Arms extended horizontally sideways.

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*17 Move upwards

Arms extended horizontally to the side beckoning upwards, with palms turned up. Speed of movement indicates rate of ascent.

*18. Move downwards

Arms extended horizontally to the side beckoning downwards, with palms turned down. Speed of movement indicates rate of descent.

*19. Move horizontally

Appropriate arm extended horizontally sideways in direction of movement and other arm moved in front of body in same direction, in a repeating movement.

*20. Land

Arms crossed and extended downwards in front of the body

(j) Signals from the pilot of an aircraft to a signalman. (1) The PIC or SIC shall use the following signals when communicating

with a signalman: Note: These signals are designed for use by a pilot in the cockpit with hands plainly visible to the signalman and illuminated as necessary to facilitate observation by the signalman. Note: The aircraft engines are numbered in relation to the signalman facing the aircraft from right to left (i.e No. 1 engine being the port outer engine). (2) Brakes engaged: raise arm and hand, with fingers extended,

horizontally in front of face, then clench fist. (3) Brakes released: raise arm, with fist clenched, horizontally in front of

face, then extend fingers.

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Note: The moment the fist is clenched or the fingers are extended indicates, respectively, the moment of brake engagement or release. (4) Insert chocks: arms extended, palms outwards, move hands inwards to

cross in front of face. (5) Remove chocks: hands crossed in front of face, palms outwards, move

arms outwards. (6) Ready to start engine(s). Raise the appropriate number of fingers on

one hand indicating the number of the engine to be started.

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SCHEDULE 11 AERIAL WORK OPERATIONS

SUBPART A: GENERAL 11.001 Applicability 11.005 Definitions 11.010 Acronyms SUBPART B: AGRICULTURAL AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS 11.015 Applicability 11.020 Certificate Required 11.025 Application for Certificate 11.030 Amendment of Certificate 11.035 Certification Requirements 11.040 Duration of Certificate 11.045 General Operating Rules 11.050 Carrying of Certificate 11.055 Limitations on Private Agricultural Aircraft Operator 11.060 Manner of Dispensing 11.065 Economic Poison Dispensing 11.070 Personnel 11.075 Operations in Controlled Airspace Designated for an Airport 11.080 Operation over Congested Areas: General 11.085 Operation over Congested Areas: Pilots and Aircraft 11.090 Availability of Certificate 11.095 Records: Commercial Agricultural Aircraft Operator 11.100 Change of Address 11.105 Termination of Operations SUBPART C: HELICOPTER EXTERNAL LOADS 11.110 Applicability 11.115 Certificate Required 11.120 Duration of Certificate 11.125 Application for Certificate Issuance or Renewal 11.130 Requirements for Issuance of a Rotorcraft External-Load Operator

Certificate 11.135 Rotorcraft 11.140 Personnel 11.145 Amendment of Certificate 11.150 Availability, Transfer, and Surrender of Certificate 11.155 Operating Rules 11.165 Carriage of Persons 11.170 Crew member Training, Currency, and Testing Requirements 11.175 Flight Characteristics Requirements 11.180 Structures and Design 11.185 Operating Limitations 11.190 Rotorcraft-Load Combination Flight Manual 11.195 Markings and Placards 11.200 Airworthiness Certification

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SUBPART D: GLIDER TOWING 11.205 Applicability 11.210 Certificate Required 11.215 Aircraft Requirements 11.220 Experience and Training requirements SUBPART D: BANNER TOWING 11.225 Applicability 11.230 Certificate or Authorisation Required 11.235 Aircraft Requirements 11.240 Experience and Training Requirements 11.245 Operating Rules SUBPART E: TV AND MOVIE OPERATIONS 11.250 Applicability 11.255 Certificate or Authorisation Required 11.260 Aircraft Requirement 11.265 Experience and Training Requirements 11.270 Waiver Requirements 11.275 Contents of a Motion Picture and Television Flight Operations

Manual SUBPART F: SIGHT-SEEING FLIGHTS 11.280 Applicability 11.285 Certificate or Authorisation Required 11.290 Experience and Training Requirements 11.295 Operating Rules SUBPART G: FISH-SPOTTING 11.300 Applicability 11.305 Certificate or Authorisation Required 11.310 Operating Rules SUBPART H: TRAFFIC REPORTING 11.315 Applicability 11.320 Certificate or Authorisation Required APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 11.080: Operation over Congested Areas: General

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SUBPART A GENERAL

11.001 APPLICABILITY (a) This Schedule contains the requirements for those operators and operations

that are considered to be aerial work in The Bahamas. (b) All persons who conduct aerial work in The Bahamas must comply with

certification requirements of this Schedule. (c) All persons who conduct aerial work in The Bahamas must comply with

the applicable airworthiness and operational requirements of the Schedules, except where this Schedule grants relief from those requirements or specifies additional requirements.

11.005 DEFINITIONS (a) For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply:

(1) Aerial work. An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialised services such as agriculture, construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and rescue, aerial advertisement, etc.

(2) Aerobatic flight. An intentional manoeuvre involving an abrupt change in an aircraft’s altitude, an abnormal altitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight.

(3) Agricultural aircraft operation. The operation of an aircraft for the purpose of —

(i) Dispensing any economic poison; (ii) Dispensing any other substance intended for plant nourishment,

soil treatment, propagation of plant life, or pest control; or (iii) Engaging in dispensing activities directly affecting agriculture,

horticulture, or forest preservation, but not including the dispensing of live insects.

(4) Banner. An advertising medium supported by a temporary framework attached externally to the aircraft and towed behind the aircraft.

(5) Economic poison. Any substance or mixture of substances intended for — (i) Preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating any insects,

rodents, nematodes, fungi, weeds, and other forms of plant or animal life or viruses, except viruses on or in living human beings or other animals, which The Bahamas may declare to be a pest; and

(ii) Use as a plant regulator, defoliant or desiccant. (6) Rotorcraft load combinations. Configurations for external loads

carried by rotorcraft — (i) Class A — external load fixed to the rotorcraft, cannot be jettisoned,

and does not extend below the landing gear, used to transport cargo. (ii) Class B — external load suspended from the rotorcraft, which

can be jettisoned, and is transported free of land or water during rotorcraft operations.

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(iii) Class C — external load suspended from the rotorcraft, which can be jettisoned, but remains in contact with land or water during rotorcraft operation.

(iv) Class D — external load suspended from the rotorcraft for the carriage of persons.

11.010 ACRONYMS (a) The following acronyms are used in this Schedule:

(1) AGL — Above Ground Level (2) PIC — Pilot In Command (3) IFR — Instrument Flight Rules

SUBPART B AGRICULTURAL AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS

11.015 APPLICABILITY (a) This Schedule prescribes rules governing —

(1) Agricultural aircraft operations within The Bahamas; and (2) The issue of commercial and private agricultural aircraft operator

certificates for those operations. (b) In a public emergency, a person conducting agricultural aircraft operations

under this Schedule may, to the extent necessary, deviate from the operating rules of this Schedule for relief and welfare activities approved by an agency of the National or a local government.

(c) Each person who, under the authority of this section, deviates from a rule of this Schedule shall, within 10 days after the deviation send to the Authority a complete report of the aircraft operation involved, including a description of the operation and the reasons for it.

11.020 CERTIFICATE REQUIRED (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, no person may

conduct agricultural aircraft operations without, or in violation of, an agricultural aircraft operator certificate issued under this Schedule.

(b) An operator may, if it complies with this Subpart, conduct agricultural aircraft operations with a rotorcraft with external dispensing equipment in place without a rotorcraft external-load operator certificate.

(c) A local or national government conducting agricultural aircraft operations with public aircraft need not comply with this Subpart.

(d) The holder of a rotorcraft external-load operator certificate under this Schedule may conduct an agricultural aircraft operation, involving only the dispensing of water on forest fires by rotorcraft external-load means.

11.025 APPLICATION FOR CERTIFICATE An applicant for an agricultural aircraft operator certificate shall apply on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Authority.

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11.030 AMENDMENT OF CERTIFICATE (a) An agricultural aircraft operator certificate may be amended —

(1) On the Authority’s own initiative, under applicable laws and regulations; or

(2) Upon application by the holder of that certificate. (b) A certificate holder shall submit any application to amend an agricultural

aircraft operator certificate on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Authority. The applicant shall file the application at least 15 days before the date that it proposes the amendment become effective, unless the Authority approves a shorter filing period.

(c) The Authority will grant a request to amend a certificate if it determines that safety in air commerce and the public interest so allow.

(d) Within 30 days after receiving a refusal to amend, the holder may petition the Authority to reconsider the refusal.

11.035 CERTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS (a) General. Except as provided by paragraph (a)(3) of this section —

(1) The Authority will issue a private agricultural aircraft operator certificate to an applicant who meets the requirements of this Subpart for that certificate.

(2) The Authority will issue a commercial agricultural aircraft operator certificate to an applicant who meets the requirements of this Subpart for that certificate.

(3) An applicant who applies for an agricultural aircraft operator certificate containing a prohibition against the dispensing of economic poisons is not required to demonstrate knowledge specific to economic poisons.

(b) Pilots. (1) A private operator-pilot applicant shall hold a current The Bahamas

private, commercial, or airline transport pilot certificate and be properly rated for the aircraft to be used.

(2) A commercial operator-pilot applicant shall hold, or have available the services of at least one pilot who holds a current commercial or airline transport pilot certificate issued by the Authority and who is properly rated for the aircraft to be used.

(c) Aircraft. The applicant shall have at least one certified and airworthy aircraft, equipped for agricultural operation.

(d) Knowledge and skill tests. The applicant shall show that it has satisfactory knowledge and skill of the following agricultural aircraft operations. (1) Knowledge:

(i) Steps to be taken before starting operations, including a survey of the area to be worked.

(ii) Safe handling of economic poisons and the proper disposal of used containers for those poisons.

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(iii) The general effects of economic poisons and agricultural chemicals on plants, animals, and persons, and the precautions to be observed in using poisons and chemicals.

(iv) Primary symptoms of poisoning of persons from economic poisons, the appropriate emergency measures to be taken, and the location of poison control centres.

(v) Performance capabilities and operating limitations of the aircraft to be used.

(vi) Safe flight and application procedures. (2) Skill in the following manoeuvres, demonstrated at the aircraft’s

maximum certified take-off weight, or the maximum weight established for the special purpose load, whichever is greater:

(i) Short-field and soft-field takeoffs (aeroplanes and gyroplanes only). (ii) Approaches to the working area.

(iii) Flare-outs. (iv) Swath runs. (v) Pullups and turnarounds.

(vi) Rapid deceleration (quick stops) in helicopters only. 11.040 DURATION OF CERTIFICATE An agricultural aircraft operator certificate is effective until it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked. 11.045 GENERAL OPERATING RULES (a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, this section prescribes

rules that apply to persons and aircraft used in agricultural aircraft operations conducted under this Schedule.

(b) The holder of an agricultural aircraft operator certificate may deviate from the provisions of Schedule 10 without a certificate of waiver when conducting aerial work operations related to agriculture, horticulture, or forest preservation in accordance with the operating rules of this section.

(c) The operating rules of this Subpart apply to Rotorcraft External load certificate holders conducting agricultural aircraft operations involving only the dispensing of water on forest fires by rotorcraft external-load means.

11.050 CARRYING OF CERTIFICATE (a) No person may operate an aircraft unless a facsimile of the agricultural

aircraft operator certificate is carried on that aircraft. (b) The registration and airworthiness certificates issued for the aircraft need not be

carried in the aircraft provided that those certificates not carried in the aircraft shall be kept available for inspection at the base from which the dispensing operation is conducted.

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11.055 LIMITATIONS ON PRIVATE AGRICULTURAL AIRCRAFT OPERATOR

(a) No person may conduct an agricultural aircraft operation under the authority of a private agricultural aircraft operator certificate — (1) For compensation or hire; (2) Over a congested area; or (3) Over any property unless he or she is the owner or lessee of the

property, or has ownership or other property interest in the crop located on that property.

11.060 MANNER OF DISPENSING No persons may dispense, or cause to be dispensed, any material or substance in a manner that creates a hazard to persons or property on the surface. 11.065 ECONOMIC POISON DISPENSING (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may dispense

or cause to be dispensed, any economic poison that is registered with The Bahamas — (1) For a use other than that for which it is registered; (2) Contrary to any safety instructions or use limitations on its label; or (3) In violation of any law or regulation of The Bahamas.

(b) This section does not apply to any person dispensing economic poisons for experimental purposes under — (1) The supervision of a The Bahamas agency authorised by law to

conduct research in the field of economic poisons; or (2) A permit from The Bahamas.

11.070 PERSONNEL (a) Information. The holder of an agricultural aircraft operator certificate shall

insure that each person used in the holder’s agricultural aircraft operation is informed of that person’s duties and responsibilities.

(b) Supervisors. No person may supervise an agricultural aircraft operation unless he or she has met the knowledge and skill requirements of this Subpart.

(c) Pilot in command. No person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft operated under this Subpart unless that pilot — (1) Holds a pilot certificate and rating prescribed by this Subpart as

appropriate to the type of operation conducted; or (2) Has demonstrated to the holder of the Agricultural Aircraft Operator

Certificate conducting the operation, or to a supervisor designated by that certificate holder, that he or she possesses the knowledge and skill requirements of this Subpart.

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11.075 OPERATIONS IN CONTROLLED AIRSPACE DESIGNATED FOR AN AIRPORT

(a) Except for flights to and from a dispensing area, no person may operate an aircraft within the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class D airspace designated for an airport unless authorisation for that operation has been obtained from the ATC facility having jurisdiction over that area.

(b) No person may operate an aircraft in weather conditions below VFR minimums within the lateral boundaries of a Class E airspace area that extends upward from the surface unless authorisation for that operation has been obtained from the ATC facility having jurisdiction over that area.

11.080 OPERATION OVER CONGESTED AREAS: GENERAL (a) A certificate holder may operate or cause the operation of an aircraft over a

congested area at altitudes required if the operation is conducted with — (1) The maximum safety to persons and property on the surface,

consistent with the operation; and (2) A plan for each operation, submitted and approved by the Authority,

which includes — (i) Obstructions to flight;

(ii) Emergency landing capabilities of the aircraft to be used; and (iii) Any necessary co-ordination with air traffic control.

(b) Each certificate holder shall ensure that all aircraft operations are conducted as prescribed by the Authority. See Appendix 1 to 11.080 for specific restrictions when operating over congested areas.

11.085 OPERATION OVER CONGESTED AREAS : PILOTS AND AIRCRAFT (a) Pilots. Each pilot in command must have at least —

(1) 25 hours of pilot-in-command flight time in the make and basic model of the aircraft, including at least 10 hours within the preceding 12 calendar months; and

(2) 100 hours of flight experience as pilot in command in dispensing agricultural materials or chemicals.

(b) Aircraft. (1) Except for helicopters, each aircraft shall be capable of jettisoning at

least one-half of the aircraft’s maximum authorised load of agricultural material within 45 seconds. If the aircraft is equipped to release the tank or hopper as a unit, there shall be a means to prevent inadvertent release by the pilot or other crew member.

11.090 AVAILABILITY OF CERTIFICATE Each holder of an agricultural aircraft operator certificate shall keep that certificate at its home base and shall present it for inspection on the request of the Authority or any government law enforcement officer.

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11.095 RECORDS: COMMERCIAL AGRICULTURAL AIRCRAFT OPERATOR

(a) Each holder of a commercial agricultural aircraft operator certificate shall maintain and keep current, at the home base designated in its application, the following records — (1) The name and address of each person for whom agricultural aircraft

services were provided; (2) The date of the service; (3) The name and quantity of the material dispensed for each operation

conducted; and (4) The name, address, and certificate number of each pilot used in

agricultural aircraft operations and the date that pilot met the knowledge and skill requirements of this Subpart.

(b) The records required by this section must be kept for at least 12 months. 11.100 CHANGE OF ADDRESS Each holder of an agricultural aircraft operator certificate shall notify the Authority in writing in advance of any change in the address of its home base of operations. 11.105 TERMINATION OF OPERATIONS Whenever a certificate holder ceases operations under this Schedule, it shall surrender that certificate to the designated office of the Authority.

SUBPART C HELICOPTER EXTERNAL LOADS

11.110 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart prescribes —

(1) Airworthiness certification rules for rotorcraft used in external-load operations; and

(2) Operating and certification rules governing the conduct of rotorcraft external-load operations in The Bahamas.

(b) The certification rules of this Schedule do not apply to — (1) Rotorcraft manufacturers when developing external-load attaching

means; (2) Operations conducted by a person demonstrating compliance for the

issuance of a certificate or authorisation under this Schedule; (3) Training flights conducted in preparation for the demonstration of

compliance with this Schedule; or (4) A local or national government conducting operations with public

aircraft. (c) For the purpose of this Schedule, a person other than a crew member or a person

who is essential and directly connected with the external-load operation may be carried only in approved Class D rotorcraft-load combinations.

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11.115 CERTIFICATE REQUIRED No person subject to this Schedule may conduct rotorcraft external-load operations without, or in violation of the terms of, a Rotorcraft External-Load Operator Certificate or equivalent authorisation issued by the Authority. 11.120 DURATION OF CERTIFICATE Unless sooner surrendered, suspended, or revoked, a Rotorcraft External-Load Operator Certificate expires at the end of the twenty-fourth month after the month in which it is issued or renewed. 11.125 APPLICATION FOR CERTIFICATE ISSUANCE OR RENEWAL Application for an original certificate or renewal of a certificate issued under this Schedule is made on a form, and in a manner, prescribed by the Authority. 11.130 REQUIREMENTS FOR ISSUANCE OF A ROTORCRAFT EXTERNAL-

LOAD OPERATOR CERTIFICATE (a) If an applicant shows that it complies with this Subpart, the Authority will

issue a Rotorcraft External-Load Operator Certificate to it. (b) The Authority will issue authorisation to operate specified rotorcraft with

those classes of rotorcraft-load combinations for which the applicant or certificate holder qualifies under the applicable provisions of this Subpart.

11.135 ROTORCRAFT (a) An applicant must have the exclusive use of at least one rotorcraft that —

(1) Was type certified under, and meets the requirements of, the several parts of these regulations which prescribe requirements for rotorcraft external-load operations;

(2) Complies with the certification provisions in this Subpart that apply to the rotorcraft-load combinations for which authorisation is requested; and

(3) Has a valid standard or restricted category airworthiness certificate. 11.140 PERSONNEL (a) An applicant shall hold, or have available the services of at least one person

who holds a current commercial or airline transport pilot certificate issued by the Authority with a rating appropriate for the rotorcraft to be used.

(b) An applicant shall designate one pilot, who may be the applicant, as chief pilot for rotorcraft external-load operations.

(c) An applicant may designate qualified pilots as assistant chief pilots to perform the functions of the chief pilot when the chief pilot is not readily available.

(d) The chief pilot and assistant chief pilots must be acceptable to the Authority and each must hold a current Commercial or Airline Transport Pilot Certificate, with a rating appropriate for the rotorcraft to be used.

(e) The holder of a Rotorcraft External-Load Operator Certificate shall report any change in designation of chief pilot or assistant chief pilot immediately to the Authority.

(f) A newly designated chief pilot shall comply with the knowledge and skill requirements of this Subpart within 30 days or the operator may not conduct further operations under the Rotorcraft External-Load Operator Certificate, unless otherwise authorised by the Authority.

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11.145 AMENDMENT OF CERTIFICATE (a) The holder of a Rotorcraft External-Load Certificate may apply to the

Authority for an amendment of its certificate, to add or delete a rotorcraft- load combination authorisation.

(b) The holder of a rotorcraft external-load certificate may apply for an amendment to add or delete a rotorcraft authorisation by submitting to the Authority a new list of rotorcraft, by registration number, with the classes of rotorcraft-load combinations for which authorisation is requested.

11.150 AVAILABILITY, TRANSFER, AND SURRENDER OF CERTIFICATE (a) Each person conducting a rotorcraft external-load operation shall carry a

facsimile of the Rotorcraft External-Load Operator Certificate in each rotorcraft used in the operation.

(b) A certificate holder shall return its certificate to the Authority — (1) If the Authority suspends or revokes its Rotorcraft External-Load

Operator Certificate; or (2) If the certificate holder discontinues operations and does not resume

operations within two years. 11.155 OPERATING RULES (a) No person may conduct a rotorcraft external load operation without, or

contrary to, the Rotorcraft/Load Combination Flight Manual prescribed in this Schedule.

(b) No person may conduct a rotorcraft external load operation unless — (1) The rotorcraft complies with this Schedule; and (2) The rotorcraft and rotorcraft/load combination is authorised under the

Rotorcraft External Load Operator Certificate. (c) Before a person may operate a rotorcraft with an external load

configuration that differs substantially from any that that person has previously carried with that type of rotorcraft (whether or not the rotorcraft/load combination is of the same class), that person shall conduct, in a manner that will not endanger persons or property on the surface, such of the following flight operational checks as the Authority determines are appropriate to the rotorcraft/load combination: (1) A determination that the weight of the rotorcraft/load combination and

the location of its centre of gravity are within approved limits, that the external load is securely fastened, and that the external load does not interfere with devices provided for its emergency release.

(2) Make an initial liftoff and verify that controllability is satisfactory. (3) While hovering, verify that directional control is adequate. (4) Accelerate into forward flight to verify that no attitude (whether of the

rotorcraft or of the external load) is encountered in which the rotorcraft is uncontrollable or which is otherwise hazardous.

(5) In forward flight, check for hazardous oscillations of the external load, but if the external load is not visible to the pilot, other crew members or ground personnel may make this check and signal the pilot.

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(6) Increase the forward airspeed and determine an operational airspeed at which no hazardous oscillation or hazardous aerodynamic turbulence is encountered.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of Part 8, the holder of a Rotorcraft External Load Operator Certificate may conduct rotorcraft external load operations over congested areas if those operations are conducted without hazard to persons or property on the surface and comply with the following: (1) The operator shall develop a plan for each complete operation and

obtain approval for the operation from the Authority. Note: The plan must include an agreement with the appropriate political subdivision that local officials will exclude unauthorised persons from the area in which the operation will be conducted, coordination with air traffic control, if necessary, and a detailed chart depicting the flight routes and altitudes. (2) Each flight shall be conducted at an altitude, and on a route, that will

allow a jettisonable external load to be released, and the rotorcraft landed, in an emergency without hazard to persons or property on the surface.

(e) Notwithstanding the provisions of Schedule 10, and except as provided in this Schedule, the holder of a Rotorcraft External Load Operator Certificate may conduct external load operations, including approaches, departures, and load positioning manoeuvres necessary for the operation, below 500 feet above the surface and closer than 500 feet to persons, vessels, vehicles, and structures, if the operations are conducted without creating a hazard to persons or property on the surface.

(f) No person may conduct rotorcraft external load operations under IFR unless specifically approved by the Authority.

11.165 CARRIAGE OF PERSONS (a) No certificate holder may allow a person to be carried during rotorcraft

external load operations unless that person — (1) Is a flight crew member; (2) Is a flight crew member trainee; (3) Performs an essential function in connection with the external load

operation; or (4) Is necessary to accomplish the work activity directly associated with

that operation. (b) The PIC shall ensure that all persons are briefed before takeoff on all

pertinent procedures to be followed (including normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures) and equipment to be used during the external load operation.

11.170 CREW MEMBER TRAINING, CURRENCY, AND TESTING REQUIREMENTS

(a) No certificate holder may use, nor may any person serve, as a pilot in helicopter external load operations unless that person — (1) Has successfully demonstrated to the Authority the knowledge and skill

with respect to the rotorcraft/load combination; and

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(2) Has in his or her personal possession a letter of competency or an appropriate logbook entry indicating compliance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section.

(b) No AOC holder may use, nor may any person serve as, a crew member or other operations personnel in Class D operations unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, that person has successfully completed either an approved initial or a recurrent training program.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, a person who has performed a rotorcraft external load operation of the same class and in an aircraft of the same type within the past 12 calendar months need not undergo recurrent training.

11.175 FLIGHT CHARACTERISTICS REQUIREMENTS (a) The applicant must demonstrate to the Authority, by performing the

following operational flight checks, that the rotorcraft-load combination has satisfactory flight characteristics, unless these operational flight checks have been demonstrated previously and the rotorcraft-load combination flight characteristics were satisfactory. For the purposes of this demonstration, the external-load weight (including the external-load attaching means) is the maximum weight for which authorisation is requested.

(b) Class A rotorcraft-load combinations: The operational flight check must consist of at least the following manoeuvres — (1) Take off and landing. (2) Demonstration of adequate directional control while hovering. (3) Acceleration from a hover. (4) Horizontal flight at airspeeds up to the maximum airspeed for which

authorisation is requested. (c) Class B and D rotorcraft-load combinations: The operational flight check must

consist of at least the following manoeuvres — (1) Pickup of the external load. (2) Demonstration of adequate directional control while hovering. (3) Acceleration from a hover. (4) Horizontal flight at airspeeds up to the maximum airspeed for which

authorisation is requested. (5) Demonstrating appropriate lifting device operation. (6) Manoeuvring of the external load into release position and its release,

under probable flight operation conditions, by means of each of the quick-release controls installed on the rotorcraft.

(d) Class C roforcraft-load combinations: For Class C rotorcraft-load combinations used in wire-stringing, cable-laying, or similar operations, the operational flight check must consist of the manoeuvres, as applicable, prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.

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11.180 STRUCTURES AND DESIGN (a) External-load attaching means. Each external-load attaching means shall be

approved by the Authority. (b) Quick release devices. Each quick release device means shall be approved

by the Authority. (c) Weight and centre of gravity:

(1) Weight. The total weight of the rotorcraft-load combination must not exceed the total weight approved for the rotorcraft during its type certification.

(2) Centre of gravity. The location of the centre of gravity must, for all loading conditions, be within the range established for the rotorcraft during its type certification. For Class C rotorcraft-load combinations, the magnitude and direction of the loading force must be established at those values for which the effective location of the centre of gravity remains within its established range.

11.185 OPERATING LIMITATIONS (a) In addition to the operating limitations set forth in the approved Rotorcraft

Flight Manual, and to any other limitations the Authority may prescribe, the operator shall establish at least the following limitations and set them forth in the Rotorcraft-Load Combination Flight Manual for rotorcraft-load combination operations: (1) The rotorcraft-load combination may be operated only within the

weight and centre of gravity limitations established in accordance with this Subpart.

(2) The rotorcraft-load combination may not be operated with an external load weight exceeding that used in showing compliance with this Subpart.

(3) The rotorcraft-load combination may not be operated at airspeeds greater than those established in accordance with this Subpart.

(4) No person may conduct an external-load operation under this Schedule with a rotorcraft type certified in the restricted category over a densely populated area, in a congested airway, or near a busy airport where passenger transport operations are conducted.

(5) The rotorcraft-load combination of Class D may be conducted only in accordance with the following —

(i) The rotorcraft to be used must have been type certified under transport Category A for the operating weight and provide hover capability with one engine inoperative at that operating weight and altitude.

(ii) The rotorcraft must be equipped to allow direct radio intercommu- nication among required crew members.

(iii) The personnel lifting device must be approved by the Authority. (iv) The lifting device must have an emergency release requiring two

distinct actions.

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11.190 ROTORCRAFT-LOAD COMBINATION FLIGHT MANUAL (a) The applicant must prepare a Rotorcraft-Load Combination Flight Manual and

submit it for approval by the Authority. The limiting height-speed envelope data need not be listed as operating limitations. The manual shall set forth — (1) Operating limitations, procedures (normal and emergency),

performance, and other information established under this Subpart; (2) The class of rotorcraft-load combinations for which the airworthiness

of the rotorcraft has been demonstrated in accordance with this Subpart; and

(3) In the information section of the Rotorcraft-Load Combination Flight Manual — (i) Information on any peculiarities discovered when operating

particular rotorcraft-load combinations; (ii) Precautionary advice regarding static electricity discharges for

Class B, Class C, and Class D rotorcraft-load combinations; and (iii) Any other information essential for safe operation with external

loads. 11.195 MARKINGS AND PLACARDS (a) The following markings and placards must be displayed conspicuously and

must be such that they cannot be easily erased, disfigured, or obscured: (1) A placard (displayed in the cockpit or cabin) stating the class of

rotorcraft-load combination and the occupancy limitation for which the rotorcraft has been approved.

(2) A placard, marking, or instruction (displayed next to the external-load attaching means) stating the maximum external load approved.

11.200 AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATION (a) A Rotorcraft External-Load Operator Certificate is a current and valid

airworthiness certificate for each rotorcraft type and listed by registration number on a list attached to the certificate, when the rotorcraft is being used in operations conducted under this Schedule.

SUBPART D GLIDER TOWING

11.205 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart applies to those operations involving towing gliders by

aircraft. 11.210 CERTIFICATE REQUIRED (a) No person may act as a tow pilot for a glider unless that person has at least

a private pilot certificate with a category rating for the tow aircraft. 11.215 AIRCRAFT REQUIREMENTS (a) No person may operate an aircraft that is towing a glider unless the aircraft

is equipped with a tow hook and release control system that meet the applicable standards of airworthiness.

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11.220 EXPERIENCE AND TRAINING REQUIREMENTS (a) No person may act as a tow pilot for a glider unless that person has —

(1) Logged at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in same aircraft category, class, and type, if applicable, as the tow aircraft;

(2) Received training in and instructor endorsement for — (i) The techniques and procedures essential to the safe towing of

gliders, including airspeed limitations; (ii) Emergency procedures;

(iii) Signals used; and (iv) Maximum angles of bank.

(3) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, has completed and had endorsed at least three flights as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft towing a glider or simulating glider-towing flight procedures while accompanied by a pilot who meets the requirements of this section; and

(4) Within the preceding 12 months has — (i) Made at least three actual glider tows; or

(ii) Made at least three flights as pilot in command of a glider towed by an aircraft.

(b) Any person who before January 31, 2001, made and logged 10 or more flights as PIC of an aircraft towing a glider in accordance with authorisation of the Authority need not comply with paragraphs (a)(3) and (a)(4) of this section.

SUBPART D BANNER TOWING

11.225 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart applies to those operations involving towing by aircraft

banners or other signs, lit or unlit. 11.230 CERTIFICATE OR AUTHORISATION REQUIRED (a) The Authority will require each person conducting operations covered by

this Subpart to hold a certificate or equivalent authorisation. (b) The Authority will issue a certificate or authorisation to each applicant who

qualifies for it under the provisions of this Subpart. (c) A helicopter operating under the provision of Subpart 11.3 may tow a

banner using an external-load attaching means without a certificate only if the operator has at least a Class B authorisation on the operating certificate.

11.235 AIRCRAFT REQUIREMENTS (a) No person may operate an aircraft that is towing a banner unless the aircraft

is equipped with a tow hook and release control system that meet the applicable standards of airworthiness.

(b) No person may operate a helicopter that is towing a banner unless the helicopter has a means to prevent the banner from becoming entangled in the helicopter’s tailrotor during all phases of flight, including autorotations.

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Note: The only way to prevent the banner from tangling in the tailrotor during autorotation may be to jettison the banner.

11.240 EXPERIENCE AND TRAINING REQUIREMENTS (a) For nonrevenue flights, the pilot of the tow aircraft shall hold at least a

valid private pilot certificate and have a minimum of 200 hours PIC time. (b) When banner tow operations are conducted for compensation or hire, the

pilot shall have at least a commercial pilot certificate (instrument rating not required) and at least a valid second class medical certificate.

(c) All pilots engaged in banner towing operations shall demonstrate competence to the Authority by performing at least one pickup and drop of the maximum number of letters (panels) to be used by the certificate holder. Note: This demonstration should be observed from the ground to allow the inspector to evaluate the competence of any essential ground personnel as well as the flight operation.

11.245 OPERATING RULES (a) All banner tow operations shall be conducted only —

(1) In VFR weather conditions; and (2) Between the hours of official sunrise and official sunset.

(b) No person may conduct banner towing operations — (1) Over congested areas or open air assemblies of persons lower than

1,000 feet; and (2) Elsewhere lower than the minimum safe altitude requirements of Part 8. Note: Helicopters may be operated at less than the minimums prescribed in paragraph (b) if the operation is conducted without hazard to persons or property on the surface.

(c) The certificate holder shall obtain the airport manager’s approval to conduct banner tow operations.

(d) If banner towing operations take place at an airport with a control tower, the certificate holder shall inform that control tower of the time of the banner tow operation.

(e) The certificate holder shall notify the appropriate airport officials in advance when banner tow operations will be in close proximity to an uncontrolled airport.

(f) Only essential crew members shall be carried when conducting banner tow operations.

(g) When banner tow operations are conducted around congested areas, the pilot shall exercise due care so that, in the event of emergency release of the banner and/or towrope, it will not cause undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

(h) Each pilot shall drop the towrope in a predesignated area at least 500 feet from persons, buildings, parked automobiles, and aircraft. Note: If the tow plane lands with the rope attached, due care will be exercised to avoid trailing the rope and endangering other aircraft in the air, or persons, property or aircraft on the surface.

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(i) Each pilot conducting banner towing operations shall carry onboard the aircraft a current copy of the following certificate of Waiver or Authorisation allowing banner towing operations.

SUBPART E TV AND MOVIE OPERATIONS

11.250 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart applies to those operations involving movie filming,

appearance in flight in movies, and airborne direction or production of such filming when those operations are conducted as part of a business enterprise or for compensation or hire.

(b) For purposes of this Subpart, “movie” shall include film, videos, and live broadcast in any format, and the preparation and rehearsal for those operations.

11.255 CERTIFICATE OR AUTHORISATION REQUIRED (a) The Authority shall require each person conducting operations covered by

this Subpart to hold a certificate or equivalent authorisation. (b) The Authority will issue a certificate or authorisation to each applicant who

qualifies for it under the provisions of this Subpart. 11.260 AIRCRAFT REQUIREMENT (a) In order to be used in motion picture and television filming operations,

aircraft in the experimental category shall have an airworthiness certificate issued for the purpose of exhibition.

11.265 EXPERIENCE AND TRAINING REQUIREMENTS (a) No pilot may conduct television and movie operations unless he or she has:

(1) A commercial licence with ratings appropriate to the category and class aircraft to be used under the terms of the waiver.

(2) At least 500 hours as PIC. (3) A minimum of 100 hours in the category and class of aircraft to be used. (4) A minimum of five hours in the make and model aircraft to be used

under the waiver. (5) If the pilot intends to perform aerobatics below 1,500 AGL, a Statement of

Aerobatics Competency for the operations to be performed. 11.270 WAIVER REQUIREMENTS (a) A waiver shall be obtained if filming sequences require an aircraft to be flown —

(1) In aerobatic flight below 1,500 AGL; (2) Over a congested area; or (3) In controlled airspace. Note: When conducting any filming operation requiring a waiver, the certificate holder shall ensure that all reasonable efforts are made to confine spectators to designated areas. If reasonable efforts have been taken and unauthorised persons or vehicles enter the airspace where manoeuvres are being performed during the filming production event, efforts must be made to remove them.

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(b) The holder of the waiver shall provide a schedule of events that lists the — (1) Identification of the aircraft; and (2) Performers in the sequence of their appearance.

(c) Any manoeuvres added or time changes to the schedule of events shall be approved by the Authority.

(d) The waiver holder shall develop, have approved by the Authority, and adhere to a Motion Picture and Television Flight Operations Manual.

11.275 CONTENTS OF A MOTION PICTURE AND TELEVISION FLIGHT OPERATIONS MANUAL

(a) Each Motion Picture and Television Flight Operations Manual shall contain at least the following: (1) Company Organisation.

(i) Business name, address, and telephone number of applicant. (ii) List of pilots to be used during the filming, including their pilot

certificate numbers, grade, and class and date of medical. (iii) List of aircraft by make and model.

(2) Distribution and Revision. Procedures for revising the manual to ensure that all manuals are kept current.

(3) Persons Authorised. Procedures to ensure that no persons, except those persons consenting to be involved and necessary for the filming production, are allowed within 500 feet of the filming production area.

(4) Area of Operations. The area that will be used during the term of the waiver.

(5) Plan of Activities. Procedures for the submission, within three days of scheduled filming, a written plan of activities to the Authority containing at least the following:

(i) Dates and times for all flights. (ii) Name and phone number of person responsible for the filming

production event. (iii) Make and model of aircraft to be used and type of airworthiness

certificate, including category. (iv) Name of pilots involved in the filming production event. (v) A statement that permission has been obtained from property

owners and/or local officials to conduct the filming production event.

(vi) Signature of waiver holder or a designated representative. (vii) A general outline, or summary, of the production schedule, to

include maps or diagrams of the specific filming location, if necessary.

(6) Permission to Operate. Requirements and procedures that the waiver holder will use to obtain permission from property owners and/or local officials (e.g., police, fire departments, etc.) as appropriate for the conduct of all filming operations when using the waiver.

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(7) Security. Method of security that will be used to exclude all persons not directly involved with the operation from the location.

Note: This should also include the provision that will be used to stop activities when unauthorised persons, vehicles, or aircraft enter the operations area, or for any other reason, in the interest of safety. (8) Briefing of Pilot/Production Personnel. Procedures to brief personnel

of the risks involved, emergency procedures, and safeguards to be followed during the filming production event.

(9) Certification/Airworthiness. Procedures to ensure that required inspections will be conducted.

(10) Communications. Procedures to provide communications capability with all participants during the actual operation and filming.

Note: The applicant can use oral, visual, or radio communications as along as it keeps the participants continuously apprised of the current status of the operation. (11) Accident Notification. Procedures for notification and reporting of

accidents. SUBPART F

SIGHT-SEEING FLIGHTS 11.280 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart applies to those operations involving the carriage of persons

for viewing natural formations or manmade objects on the ground when those operations are conducted as part of a business enterprise or for compensation or hire; and

(b) The flight is unquestionably advertised as “sight-seeing”; and (c) The flight returns to the airport of departure without having landed at any

other airport; and (d) The certificated passenger capacity of the aircraft does not exceed 9

passengers. Note: Any other passenger carrying flight for remuneration, hire or valuable consideration must be conducted under an Air Operator Certificate (AOC).

11.285 CERTIFICATE OR AUTHORISATION REQUIRED (a) The Authority will require each person conducting operations covered by

this Subpart to hold a certificate or equivalent authorisation. (b) The Authority will issue a certificate or authorisation to each applicant who

qualifies for it under the provisions of this Subpart. (c) Each operator under this Subpart shall hold an operating certificate issued

under the provisions of this Schedule. 11.290 EXPERIENCE AND TRAINING REQUIREMENTS The requirements of Schedule 10 apply to all operations described by this Subpart. 11.295 OPERATING RULES The requirements of Schedule 10 apply to all operations described by this Subpart.

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SUBPART G FISH-SPOTTING

11.300 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart applies to those operations involving location, tracking, and

reporting on the location of fish and fish schools, when those operations are conducted as part of a business enterprise or for compensation or hire.

11.305 CERTIFICATE OR AUTHORISATION REQUIRED (a) The Authority will require each person conducting operations covered by

this Subpart to hold a certificate or equivalent authorisation. (b) The Authority will issue a certificate or authorisation to each applicant who

qualifies for it under the provisions of this Subpart. 11.310 OPERATING RULES (a) Each operator shall conduct operations so as not to endanger persons or

property on the surface nor aircraft in flight. (b) Minimum cloud clearance requirements and minimum altitude requirements of

Schedule 10 do not apply to those persons to whom the Authority has specifically approved different minimums as a part of an authorisation under this Subpart.

SUBPART H TRAFFIC REPORTING

11.315 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart applies to those operations involving the observation of, and

reporting on, vehicular traffic conditions on the highways and streets when conducted by aircraft or airmen, or both, not designated as solely public use.

11.320 CERTIFICATE OR AUTHORISATION REQUIRED (a) The Authority will require each person conducting operations covered by

this Subpart to hold a certificate or equivalent authorisation. (b) The Authority will issue a certificate or authorisation to each applicant who

qualifies for it under the provisions of this Subpart.

APPENDICES

APPENDIX 1 TO 11.080 OPERATION OVER CONGESTED AREAS: GENERAL

(a) Each certificate holder shall ensure that all single engine aircraft while in an congested area operate: (1) Except for helicopters, during take offs and turnarounds, with no load. (2) Not below the altitudes prescribed in Schedule 10 except during the actual

dispensing operation, including the approaches and departures necessary for that operation.

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(3) During the actual dispensing operation, including the approaches and departures for that operation, not below the altitudes prescribed in Schedule 10 unless it is in an area and at such an altitude that the aircraft can make an emergency landing without endangering persons or property on the surface.

(b) Each certificate holder shall ensure that all multi-engine aircraft while in an congested area operate: (1) During take off, under conditions that will allow the aeroplane to be

brought to a safe stop within the effective length of the runway from any point on takeoff up to the time of attaining, with all engines operating at normal takeoff power, 105 percent of the minimum control speed with the critical engine inoperative in the takeoff configuration or 115 percent of the power-off stall speed in the takeoff configuration, whichever is greater.

Note: Assume still-air conditions, and no correction for any uphill gradient of 1 percent or less when the percentage is measured as the difference between elevation at the end points of the runway divided by the total length. For uphill gradients greater than 1 percent, the effective takeoff length of the runway is reduced 20 percent for each 1-percent grade. (2) At a weight greater than the weight that, with the critical engine

inoperative, would permit a rate of climb of at least 50 feet per minute at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet above the elevation of the highest ground or obstruction within the area to be worked or at an altitude of 5,000 feet, whichever is higher. Assume that the propeller of the inoperative engine is in the minimum drag position; that the wing flaps and landing gear are in the most favourable positions; and that the remaining engine or engines are operating at the maximum continuous power available.

(3) Below the altitudes prescribed in Schedule 10 except during the actual dispensing operation, including the approaches, departures, and turn- arounds necessary for that operation.

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SCHEDULE 12

AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATION AND ADMINISTRATION

SUBPART A: GENERAL 12.001 Applicability 12.005 Definitions 12.010 Acronyms SUBPART B: AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATE 12.015 Compliance with an Air Operator Certificate 12.020 Application for an Air Operator Certificate 12.025 Issuance or Denial of Air Operator Certificate 12.030 Contents of Air Operator Certificate 12.035 Duration of an Air Operator Certificate 12.040 Amendment of an Air Operator Certificate SUBPART C: CERTIFICATION 12.060 Initial Certification Required 12.065 Subsequent Certification Required 12.070 Demonstration Flights 12.075 Extended Range Operations of Twin Engine Aircraft (ETOPS) 12.080 Dangerous Goods Certification SUBPART D: SURVEILLANCE AND REVALIDATION 12.100 Continuing Validation of the Certification Basis Required 12.105 Access for Inspection 12.110 Conducting Tests and Inspections SUBPART E: AOC ADMINISTRATION 12.130 Management Personnel Required for Commercial Air

Transport Operations 12.135 Base of Operations 12.140 Facilities 12.145 Submission and Revision of Policy and Procedure Manuals 12.150 Operations Schedules 12.155 Quality Audit Program 12.160 Security Programme SUBPART F: AOC HOLDER RECORDS 12.195 Record Completion Requirements 12.200 Retention and Maintenance of Personnel Records 12.205 Maintenance Personnel Qualification and Currency Records 12.210 Load Controller Qualification and Currency Records 12.215 Flight Crew Qualification and Currency Records 12.220 Cabin Crew Qualification and Currency Records 12.225 Crew Duty and Flight Time Records 12.227 Cosmic Radiation Dose Records 12.230 Operational Control Personnel Qualification Records 12.235 Aircraft Journey Log

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12.240 Aircraft Service and Maintenance Records 12.242 Deferred Defects Summary 12.245 Aircraft Inspection and Condition Summary Record 12.250 Load and Performance Planning Records 12.255 Operational Flight Planning Records 12.260 Aircraft-Specific Emergency and Survival Equipment Records 12.265 Flight Deck Voice and Flight Data Recorder Records SUBPART G: AIRCRAFT 12.300 Authorised Aircraft 12.305 Emergency Evacuation Demonstration 12.310 Ditching Demonstration 12.315 Dry Leasing of Foreign Registered Aircraft 12.320 Aircraft Interchange 12.325 Wet-Leasing SUBPART H: AOC FLIGHT OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT 12.350 Applicability 12.355 Operations Manual 12.360 Mandatory Material 12.365 Flight and Duty Time Limitations 12.370 Training Programme 12.375 Aircraft Operating Manual 12.377 Approved Flight Manual 12.380 Cockpit Check Procedure 12.385 Minimum Equipment List and Configuration Deviation List 12.390 Performance Planning Manual 12.395 Performance Data Control System 12.400 Aircraft Loading and Handling Manual 12.405 Mass and Balance Data Control System 12.410 Cabin Attendant Manual 12.415 Passenger Briefing Cards 12.420 Aeronautical Data Control System 12.425 Route Guide 12.430 Weather Reporting Sources 12.435 De-icing and Anti-icing Programme 12.440 Flight Supervision and Monitoring System 12.445 Flight Following or Flight Locating Systems 12.450 Communications Facilities 12.455 Routes and Areas of Operation 12.460 Navigational Accuracy 12.465 Minimum Safe Altitudes 12.470 Aerodrome Operating Minima 12.475 Flight Safety and Accident Prevention Programme SUBPART I: AOC MAINTENANCE REQUIREMENTS 12.525 Applicability 12.530 Maintenance Responsibility 12.535 Approval and Acceptance of AOC Maintenance Systems and

Programmes

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12.540 Maintenance Control Manual 12.542 Mandatory Material 12.545 Maintenance Management 12.550 Maintenance Quality System 12.555 Aircraft Technical Log Entries: AOC Holders 12.560 Maintenance Records 12.565 Release to Service or Maintenance Section Records of the

Technical Log 12.570 Modification and Repairs 12.575 Aircraft Maintenance Programme 12.580 Mandatory Airworthiness Material 12.585 Authority to Perform and Approve Maintenance, Preventive

Maintenance and Modifications 12.590 Required Inspection Personnel 12.595 Licence Requirements for a Technician — AOC Holder Using

Equivalent System

APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 12.130: Management Personnel Required for Commercial Air

Transport Operations Appendix 1 to 12.225: Contents of Crew Duty and Flight Time Records Appendix 1 to 12.235: Contents of Journey Log Appendix 1 to 12.240: Contents of the Aircraft Technical Log Contents Appendix 1 to 12.242: Contents of the Deferred Defects Log Appendix 1 to 12.245: Contents of Aircraft Inspection and Condition Summary Appendix 1 to 12.250: Contents of Load and Performance Manifest Form Appendix 1 to 12.255: Contents of Operational Flight Planning Form(s) Appendix 1 to 12.315: Dry Leasing of Foreign Registered Aircraft Appendix 1 to 13.320: Aircraft Interchange Appendix 1 to 12.325: Wet Leasing Appendix 1 to 12.355: Operations Manual Appendix 1 to 12.370: Training Programmes Manual Appendix 1 to 12.375: Aircraft Operating Manual Appendix 1 to 12.415: Passenger Briefing Cards Appendix 1 to 12.420: Aeronautical Data Control System Appendix 1 to 12.430: Weather Reporting Sources Appendix 1 to 12.435: De-icing and Anti-icing Programme Appendix 1 to 12.540: Contents of the Maintenance Control Manual Appendix 1 to 12.550: AOC Holder’s Additional Quality System for Maintenance

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SUBPART A GENERAL

12.001 APPLICABILITY (a) This Schedule applies to the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail for

remuneration or hire by persons whose principal place of business or permanent residence is located in The Bahamas.

(b) This Schedule of the regulations prescribes requirements for the original certification and continued validity of air operator certificates (AOC) issued by The Bahamas.

(c) Except where specifically noted, this Schedule applies to all commercial air transport operations by AOC holders for which The Bahamas is the State of the Operator under the definitions provided in Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention.

12.005 DEFINITIONS (a) For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply —

(1) Aircraft Technical Log. A document attached to an aircraft for recording defects and malfunctions discovered during operation and for recording details of all maintenance carried out whilst the aircraft is operating between scheduled visits to the base maintenance facility. It also contains operating information relevant to flight safety and maintenance data that the operating crew need to know.

(2) Air Taxi AOC Holder. This term applies to operators of aircraft with a maximum passenger seating capacity of 19 or less passengers. For AOC certification purposes, there are three general groupings of these air operators which involve differing requirements based on the complexity of the operation. These groupings are —

(i) Single Pilot Air Taxi; (ii) Basic Air Taxi; and

(iii) Commuter. (3) Airworthiness Release. The air operator’s aircraft are released for service

following maintenance by a person specifically authorised by the air operator rather than by an individual or maintenance organisation on their own behalf. In effect, the person signing the release acts in the capacity of an authorised agent for the operator and is certifying that the maintenance covered by the release was accomplished according to the air operator’s continuous maintenance program. Responsibility for each step of the accomplished maintenance is borne by the person signing for that step and the airworthiness release certifies the entire maintenance work package. This arrangement in no way reduces the responsibility of licenced aircraft maintenance technicians (AMT) or maintenance organisations for maintenance functions or tasks they perform or supervise. The air operator is obligated to designate, by name or occupational title, each licenced AMT or maintenance organisation authorised to execute the airworthiness release. In addition, the air operator should designate when a release is required. Normally, a release is required following inspections prescribed by the air operations specifications maintenance activities involving inspections, and any other significant maintenance.

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(4) Basic Air Taxi. An operator of non-turbojet aircraft having a maximum certificated configuration for nine or less passengers, that has no more than —

(i) 5 total aircraft, consisting of no more than 3 different types; and (ii) 5 total pilots-in-command.

(5) Cargo aircraft. Any aircraft carrying goods or property but not passengers. In this context the following are not considered to be passengers:

(i) A crew member. (ii) An operator’s employee permitted by, and carried in accordance

with, the instructions contained in the Operations Manual. (iii) An authorised representative of an Authority. (iv) A person with duties in respect of a particular shipment on board.

(6) Commuter Air Taxi. An operator of non-turbojet aircraft with a maximum passenger seating capacity of 19 or less passengers and —

(i) A fleet of more than 5 aircraft with a maximum capacity of 9 passengers or less;

(ii) A fleet of more than 3 different types of aircraft with a maximum capacity of 9 passengers or less; and/or

(iii) Operating 1 or more aircraft with a maximum passenger capacity of more than 9 passengers.

(7) Directly in Charge. A person assigned to a position in which he or she is responsible for the work of a shop or station that performed maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications, or other functions affecting aircraft airworthiness.

(8) Equivalent system of maintenance. An AOC holder may conduct maintenance activities through an arrangement with an AMO or may conduct its own maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, so long as the AOC holder’s maintenance system is approved by the Authority and is equivalent to that of an AMO, except that the approval for return to service of an aircraft/aeronautical product shall be made by an appropriately licenced aviation maintenance technician or aviation repair specialists in accordance with Schedule 2, as appropriate.

(9) Holdover time. The estimated time de-icing/anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of frost or ice and the accumulation of snow on the protected surfaces of an aircraft. Holdover time begins when the final application of de-icing or anti-icing fluid commences and expires when the de-icing or anti-icing fluid applied to the aircraft loses its effectiveness.

(10) Interchange agreement. A leasing agreement which permits an air carrier to dry lease and take or relinquish operational control of an aircraft at an airport.

(11) Maintenance Control Manual. A manual containing procedures, instructions and guidance for use by maintenance and concerned operational personnel in the execution of their duties.

(12) Operations manual. A manual containing procedures, instructions and guidance for use by operational personnel in the execution of their duties.

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(13) Single Pilot Air Taxi. An operator of non-turbojet aircraft having a maximum certificated configuration for nine or less passengers, that has no more than —

(i) 1 aircraft; and (ii) 1 pilot-in-command.

12.010 ACRONYMS (a) The following acronyms are used in this Schedule:

(1) AOC — Air Operator Certificate (2) AMO — Approved Maintenance Organisation (3) ATP — Air Transport Pilot (4) CDL — Configuration Deviation List (5) MEL — Minimum Equipment List (6) UN — United Nations

SUBPART B AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATE

12.015 COMPLIANCE WITH AN AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATE (a) No operator may operate an aircraft in commercial air transport unless that

operator holds an AOC for the operations being conducted. (b) No person may operate an aircraft in commercial air transport operations

that are not authorised by the terms and conditions of its AOC. (c) The AOC holder shall, at all times, continue in compliance with the AOC terms,

conditions of issuance, and maintenance requirements in order to hold that certificate.

12.020 APPLICATION FOR AN AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATE (a) An operator applying to the Authority for an AOC shall submit an

application — (1) In a form and manner prescribed by the Authority; and (2) Containing any information the Authority requires the applicant to

submit. (b) Each applicant shall make the application for an initial issue of an AOC at

least 90 days before the date of intended operation, except the Operations Manual and Maintenance Control Manual which may be submitted later than but not less than 60 days before the date of intended operation.

(c) An applicant who is requesting to be a Single Pilot Air Taxi shall make application at least 30 days prior to the date of intended operation.

12.025 ISSUANCE OR DENIAL OF AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATE (a) The Authority may issue an AOC if, after investigation, the Authority finds that

the applicant — (1) Is a citizen of The Bahamas; (2) Has its principal place of business and its registered office, if any, located

in The Bahamas;

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(3) Meets the applicable regulations and standards for the holder of an AOC; (4) Is properly and adequately equipped for safe operations in commercial

air transport and maintenance of the aircraft; and (5) Holds the economic authority issued by the The Bahamas under the

provisions of the Civil Aviation Act. (b) The Authority may deny application for an AOC if the Authority finds that —

(1) The applicant is not properly or adequately equipped or is not able to conduct safe operations in commercial air transport;

(2) The applicant previously held an AOC which was revoked; or (3) An individual that contributed to the circumstances causing the

revocation process of an AOC obtains a substantial ownership or is employed in a position required by this regulation.

12.030 CONTENTS OF AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATE (a) The AOC will consist of two documents —

(1) A one-page certificate for public display signed by the Authority; and (2) Multi-page AOC operations specifications containing the terms and

conditions applicable to the AOC holder’s certificate. (b) The Authority will issue an AOC which will contain —

(1) The name and location (main place of business) of the AOC holder; (2) The date of issue and period of validity for each page issued; (3) A description of the type of operations authorised; (4) The type(s) of aircraft(s) authorised for use; (5) The authorised areas of operations and/or routes; and (6) Other special authorisations, approvals and limitations issued by the

Authority in accordance with the standards which are applicable to the operations and maintenance conducted by the AOC holder.

12.035 DURATION OF AN AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATE (a) An AOC, or any portion of the AOC, issued by the Authority is effective until —

(1) The Authority amends, suspends, revokes or otherwise terminates the certificate;

(2) The AOC holder surrenders it to the Authority; (3) The AOC holder suspends operations for more than 60 days; or (4) Twelve calendar months, whichever comes first.

12.040 AMENDMENT OF AN AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATE (a) The Authority may amend any AOC if —

(1) The Authority determines that safety in commercial air transport and the public interest require the amendment; or

(2) The AOC holder applies for an amendment, and the Authority determines that safety in commercial air transport and the public interest allows the amendment.

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(b) If the Authority stipulates in writing that an emergency exists requiring immediate amendment in the public interest with respect to safety in commercial air transportation, such an amendment is effective without stay on the date the AOC holder receives notice.

(c) An AOC holder may appeal the amendment, but shall operate in accordance with it, unless it is subsequently withdrawn.

(d) Amendments proposed by the Authority, other than emergency amendments, become effective 30 days after notice to the AOC holder, unless the AOC holder appeals the proposal in writing prior to the effective date. The filing of an appeal stays the effective date until the appeal process is completed.

(e) Amendments proposed by the AOC holder shall be made at least 30 days prior to the intended date of any operation under that amendment.

(f) No person may perform a commercial air transport operation for which an AOC amendment is required, unless it has received notice of the approval from the Authority.

SUBPART C CERTIFICATION

12.060 INITIAL CERTIFICATION REQUIRED (a) Prior to the issuance of an AOC, the applicant must be originally

certificated in accordance with the system of certification used by the Authority.

12.065 SUBSEQUENT CERTIFICATION REQUIRED (a) Unless addressed in the initial certification, subsequent requests for the

following amendments to AOC operating authority for the following, require completion of a full certification process prior to operation — (1) Adding variant aircraft; (2) All weather operations, such as Category II and III approaches to the

AOC (3) RNP-10 navigation (4) Operations in the North Atlantic MNPS airspace; (5) Operations in RVSM airspace; (6) ER operations; and (7) ETOPS.

12.070 DEMONSTRATION FLIGHTS (a) No person may operate an aircraft type in commercial air transport unless it

first conducts satisfactory demonstration flights for the Authority in that aircraft type.

(b) No person may operate an aircraft in a designated special area, or using a specialised navigation system, unless it conducts a satisfactory demonstration flight for the Authority.

(c) Demonstration flights required by paragraph (a) shall be conducted in accordance with the regulations applicable to the type of operation and aircraft type used.

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(d) The Authority may authorise deviations from this section if the Authority finds that special circumstances make full compliance with this section unnecessary.

(e) This demonstration flight is not required for Single Pilot or Basic Air Taxi operators who receive their initial proficiency checks from authorised persons designated by the Authority.

12.075 EXTENDED RANGE OPERATIONS OF TWIN ENGINE AIRCRAFT (ETOPS)

(a) No person may conduct ETOPS operations unless the Authority has determined the adequacy of — (1) airworthiness certification of the aeroplane type; (2) reliability of the propulsion system; (3) maintenance procedures; (4) operating practises; (5) flight dispatch procedures; and (6) crew training programmes.

(b) In making this certification evaluation, the Authority shall take into account the route to be flown, the anticipated operating conditions and the location of adequate en route alternate aerodromes. The approval of these operations will consider — (1) The airworthiness certification of the aeroplane type; (2) The reliability of the propulsion system; (3) The operator’s maintenance procedures; (4) The operator’s operating practices; (5) The operator’s flight dispatch procedures; and (6) The operator’s crew training program.

12.080 DANGEROUS GOODS CERTIFICATION (a) No person may conduct operations involving transportation of dangerous

goods by air prior to completing a certification process addressing the requirements of Schedule 18.

SUBPART D SURVEILLANCE AND REVALIDATION

12.100 CONTINUING VALIDATION OF THE CERTIFICATION BASIS REQUIRED

(a) The AOC holder shall be subject to a continuing system of surveillance administered by the Authority to validate the original certification basis.

12.105 ACCESS FOR INSPECTION (a) To determine continued compliance with the applicable regulations, the

AOC holder shall — (1) Grant the Authority access to and co-operation with any of its

organisations, facilities and aircraft;

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(2) Ensure that the Authority is granted access to and co-operation with any organisation or facilities that it has contracted for services associated with commercial air transport operations and maintenance for services; and

(3) Grant the Authority free and uninterrupted access to the flight deck of the aircraft during flight operations.

(b) The AOC holder shall provide to the Authority a forward observer’s position on each of the AOC holder’s aircraft from which the flight crew’s actions and conversations may be easily observed. Note: The suitability of the seat location and the ability to monitor crew member actions, conversations and radio communications is determined by the Authority.

(c) The forward observer’s position (seat, oxygen mask and interphone system) shall be operational at all times. In the event that the seat is determined not to be operational by the Authority, the AOC holder will — (1)Provide a seat in the cabin for the Authority; and (2) Make the necessary repairs to the forward observer’s position within

three days.

12.110 CONDUCTING TESTS AND INSPECTIONS (a) The Authority will conduct on-going validation of the AOC holders

continued eligibility to hold its AOC and associated approvals. (b) The AOC holder shall allow the Authority to conduct tests and inspections,

at any time or place, to determine whether an AOC holder is complying with the applicable laws, regulations and AOC terms and conditions.

(c) The AOC holder shall make available at its principal base of operations — (1) All portions of its current Air Operator Certificate; (2) All portions of its Operations and Maintenance Manuals; and (3) A current listing that includes the location and individual positions

responsible for each record, document and report required to be kept by the AOC holder under the applicable aviation law, regulations or standards.

(d) The Single Pilot AOC holder shall make its records available to the CAD upon request, either at the CAD offices in Nassau or other location stipulated by the CAD.

(e) Failure by any AOC holder to make available to the Authority upon request, all portions of the AOC, Operations and Maintenance Manuals and any required record, document or report is grounds for suspension of all or part of the AOC.

SUBPART E AOC ADMINISTRATION

12.130 MANAGEMENT PERSONNEL REQUIRED FOR COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT OPERATIONS

(a) The AOC holder shall have an accountable manager, acceptable to the Authority, who has corporate authority for ensuring that all flight operations and maintenance activities can be financed and carried out to the highest degree of safety standards required by the Authority.

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(b) When conducting commercial air transport operations, the AOC holder shall have qualified personnel, with proven competency in civil aviation, available and serving in the following positions or their equivalent: (1) Director of Operations. (2) Chief Pilot. (3) Director of Safety. (4) Director of Maintenance (5) Quality Manager. See Appendix 1 to 12.100 for additional management personnel requirements. Note: “Competency in civil aviation” means that an individual shall have a technical qualification and management experience acceptable to the Authority for the position served.

(c) The Authority may approve positions or numbers of positions, other than those listed, if the AOC holder is able to show that it can perform the operation with the highest degree of safety under the direction of fewer or different categories of management personnel due to — (1) The kind of operations involved; (2) The number of aircraft used; and (3) The area of operation.

(d) A Single Pilot Air Taxi operator is only required to have an accountable manager acceptable to the Authority.

12.135 BASE OF OPERATIONS (a) The AOC holder that is not authorised to conduct maintenance under its

AOC certificate shall maintain a principal base of operations. (b) The AOC holder that is authorised to conduct maintenance under its AOC

certificate shall maintain a principal base of operations and maintenance. (c) An AOC holder may establish a main operations base and a main

maintenance base at the same location or at separate locations. (d) The AOC holder shall provide written notification of intent to the Authority at

least 30 days before it proposes to establish or change the location of either base. (e) A Single Pilot Air Taxi operator is not required to have an operations or

maintenance base, but must identify the location and person assigned to retain its required records, and provide free and interrupted access to those records.

12.140 FACILITIES (a) Each operator shall maintain operational and airworthiness support facilities at

the main operating base, appropriate for the area and type of operation. (b) The AOC holder shall arrange appropriate ground handling facilities at

each airport used to ensure the safe servicing and loading of its flights. (c) The Single Pilot or Basic Air Taxi operator is not required to maintain support

facilities or personnel, but must be present at the aircraft when support activities are being provided.

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12.145 SUBMISSION AND REVISION OF POLICY AND PROCEDURE MANUALS

(a) Each manual required by this Schedule must: (1) Include instructions and information necessary to allow the personnel

concerned to perform their duties and responsibilities with a high degree of safety;

(2) Be in a form that is easy to revise and contains a system which allows personnel to determine the current revision status of each manual;

(3) Have a date of the last revision on each page concerned; (4) Not be contrary to any applicable The Bahamas regulation and the

AOC holder’s operations specifications; and (5) Each manual will include a reference to appropriate civil aviation

regulations. (b) No person may cause the use of any policy and procedure for flight operations

or airworthiness function prior to co-ordination with the Authority. (c) The AOC holder shall submit the proposed policy or procedure to the

Authority at least 30 days prior to the date of intended implementation.

12.150 OPERATIONS SCHEDULES In establishing flight operations schedules, the AOC holder conducting scheduled operations shall allow enough time for the proper servicing of aircraft at intermediate stops, and shall consider the prevailing winds en route and cruising speed for the type of aircraft. This cruising speed may not be more than that resulting from the specified cruising output of the engines. 12.155 QUALITY AUDIT PROGRAM (a) The AOC holder may establish a quality audit program and designate

technically qualified auditor(s) who will monitor compliance with, and adequacy of, procedures required to ensure safe operational practices and airworthy aircraft. Compliance monitoring shall include a feedback system to the accountable manager to ensure corrective action as necessary.

(b) The AOC holder shall ensure that each quality system includes a quality assurance programme that contains procedures designed to verify that all operations are being conducted in accordance with all applicable requirements, standards and procedures.

(c) The quality audit program, and the quality auditor(s) manager, shall be acceptable to the Authority.

(d) The AOC holder shall describe the quality audit system in relevant documenta- tion.

(e) Notwithstanding (a) above, the Authority may accept the nomination of two quality audit persons, one for operations and one for maintenance.

(f) The Air Taxi AOC holder is not required to establish a quality audit program, but must submit to inspections by authorised persons designated by the Authority.

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12.160 SECURITY PROGRAMME (a) The AOC holder shall have a security programme to ensure that —

(1) All appropriate personnel are familiar, and comply with, the relevant requirements of the national security programmes of the State of the Operator.

(2) These employees are acquainted with preventive measures and techniques in relation to passengers, luggage, cargo, mail, equipment, stores and supplies intended for carriage on an aircraft so that they contributed to the prevention of acts of sabotage or other forms of unlawful interference.

(3) These personnel are able to take appropriate action to prevent acts of unlawful interference such as sabotage or unlawful seizure of aircraft and to minimise the consequences of such events should they occur.

(4) A report of unlawful inference with a crew member is made, without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority in the State of the operator.

(5) That all aircraft carry a checklist of the procedures to be followed for that type aircraft in searching for concealed weapons, explosives, or other dangerous devices.

(6) This checklist shall be supported by guidance — (i) On the course of action to be taken should a bomb or suspicious

object be found; and (ii) Information on the least-risk location specific to the aircraft.

Note: The Authority recommends that the AOC holder provide a specialized means of attenuating and directing the blast at the least risk bomb location. (7) If any weapons are removed from the passengers or accepted for such

carriage, there shall be a procedure in the Operations Manual regarding the proper method to stow such weapons in a place so that they are inaccessible to any person during flight time.

SUBPART F AOC HOLDER RECORDS

12.195 RECORD COMPLETION REQUIREMENTS (a) Each record required for AOC holder operations and maintenance purposes

shall be completed in ink or indelible pen, unless otherwise approved by the Authority.

12.200 RETENTION AND MAINTENANCE OF PERSONNEL RECORDS (a) The AOC holder shall maintain current records which detail the

qualifications and training of all its employees, and contract employees, involved in the operational control, flight operations, ground operations and maintenance of the air operator.

(b) The AOC holder shall maintain records for those employees performing crew member or operational control duties in sufficient detail to determine whether the employee meets the experience and qualification for duties in commercial air transport operations.

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(c) This record, its contents, layout and the procedures for its use shall be approved by the Authority prior to its use in commercial air transport.

(d) This record shall be identifiable to the AOC holder and the specific individual.

(e) This record shall be retained by the AOC holder in safe custody for at least six months after the individual is no longer employed by the AOC holder.

(f) The Authority will also consider approval of a computer-based method for keeping any portion of this information. Without this approval, any such computer records used by the AOC holder shall be secondary to the approved method in priority of updating and usage at the operational level.

12.205 MAINTENANCE PERSONNEL QUALIFICATION AND CURRENCY RECORDS

(a) The AOC holder shall have a record of the maintenance person’s qualification and currency with respect to all Schedule requirements for these persons.

12..210 LOAD CONTROLLER QUALIFICATION AND CURRENCY RECORDS (a) The AOC holder shall have a record of the load controller’s qualification

and currency with respect to all Schedule requirements for these persons. 12.215 FLIGHT CREW QUALIFICATION AND CURRENCY RECORDS (a) The AOC holder shall have a record of the flight crew member’s

qualification and currency with respect to all Schedule requirements for these crew members.

(b) Each flight crew member shall be provided a current summary record showing their completion of initial and recurrent qualification requirements.

12.220 CABIN CREW QUALIFICATION AND CURRENCY RECORDS (a) The AOC holder shall have a record of the cabin crew member’s

qualification and currency with respect to all Schedule requirements for these crew members.

(b) Each cabin crew member shall be provided a current summary record showing their completion of initial and recurrent qualification requirements.

12.225 CREW DUTY AND FLIGHT TIME RECORDS (a) The AOC holder shall have a record of the flight and cabin crew members’

assigned and actual duty and flight time and minimum rest periods with respect to all Schedule 15 requirements for these crew members. See Appendix 1 to 12.225 for the contents of the duty and flight time records.

12.227 COSMIC RADIATION DOSE RECORDS (a) The AOC holder shall maintain records which would allow the total cosmic

radiation dose received by their crew members over the previous 12 calendar months to be determined.

12.230 OPERATIONAL CONTROL PERSONNEL QUALIFICATION RECORDS

(a) The AOC holder shall have a record of the qualification of its operational control personnel with respect to Schedule 14 and 16 requirements for these persons.

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12.235 AIRCRAFT JOURNEY LOG (a) The AOC holder shall have an aircraft journey log that contains the record

of all flights made by that aircraft (b) This log, its contents, layout and procedures for its use shall be approved by

the Authority prior to its use in commercial air transport. (c) Each page shall be identifiable to the AOC holder, separately numbered

with a unique number and shall be arranged chronologically in a bound document.

(d) This uniquely numbered, bound document will be assigned to a specific aircraft operated by the AOC holder until all pages are used.

(e) This document shall be retained by the AOC in safe custody for at least six months after the last date of the records contained in it.

(f) If the AOC holder desires to use a different methodology, it must submit the forms and procedures to the Authority for technical evaluation and approval, prior to use of the different methodology in commercial air transport.

12.240 AIRCRAFT SERVICE AND MAINTENANCE RECORDS (a) The AOC holder shall have an aircraft technical log that contains the record

of all servicing, defects, trend monitoring and maintenance tasks and tests on that aircraft during the course of its operations.

(b) This log, its contents, layout and the procedures for its use shall be approved by the Authority prior to its use in commercial air transport.

(c) Each page shall be identifiable to the AOC holder, separately numbered with a unique number and shall be arranged chronologically in a bound document.

(d) Each numbered page shall be provided in triplicate; a white original page, a light pink, carbonless, detachable page and a light yellow, carbonless, detachable page.

(e) This uniquely numbered, bound document will be assigned to a specific aircraft operated by the AOC holder until all pages are used.

(f) This document shall be retained by the AOC holder in safe custody as long as the aircraft is operated, or for three months, whichever is longer.

(g) If the AOC holder desires to use a different methodology, it must submit the forms and procedures to the Authority for technical evaluation and approval, prior to use of the different methodology in commercial air transport. See Appendix 1 to 12.240 for the contents of the Aircraft Technical Log.

12.242 DEFERRED DEFECTS SUMMARY (a) The AOC holder shall have on each aircraft, a log of the deferred defects

for that aircraft that is attached to or aligned with the Aircraft Technical Log.

(b) This log may be included in the printed Aircraft Technical Log or attached in some manner to the cover of that log and will include the information prescribed by the Authority.

(c) This document shall be retained by the AOC holder in safe custody as long as the aircraft is operated. See Appendix 1 to 12.242 for the contents of the Deferred Defects Log.

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12.245 AIRCRAFT INSPECTION AND CONDITION SUMMARY RECORD (a) The AOC holder shall cause to be carried on each aircraft operated, a

summary record of that aircraft’s airframe, engine, propellers, components and equipment current maintenance and condition with respect to — (1) Required inspections; (2) Required replacement times; and (3) Airworthiness Directive compliance.

(b) This record will be in form and manner acceptable to the Authority. See Appendix 1 to 12.245 for the contents of the Aircraft Inspection and Condition Summary.

12.250 LOAD AND PERFORMANCE PLANNING RECORDS (a) The AOC holder shall have an aircraft-specific load manifest to summarize

the mass and balance and performance calculations for each flight in commercial air transport.

(b) This manifest, its contents, layout and the procedures for its use shall be approved by the Authority prior to its use in commercial air transport.

(c) Each page shall be identifiable to the AOC holder, separately numbered with a unique number and shall be arranged chronologically in a bound document.

(d) Each numbered page shall be provided in duplicate; a white original page and a light yellow, carbonless, detachable page.

(e) This uniquely numbered, bound document will be assigned to a specific aircraft operated by the AOC holder until all pages are used.

(f) This document, and the supporting passenger information and cargo waybills, shall be retained by the AOC holder in safe custody for at least three months.

(g) If the AOC holder desires to use a different methodology, it must submit the forms and procedures to the Authority for technical evaluation and approval, prior to use of the different methodology in commercial air transport. See Appendix 1 to 12.250 for the contents of the Load and Performance Manifest.

12.255 OPERATIONAL FLIGHT PLANNING RECORDS (a) The AOC holder shall have an operational flight planning document to

record the planned route information, minimum fuel calculations, applicable weather conditions and notams and alternate airport selections for each flight in commercial air transport.

(b) This operational flight planning document, its contents, layout and the procedures for its use shall be approved by the Authority prior to its use in commercial air transport.

(c) Each page shall be identifiable to the AOC holder, separately numbered with a unique number and shall be arranged chronologically in a bound document.

(d) Each numbered page shall be provided in duplicate; a white original page and a light green, carbonless, detachable page.

(e) This uniquely numbered, bound document will be assigned to a specific aircraft operated by the AOC holder until all pages are used.

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(f) This document, and the supporting documents, shall be retained by the AOC holder in safe custody for at least three months.

(g) If the AOC holder desires to use a different methodology, it must submit the forms and procedures to the Authority for technical evaluation and approval, prior to use of the different methodology in commercial air transport. See Appendix 1 to 12.255 for the contents of the Operational Flight Planning.

12.260 AIRCRAFT-SPECIFIC EMERGENCY AND SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT RECORDS

(a) The AOC holder shall at all times have available for immediate communication to rescue co-ordination centres, lists containing information on the emergency and survival equipment carried on board any of their aircraft engaged in commercial air transport.

(b) This information shall include, as applicable, the — (1) number, colour and type of life rafts and pyrotechnics; (2) details of emergency medical supplies; (3) water supplies; and (4) type and frequencies of the emergency portable radio equipment.

12.265 FLIGHT DECK VOICE AND FLIGHT DATA RECORDER RECORDS (a) The AOC holder which operates aircraft required to have the flight voice

and data recorders installed shall: (1) Conduct operational checks and evaluations of flight recorder

recordings to ensure the continued serviceability of the recorders; (2) Retain the most recent flight data recorder calibration, including the

recording medium from which this calibration is derived; and (3) Retain the flight data recorder correlation for one aircraft of any group

of aircraft operated by the AOC holder — (i) That are of the same type;

(ii) On which the model flight recorder and its installation are the same; and

(iii) On which there is no difference in type design with respect to the original installation of instruments associated with the recorder.

(b) In the event that the aircraft becomes involved in an accident or occurrence requiring immediate notification of the Authority, the AOC holder shall remove and keep recorded information from the flight deck voice recorder and flight data recorder in safe custody pending their disposition as determined by the Authority.

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SUBPART G AIRCRAFT

12.300 AUTHORISED AIRCRAFT (a) No person may operate an aircraft in commercial air transport unless that

aircraft has an appropriate current airworthiness certificate, is in an airworthy condition, and meets the applicable airworthiness requirements for these operations, including those related to identification and equipment.

(b) No person may operate any specific type of aircraft in commercial air transport until it has completed satisfactory initial certification, which includes the issuance of an AOC amendment listing that type of aircraft.

(c) No person may operate additional or replacement aircraft of a type for which it is currently authorised unless it can show that each aircraft has completed an evaluation process for inclusion in the AOC holder’s fleet.

12.305 EMERGENCY EVACUATION DEMONSTRATION (a) No person may use an aircraft type and model in commercial air transport

passenger-carrying operations unless it has first conducted, for the Authority, an actual full capacity emergency evacuation demonstration for the configuration in 90 seconds or less.

(b) The full capacity actual demonstration may not be required, if the AOC holder provides a written petition for deviation with evidence that — (1) A satisfactory full capacity emergency evacuation for the aircraft to be

operated was demonstrated during the aircraft type certification or during the certification of another air operator; and

(2) There is an engineering analysis, which shows that an evacuation is still possible within the 90-second standard, if the AOC holder’s aircraft configuration differs with regard to number of exits or exit type or number of cabin attendants or location of the attendants.

(c) If a full capacity demonstration is not required, no person may use an aircraft type and model in commercial air transport passenger-carrying operations unless it has first demonstrated to the Authority that its available personnel, procedures and equipment could provide sufficient open exits for evacuation in 15 seconds or less.

(d) This demonstration is not required for aircraft configured for 19 or less passengers unless the Authority determines that there is an operational need for this evaluation.

12.310 DITCHING DEMONSTRATION (a) No person may use a land plane in overwater operations unless they have

first demonstrated to the Authority that it has the ability and equipment to efficiently carry out their ditching procedures.

12.315 DRY LEASING OF FOREIGN REGISTERED AIRCRAFT (a) An AOC holder may dry-lease a foreign-registered aircraft for commercial air

transport as approved by the Authority.

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(b) No person may be approved to operate a foreign registered aircraft unless — (1) the Authority has determined the extent of the State of Registry’s

arrangements for continuing airworthiness and find that these arrangements are adequate for the type of operation;

(2) The Authority will have free and uninterrupted access, both in The Bahamas and at any international location, —

(i) to the aircraft on the ramp and during flight time; (ii) the maintenance and operations facilities; (iii) the maintenance and operations personnel; (iv) the training facilities and simulators used;

(3) the aircraft must be operated in accordance with the regulations applicable to Bahamian AOC holders; and

(4) the maintenance arrangements must result in the aircraft always being in compliance with the State of Registry requirements and the maintenance requirements applicable to Bahamian AOC holders.

(c) The Authority will consider, upon request, an continuing airworthiness agreement between the Authority and the State of Registry under Article 83 bis to the State of Registry if that State will agree to transfer the necessary powers so that — (1) the airworthiness regulations of The Bahamas applicable to AOC

holders are in force; and (2) the agreement acknowledges that the Authority shall have free and

uninterrupted access to the aircraft at any place and any time. See Appendix 1 to 12.185 for additional requirements for dry leasing of foreign-registered aircraft.

12.320 AIRCRAFT INTERCHANGE No person may interchange aircraft with another AOC holder without the

approval of the Authority. See Appendix 1 to 12.190 for requirements pertaining to aircraft interchange agreements approved by the Authority.

12.325 WET-LEASING (a) No person may conduct wet-lease operations on behalf of another air operator

except in accordance with the applicable laws and regulations of the country in which the operation occurs and the restrictions imposed by the Authority.

(b) No person may allow another entity or air operator to conduct wet-lease operations on its behalf unless — (1) That air operator holds an AOC or its equivalent from a Contracting

State that authorises those operations; and (2) The AOC holder advises the Authority of such operations and provides

a copy of the AOC under which the operation was conducted. See Appendix 1 to 12.195 for additional requirements when wet leasing aircraft.

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SUBPART H AOC FLIGHT OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT

12.350 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart provides those certification requirements that apply to

management of flight operations personnel and their functions.

12.355 OPERATIONS MANUAL (a) The AOC holder shall issue to the crew members and persons assigned

operational control functions, an Operations Manual acceptable to the Authority.

(b) The Operations Manual shall contain the overall (general) company policies and procedures regarding the flight operations it conducts.

(c) The AOC holder shall prepare and keep current an Operations Manual which contains the AOC procedures and policies for the use and guidance of its personnel. This manual shall be amended or revised as is necessary to ensure that the information contained therein is kept up-to-date.

(d) The AOC holder shall issue the Operations Manual, or pertinent portions, together with all amendments and revisions to all personnel that are required to use it.

(e) No person may provide for use of its personnel in commercial air transport any Operations Manual or portion of this manual which has not been reviewed and found acceptable or approved for the AOC holder by the Authority.

(f) The AOC holder shall ensure that the contents of the Operations Manual includes at least those subjects designated by the Authority that are applicable to the AOC holder’s operations, including any additional materials made mandatory by the Authority. See Appendix 1 to 12.355 for contents of an operations manual.

(g) Unless otherwise acceptable to the Authority, The AOC holder shall provide an Operations Manual containing information on operations administration and supervision, accident prevention and flight safety programmes, personnel training, flight crew and cabin attendant fatigue and flight time limitations, flight operations, aeroplane performance, routes, guides and charts, minimum flight altitudes, aerodrome operating minima, search and rescue, dangerous goods, navigation, communications, security, and human factors. The operations manual shall encompass the matters set forth above. The operations manual may be published in parts, as a single document, or as a series of volumes. Specific subjects are listed below. Subjects presented with reference to a specific section shall be addressed in accordance with the requirements of the referenced section. (1) Aircraft Operating Manual. (2) Minimum Equipment List and Configuration Deviation List. (3) Training Programme. (4) Aircraft Performance Planning Manual. (5) Route Guide. (6) Dangerous Goods Procedures.

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(7) Accident Reporting Procedures. (8) Security Procedures. (9) Aircraft Loading and Handling Manual. (10) Cabin Attendant Manual (if required).

(h) The Single Pilot Air Taxi operator is not required to provide all contents of an Operations Manual, but must carry operations and maintenance information and completed forms prescribed by the Authority in the aircraft during commercial air transport flights.

12.360 MANDATORY MATERIAL (a) Upon receipt of material the Authority prescribes as mandatory for

inclusion in any portion of the Operations Manual, the AOC holder shall make the necessary amendments as soon as reasonably possible.

12.365 FLIGHT AND DUTY TIME LIMITATIONS (a) The AOC holder is required to receive approval of the policy, procedures

and record completion and retention for the flight and duty time scheme it uses with respect to its key operations personnel.

12.370 TRAINING PROGRAMME (a) The AOC holder shall ensure that all operations personnel are properly

instructed in their duties and responsibilities and the relationship of such duties to the operation as a whole.

(b) The AOC holder shall have a training programme manual approved by the Authority containing the general training, checking, and record keeping policies.

(c) The AOC holder shall have approval of the Authority prior to using a training curriculum for the purpose of qualifying a crew member, or person performing operational control functions, for duties in commercial air transport, including — (1) the types of aircraft on which the crew members serve; (2) the ground and flight training facilities (3) the qualification of the instructors; and (4) knowledge and skills of human performance.

(d) The AOC holder shall submit to the Authority any revision to an approved training programme, and shall receive written approval from the Authority before that revision can be used. See Appendix 1 to 12.370 for a training program manual outline.

(e) The Air Taxi AOC holder is required to conform to the training programme approved by the Authority and receive the proficiency and route checks from authorised persons designated by the Authority.

12.375 AIRCRAFT OPERATING MANUAL (a) The AOC holder or applicant shall submit proposed aircraft operating manuals

for each type and variant of aircraft operated, containing the normal, abnormal and emergency procedures relating to the operation of the aircraft for approval by the Authority.

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(b) Each Aircraft Operating Manual shall be based upon the aircraft manufacturer’s data for the specific aircraft type and variant operated by the AOC holder and shall include specific operating parameters, details of the aircraft system, and of the check lists to be used applicable to the operations of the AOC that are approved by the Authority.

(c) The design of the manual shall observe human factors principles. (d) The Aircraft Operating Manual shall be issued to the flight crew members

and persons assigned operational control functions to each aircraft operated by the AOC. See Appendix 1 to 12.375 presents an outline for an Aircraft Operating Manual that combines numerous manual requirements.

(e) The Air Taxi AOC holder may use a current copy of the manufacturers pilot’s operating handbook acceptable to the Authority that must be carried on the aircraft.

12.377 APPROVED FLIGHT MANUAL (a) The AOC holder shall update the aircraft’s AFM or RFM as required by the

State of Registry. (b) The AOC holder shall update their Aircraft Operating Manual (AOM) when

any AFM or RFM revision affects information also contained in the AOM.

12.380 COCKPIT CHECK PROCEDURE (a) The AOC holder shall issue to the flight crews and make available on each

aircraft, the flight deck condensed checklist procedures approved by the Authority appropriate to for the type and variant of aircraft.

(b) The AOC holder shall ensure that approved procedures include each item necessary for flight crew members to check for safety before starting engines, taking off, or landing, and for engine and systems abnormalities and emergencies.

(c) The AOC holder shall make the approved procedures readily useable in the cockpit of each aircraft and the flight crew shall be required to follow them when operating the aircraft.

(d) The AOC holder shall ensure that the checklist procedures are designed so that a flight crew member will not need to rely upon their memory for items to be checked.

(e) The design and utilization of checklists shall observe relevant human factors principles.

12.385 MINIMUM EQUIPMENT LIST AND CONFIGURATION DEVIATION LIST

(a) The AOC holder shall provide for the use of the flight crew members, maintenance personnel and persons assigned operational control function during the performance of their duties, an MEL approved by the Authority.

(b) The MEL shall be specific to the aircraft type and variant which contains the circumstances, limitations and procedures for release or continuance of flight of the aircraft with inoperative components, equipment or instruments.

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(c) Each AOC holder may provide for the use of flight crew, maintenance personnel and persons assigned operational control functions during the performance of their duties a Configuration Deviation List (CDL) specific to the aircraft type if one is provided and approved by the State of Design. An AOC Holder operations manual shall contain those procedures acceptable to the Authority for operations in accordance with the CDL requirements.

12.390 PERFORMANCE PLANNING MANUAL (a) The AOC holder shall issue operating instructions and provide information

on aeroplane climb performance with all engines operating and the loss of one engine to enable the PIC to determine the minimum runway length and climb gradient that can be achieved during the departure phase for the existing take-off conditions and intended takeoff techniques.

(b) The AOC holder shall provide for the use of the flight crew members and persons assigned operational control functions during the performance of their duties, a performance planning manual acceptable to the Authority.

(c) The performance planning manual shall be specific to aircraft type and variant which contains adequate performance information to accurately calculate the performance in all normal phases of flight operation.

(d) The Air Taxi AOC holder may use the performance data provided in the current manufacturer’s pilot operating handbook.

12.395 PERFORMANCE DATA CONTROL SYSTEM (a) The AOC holder shall have a system approved by the Authority for

obtaining, maintaining and distributing to appropriate personnel current performance data for each aircraft, route and airport that it uses.

(b) The system approved by the Authority shall provide current obstacle data, and take into account the charting accuracy of such obstacles, for departure and arrival performance calculations.

(c) The Air Taxi AOC holder is not required to have this system, but must make all calculations assuming there is a 50 feet obstacle at the end of the runway both departing and arriving.

12.400 AIRCRAFT LOADING AND HANDLING MANUAL (a) The AOC holder shall provide for the use of the flight crew members,

ground handling personnel and persons assigned operational control functions during the performance of their duties, an aircraft handling and loading manual acceptable to the Authority.

(b) This manual shall be specific to the aircraft type and variant which contains the procedures and limitations for servicing and loading of the aircraft.

(c) The Air Taxi AOC holder is not required to provide this manual.

12.405 MASS AND BALANCE DATA CONTROL SYSTEM (a) The AOC holder shall have a system approved by the Authority for obtaining,

maintaining and distributing to appropriate personnel current information regarding the mass and balance of each aircraft operated.

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12.410 CABIN ATTENDANT MANUAL (a) The AOC holder shall issue to the cabin attendants and provide to

passenger agents during the performance of their duties, a cabin attendant manual acceptable to the Authority.

(b) The cabin attendant manual shall contain those operational policies and procedures applicable to cabin attendants and the carriage of passengers.

(c) The AOC holder shall issue to the cabin attendants, a manual specific to the aircraft type and variant which contains the details of their normal, abnormal and emergency procedures and the location and operation of emergency equipment. Note: These manuals may be combined into one manual for use by the cabin attendants.

(d) The Air Taxi AOC holder is not required to provide this manual.

12.415 PASSENGER BRIEFING CARDS (a) The AOC holder shall carry on each passenger carrying aircraft, in

convenient locations for the use of each passenger, printed cards supplementing the oral briefing and containing — (1) Diagrams and methods of operating the emergency exits; (2) Other instructions necessary for use of the emergency equipment; and (3) Information regarding the restrictions and requirements associated

with sitting in an exit seat row. (b) The AOC holder shall ensure that each card contains information that is

pertinent only to the type and variant of aircraft used for that flight. See Appendix 1 to 12.415 for specific information to be included on passenger information cards.

12.420 AERONAUTICAL DATA CONTROL SYSTEM The AOC holder shall have a system approved by the Authority for obtaining, maintaining and distributing to appropriate personnel current aeronautical data for each route and airport that it uses.

See Appendix 1 to 12.420 for the specific airport information to be contained in the aeronautical data control system.

(a) The Air Taxi AOC holder must comply with the requirements of Schedule 10 with regard to aeronautical data.

12.425 ROUTE GUIDE (a) The AOC holder shall provide for the use of the flight crew members and

persons assigned operational control functions during the performance of their duties, a route guide and aeronautical charts approved by the Authority.

(b) The route guide and aeronautical charts shall be current and appropriate for the proposed types and areas of operations to be conducted by the AOC holder.

12.430 WEATHER REPORTING SOURCES (a) The AOC holder shall use sources approved by the Authority for the weather

reports and forecasts used for decisions regarding flight preparation, routing and terminal operations.

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(b) For passenger carrying operations on a published schedule, the AOC holder shall have an approved system for obtaining forecasts and reports of adverse weather phenomena that may affect safety of flight on each route to be flown and airport to be used. See Appendix 1 to 12.430 for sources of weather reports satisfactory for flight planning or controlling flight movement.

12.435 DE-ICING AND ANTI-ICING PROGRAMME (a) The AOC holder planning to operate an aircraft in conditions where frost,

ice, or snow may reasonably be expected to adhere to the aircraft shall — (1) Use only aircraft adequately equipped for such conditions; (2) Ensure flight crew is adequately trained for such conditions; and (3) Have an approved ground de-icing and anti-icing programme. See Appendix 1 to 12.435 for detailed requirements pertaining to the AOC holder’s de-icing programme

12.440 FLIGHT SUPERVISION AND MONITORING SYSTEM (a) For operations of turbojet aircraft with a gross weight of more than 5700

kg on a published schedule. The AOC holder shall have an adequate system approved by the Authority for proper supervison of the progress of the scheduled flights.

(b) The dispatch and monitoring system shall have enough dispatch centres, adequate for the operations to be conducted, located at points necessary to ensure adequate flight preparation, dispatch and in-flight contact with the scheduled flight operations.

(c) For scheduled operations. The AOC holder shall provide enough qualified personnel at each dispatch centre to ensure proper operational control of each flight.

12.445 FLIGHT FOLLOWING OR FLIGHT LOCATING SYSTEMS (a) For charter flight operations. The AOC holder shall have a system for

providing flight preparation documents and determining the departure and arrival times of its flights at all airports approved by the Authority.

(b) The system described in paragraph (a) shall have a means of communication by private or available public facilities to monitor the departure and arrival at all airports, including flight diversions.

(c) The Single Pilot and Basic Air Taxi operator is not required to have a flight following system for each flight in which an ATC flight plan is filed and remains active until arrival at destination.

12.450 COMMUNICATIONS FACILITIES (a) The AOC holder’s flights shall be able to have two-way radio

communications with all ATC facilities along the routes and alternate routes to be used.

(b) For passenger carrying operations on a published schedule, the AOC holder shall be able to have rapid and reliable radio communications with all flights over the AOC holder’s entire route structure under normal operating conditions.

(c) Any operations along routes and into airports without rapid and reliable radio communications shall be approved by the Authority prior to commercial air transport operations in this areas.

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12.455 ROUTES AND AREAS OF OPERATION (a) An AOC holder may conduct operations only along such routes and within

such areas for which — (1) Ground facilities and services, including meteorological services, are

provided which are adequate for the planned operation; (2) The performance of the aircraft intended to be used is adequate to

comply with minimum flight altitude requirements; (3) The equipment of the aircraft intended to be used meets the minimum

requirements for the planned operation; (4) Appropriate and current maps and charts are available; (5) If two-engine aircraft are used, adequate airports are available with the

time/distance limitations; and (6) If single-engine aircraft are used, surfaces are available which permit a

safe forced landing to be executed. (b) No person may conduct commercial air transport operations on any route or

area of operation unless those operations are in accordance with any restrictions imposed by the Authority.

12.460 NAVIGATIONAL ACCURACY (a) The AOC holder shall have, for each proposed route or area, the navigational

systems and facilities it uses capable of navigating the aircraft — (1) Within the degree of accuracy required for ATC; and (2) To the airports in the operational flight plan within the degree of

accuracy necessary for the operation involved. (b) In situations without adequate navigation systems reference, the Authority

may authorise day VFR operations that can be conducted safely by pilotage because of the characteristics of the terrain.

(c) Except for those navigational aids required for routes to alternate airports, the Authority will list in the AOC holder’s operations specifications non-visual ground aids required for approval of routes outside of controlled airspace.

(d) Non-visual ground aids are not required for night VFR operations on routes that the certificate holder shows have reliably lighted landmarks adequate for safe operation.

(e) Operations on route segments where the use of celestial or other specialised means of navigation shall be approved by the Authority.

12.465 MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDES (a) The AOC holder shall specify the method by which it intends to determine

minimum flight altitudes for operations conducted over routes for which minimum flight altitudes have not been established by the responsible State.

(b) The Authority will approve such method only after careful consideration of the probable effects of the following factors on the safety of the operation in question — (1) the accuracy and reliability with which the position of the aircraft can be

determined;

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(2) the inaccuracies in the indications of the altimeters used; (3) the characteristics of the terrain (e.g. sudden changes in elevation); (4) the probability of encountering unfavourable meteorological conditions

(e.g. severe turbulence and descending air currents); (5) possible inaccuracies in the aeronautical charts; (6) airspace restrictions; and (7) ICAO Annex 2.

12.470 AERODROME OPERATING MINIMA (a) The AOC holder shall establish the aerodrome operating minima for each

aerodrome to be used for commercial air transport operations involving takeoff, approach to landing and landing in accordance with a method of determination approved by the Authority.

(b) The method of determination shall take full account of — (1) the type, performance and handling characteristics of the aircraft; (2) the composition of the flight crew, their competence and experience; (3) the dimensions and characteristics of the runways which may be selected

for use; (4) the adequacy and performance of the available visual and non-visual

ground aids; (5) the equipment available on the aircraft for the purpose of navigation and/or

control of the flight path during the approach to landing and the missed approach;

(6) the obstacles in the approach and missed approach areas and the obstacle clearance altitude/height for the instrument approach procedures;

(7) the means used to determine and report meteorological conditions; and (8) the obstacles in the climb-out areas and necessary clearance margins.

12.475 FLIGHT SAFETY AND ACCIDENT PREVENTION PROGRAMME (a) The AOC holder shall have a programme of flight safety and accident

prevention. (b) This program shall include primary duties for —

(1) Standardization of crew member guidance and standard operating procedures, including —

(i) expanded and condensed normal checklists; (ii) acceptable flight manoeuvres profiles;

(iii) acceptable safety procedures, e.g. standard call-outs, checklist usage and philosophy, etc.;

(2) Route standardization of crew member and route check pilots; (3) Conduct of safety briefings; (4) Issuance of Operations Bulletins regarding safety and standardization

matters; and

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(5) Administration of a methodology for reporting, both anonymous or identifiable, and correction of possible safety issues and providing feedback to the operations personnel.

SUBPART I AOC MAINTENANCE REQUIREMENTS

12.525 APPLICABILITY (a) This Subpart provides those certification and maintenance requirements

that apply to an AOC holder’s application of maintenance control.

12.530 MAINTENANCE RESPONSIBILITY (a) The AOC holder shall ensure the airworthiness of the aircraft and the

serviceability of both operational and emergency equipment by — (1) Assuring the accomplishment of preflight inspections; (2) Assuring the correction of any defect and/or damage affecting safe

operation of an aircraft to an approved standard, taking into account the MEL and CDL if available for the aircraft type;

(3) Assuring that the operational and emergency equipment necessary for the intended flight is serviceable;

(4) Assuring the accomplishment of all maintenance in accordance with the approved operator’s aircraft maintenance programme;

(5) The analysis of the effectiveness of the AOC holder’s approved aircraft maintenance programme;

(6) Assuring the accomplishment of any operational directive, airworthiness directive and any other continued airworthiness requirement made mandatory by the Authority; and

(7) Assuring the accomplishment of modifications in accordance with an approved standard and, for non-mandatory modifications, the establishment of an embodiment policy.

(b) The AOC holder shall ensure that the Certificate of Airworthiness for each aircraft operated remains valid in respect to — (1) The requirements in paragraph (a); (2) The expiration date of the Certificate; and (3) Any other maintenance condition specified in the Certificate.

(c) The AOC holder shall ensure that the requirements specified in paragraph (a) are performed in accordance with procedures approved by or acceptable to the Authority.

(d) The AOC holder shall ensure that the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and modification of its aircraft/aeronautical products are performed in accordance with its maintenance control manual and/or current instructions for continued airworthiness, and applicable aviation regulations.

(e) The AOC holder may make an arrangement with another person or entity for the performance of any maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications; but shall remain responsible for all work performed under such arrangement.

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12.535 APPROVAL AND ACCEPTANCE OF AOC MAINTENANCE SYSTEMS AND PROGRAMMES

(a) An AOC holder shall not operate an aircraft, except for pre-flight inspections, unless it is maintained and released to service by an AMO or equivalent system of maintenance that is approved by the State of Registry and is acceptable to the Authority.

(b) For aircraft not registered in The Bahamas, a system of maintenance will be approved by the State of Registry of the aircraft, and such approval must be acceptable to the Authority.

(c) When the Authority or the State of Registry accepts an equivalent system of maintenance, the persons designated to sign a release to service shall be licenced in accordance with The Bahamas Air Navigation Regulations.

12.540 MAINTENANCE CONTROL MANUAL (a) The AOC holder shall provide to the Authority, and to the State of Registry

of the aircraft, if different from the Authority, an AOC holder’s maintenance control manual and subsequent amendments, for the use and guidance of maintenance and operational personnel concerned, containing details of the organisation’s structure including: (1) The accountable manager and designated person(s) responsible for the

maintenance system. (2) Procedures to be followed to satisfy the maintenance responsibility of

this Subpart, except where the AOC holder is an AMO, and also performs the quality system functions. Such procedures may be included in the AMO procedures manual.

(3) Procedures for the reporting of failures, malfunctions, and defects in accordance with Schedule 5, to the Authority, State of Registry and the State of Design within 72 hours of discovery; in addition, items that warrant immediate notification to the Authority by telephone/telex/fax, with a written follow-on report as soon as possible but no later than within 72 hours of discovery, are —

(i) Primary structural failure; (ii) Control system failure;

(iii) Fire in the aircraft; (iv) Engine structure failure; or (v) Any other condition considered an imminent hazard to safety.

(b) This manual shall be amended or revised as is necessary to ensure that the information contained therein is kept up-to-date.

(c) The AOC holder shall furnish this Manual, or pertinent portions, together with all amendments and revisions to all personnel and organizations that are required to use it.

(d) No person may provide for use of its personnel in commercial air transport any Maintenance Control Manual or portion of this manual which has not been reviewed and approved for the AOC holder by the Authority. See Appendix 1 to 12.540 for the required contents of the Maintenance Control Manual.

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12.542 MANDATORY MATERIAL (a) Upon receipt of material the Authority prescribes as mandatory for inclusion

in any portion of the Maintenance Control Manual, the AOC holder shall make the necessary amendments as soon as reasonably possible.

12.545 MAINTENANCE MANAGEMENT (a) The AOC holder, approved as an AMO, may carry out the maintenance

requirements specified in 12.530 (a)(2),(3),(5)and (6). (b) If the AOC holder is not an AMO, the AOC holder shall meet its

responsibilities under in 12.530 (a)(2),(3),(5)and (6) by using — (1) An equivalent system of maintenance approved or accepted by the

Authority; or (2) Through an arrangement with an AMO with a written maintenance

contract agreed between the AOC holder and the contracting AMO detailing the required maintenance functions and defining the support of the quality functions approved or accepted by the Authority.

(c) The AOC holder shall employ a person or group of persons, acceptable to the Authority, to ensure that all maintenance is carried out to an approved standard such that the maintenance requirements of 12.530 and requirements of the AOC holder’s maintenance control manual are satisfied, and to ensure the functioning of the quality system.

(d) The AOC holder shall provide suitable office accommodation at appropriate locations for the personnel specified in paragraph (c).

(e) The Single Pilot and Basic Air Taxi operator are not required to employ maintenance personnel, but must contract to those personnel and facilities acceptable to the Authority.

12.550 MAINTENANCE QUALITY SYSTEM (a) For maintenance purposes, the AOC holder’s quality system shall include

at least the following functions: (1) Monitoring the activities that are being performed in accordance with

the accepted procedures; (2) Ensure that all contracted maintenance is carried out in accordance

with the contract; (3) Monitoring the continued compliance with the maintenance

requirements; and (4) Monitoring compliance with, and adequacy of, procedures required

ensuring safe maintenance practices, airworthy aircraft and aeronautical products.

Note: Compliance monitoring must include a feed-back system to the accountable manager to ensure corrective action as necessary.

(b) The AOC holder’s quality system shall include a quality assurance programme that contains procedures designed to verify that all maintenance operations are being conducted in accordance with all applicable requirements, standards and procedures.

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(c) Where the AOC holder is also an AMO, the AOC holder’s quality management system may be combined with the requirements of an AMO and submitted for approval and acceptance to the Authority, and State of Registry for aircraft not registered in The Bahamas. See Appendix 1 to 12.550 for additional quality system requirements for maintenance activities.

(d) The Single Pilot and Basic Air Taxi operators are not required to have a maintenance quality system, but must use maintenance quality methods acceptable to the Authority.

12.555 AIRCRAFT TECHNICAL LOG ENTRIES: AOC HOLDERS (a) Each person who takes action in the case of a reported or observed failure

or malfunction of an aircraft/aeronautical product, that is critical to the safety of flight shall make, or have made, a record of that action in the maintenance section of the aircraft technical log.

(b) The AOC holder shall have a procedure for keeping adequate copies of required records to be carried aboard, in a place readily accessible to each flight crew member and shall put that procedure in the AOC holder’s operations manual.

12.560 MAINTENANCE RECORDS (a) The AOC holder shall ensure that a system has been established to keep, in

a form acceptable to the Authority, the following records: (1) The total time in service (hours, calendar time and cycles, as

appropriate) of the aircraft and all life-limited components; (2) The current status of compliance with all mandatory continuing

airworthiness information; (3) Appropriate details of modifications and repairs to the aircraft and its

major components; (4) The time in service (hours, calendar time and cycles, as appropriate)

since last overhaul of the aircraft or its components subject to mandatory overhaul life;

(5) The current aircraft status of compliance with the maintenance pro- gramme; and

(6) The detailed maintenance records to show that all requirements for signing of a maintenance release and airworthiness release have been met.

(b) The AOC holder shall ensure that items in (a)(1–5) shall be kept for a minimum of 90 days after the unit to which they refer has been permanently withdrawn from service, and the records in (a)(6) shall be kept for a minimum of 1 year after the signing of the maintenance release and/or airworthiness release.

(c) The AOC holder shall ensure that in the event of temporary change of operator, the records specified in paragraph (a) shall be made available to the new operator.

(d) The AOC holder shall ensure that when an aircraft is permanently transferred from one operator to another operator, the records specified in paragraph (a) are also transferred.

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(e) The aircraft technical log and any subsequent amendment shall be approved by the Authority.

12.565 RELEASE TO SERVICE OR MAINTENANCE SECTION RECORDS OF THE TECHNICAL LOG

(a) An AOC holder shall not operate an aircraft unless it is maintained and released to service by an organisation approved in accordance with Schedule 6, or under an equivalent system, either of which shall be acceptable to the State of Registry.

(b) An AOC holder using an equivalent system shall not operate an aircraft after release under subparagraph (a) unless a release to service is prepared or caused to be prepared by an appropriately licenced and rated individual in accordance with these Schedules, as appropriate. The maintenance release and/or airworthiness release shall be made in accordance with the AOC maintenance control manual procedures.

(c) An AOC holder using an AMO shall not operate an aircraft after release to service under subparagraph (a) unless an appropriate entry is made in accordance with the AOC maintenance control manual procedures acceptable to the Authority.

(d) The AOC holder shall give a copy of the release to service for the aircraft to the PIC, or ensure that an entry noting the release is made in the maintenance section of the aircraft technical log.

12.570 MODIFICATION AND REPAIRS (a) All modifications and repairs shall comply with airworthiness requirements

acceptable to the State of Registry. Procedures shall be established to ensure that the substantiating data supporting compliance with the airworthiness requirements are retained. However, in the case of a major repair or major modification, the work must have been done in accordance with technical data approved by the Authority.

(b) An AOC holder which is authorised to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, and modifications of any aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part thereof, in accordance with the approved AOC’s operations specifications that wishes to approve for return to service major repairs or major modifications to an aircraft registered in The Bahamas shall use a current and valid licenced AMT with an airframe and powerplant rating and shall be qualified in accordance with Schedule 5.

(c) The AOC holder shall, promptly upon its completion, prepare a report of each major modification or major repair of an airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance of an aircraft operated by it.

(d) The AOC holder shall submit a copy of each report of a major modification to the Authority, and shall keep a copy of each report of a major repair available for inspection.

12.575 AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE PROGRAMME (a) The AOC holder shall provide, for the use and guidance of maintenance and

operational personnel concerned, a maintenance program approved by the State of Registry containing the information prescribed by the Authority.

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(b) The AOC holder’s aircraft maintenance programme and any subsequent amendment shall be submitted to the State of Registry for approval prior to use. Acceptance by the Authority will be conditioned upon prior approval by the State of Registry, or where appropriate, upon the AOC holder complying with recommendations provided by the State of Registry.

(c) Copies of the maintenance program and all amendments shall be furnished to the personnel and organizations who are to perform work on the AOC holder’s aircraft.

(d) No person may provide for use of its personnel in commercial air transport a Maintenance Programme or portion thereof which has not been reviewed and approved for the AOC holder by the Authority.

(e) The design and application of the maintenance programme shall observe Human Factors principles.

(f) The Authority will require an operator to include a reliability programme when the Authority determines that such a reliability programme is necessary. When such a determination is made by the Authority the AOC holder shall provide such procedures and information in the AOC holder’s maintenance control manual

(g) The AOC holder shall ensure that each aircraft is maintained in accordance with the AOC holder’s aircraft approved maintenance programme which shall include — (1) Maintenance tasks and the intervals in which these are to be performed,

taking into account the anticipated utilisation of the aircraft; (2) When applicable, a continuing structural integrity programme; (3) Procedures for changing or deviating from subparagraphs (c)(1) and

(c)(2); and (4) When applicable, condition monitoring and reliability programme,

descriptions for aircraft systems, components, and powerplants. (h) Repetitive maintenance tasks that are specified in mandatory intervals as a

condition of approval of the type design shall be identified as such. Note: The maintenance programme should be based on maintenance programme information made available by the State of Design or by the organisation responsible for the type design, and any additional applicable experience.

(i) Approval by the Authority of an AOC holder’s maintenance programme and any subsequent amendments shall be included in its Operations Specifications.

(j) The AOC holder shall have an inspection programme and a programme covering other maintenance, preventive maintenance, and modifications to ensure that — (1) Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and modifications performed

by it, or by other persons, are performed in accordance with the AOC holder’s maintenance control manual;

(2) Each aircraft released to service is airworthy and has been properly maintained for operation.

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(k) The Authority may amend any specifications issued to an AOC holder to permit deviation from those provisions of this Subpart that would prevent the return to service and use of airframe components, powerplants, appliances, and spare parts thereof because those items have been maintained, altered, or inspected, by persons employed outside The Bahamas who do not hold a Bahamas technician’s licence.

(l) The AOC holder who is granted authority under this deviation shall provide for surveillance of facilities and practices to assure that all work performed on these parts is accomplished in accordance with the AOC holder’s maintenance control manual.

12.580 MANDATORY AIRWORTHINESS MATERIAL (a) Upon receipt of material from the Authority prescribed as mandatory for

inclusion in either the maintenance control manual or the maintenance program, the AOC holder will make these amendments as soon as reasonably possible and submit their amendment to the Authority.

12.585 AUTHORITY TO PERFORM AND APPROVE MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE AND MODIFICATIONS

(a) An AOC holder which is not approved as an AMO may perform and approve routine and non-routine maintenance, preventive maintenance, or inspections for return to service, if approved in the operations specifications, as provided in its maintenance programme and maintenance control manual.

(b) An AOC holder may make arrangements with an AMO (appropriately rated) for the performance of maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of any aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component, or part thereof as provided in its maintenance programme and maintenance control manual.

(c) An AOC holder which is not approved as an AMO shall use a appropriately licenced and rated individual in accordance with Schedule 5 and 8, as appropriate, to approve maintenance and preventive maintenance, for return to service after performing or supervising in accordance with technical data approved by the Authority.

12.590 REQUIRED INSPECTION PERSONNEL (a) No person may use any person to perform required inspections unless the

person performing the inspection is appropriately certificated, properly trained, qualified and authorized to do so.

(b) No person may allow any person to perform a required inspection unless, at that time, the person performing that inspection is under the supervision and control of an inspections unit.

(c) No person may perform a required inspection if he performed the item of work required to be inspected.

(d) Each certificated holder shall maintain, or shall determine that each person with whom it arranges to perform its required inspections, maintains a current listing of persons who have been trained, qualified and authorized to conduct required inspections. The persons must be identified by name, occupational title, and the inspections they are authorized to perform. The AOC holder (or person with whom it arranges to perform its required inspections) shall give written authorization to each person so authorized, describing the extent of his

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responsibilities, authorizations and inspection limitations. The list shall be made available for inspection by the Authority on request.

12.595 LICENCE REQUIREMENTS FOR A TECHNICIAN – AOC HOLDER USING EQUIVALENT SYSTEM

(a) Each person who is directly in charge of maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modification, of any aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component, or part thereof and each person performing required inspections and approving for return to service the maintenance performed shall be a appropriately licenced and rated technician or repair specialists in accordance with Schedule 5 and 8, as appropriate, and acceptable to the Authority.

(b) A person who is directly in charge shall be on site but need not physically observe and direct each worker constantly, but shall be available for consultation and decision on matters requiring instruction or decision from higher authority than that of the persons performing the work. Note: A person “directly in charge” is each person assigned to a position in which he is responsible for the work of a shop or station that performs maintenance, preventive maintenance, modifications, or other functions affecting aircraft airworthiness.

APPENDICES

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.130 MANAGEMENT PERSONNEL REQUIRED FOR COMMERCIAL AIR

TRANSPORT OPERATIONS (a) The AOC holder shall make arrangements to ensure continuity of supervision if

operations are conducted in the absence of any required management personnel. (b) Required management personnel shall be contracted to work sufficient

hours such that the management functions are fulfilled. (c) A person serving in a required management position for an AOC holder

may not serve in a similar position for any other AOC holder, unless a deviation is issued by the Authority.

(d) The minimum initial qualifications for a Director of Operations are — (1) An ATP licence; and (2) 3 years experience as PIC in commercial air transport operations of

large aircraft. (e) The minimum qualifications for a Chief Pilot are —

(1) An ATP licence with the appropriate ratings for at least one of the aircraft used in the AOC holder’s operations; and

(2) 3 years experience as PIC in commercial air transport operations. Note: The Authority may accept a commercial pilot licence with instrument rating in lieu of the ATP licence if the PIC requirements for the operations conducted require only a commercial certificate.

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(f) The minimum entry qualifications for a person responsible for the maintenance system are — (1) Be qualified in accordance with Schedule 5 and 8; and (2) 3 years experience in maintaining the same category and class of

aircraft used by the AOC holder including 1 year in the capacity of returning aircraft to service.

(g) An AOC holder may employ a person who does not meet the appropriate airman qualification or experience if the Authority issues a deviation finding that that person has comparable experience and can effectively perform the required management functions.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.225 CONTENTS OF CREW DUTY AND FLIGHT TIME RECORDS

(a) Unless otherwise prescribed by the Authority, The AOC holder shall require the use of crew duty and flight time records with the following information: (1) The AOC holder’s company name; (2) The crew members full name and employee identification number, if

applicable; (3) A running summary of number of hours flown in the past:

(i) 12 months; (ii) 30 days;

(iii) 7 days; (iv) 24 hours; and

(4) A running summary of the landings in the past 24 hours; (5) If the flight time is scheduled more than 24 hours in advance, a daily

record by date, of the assigned duty times, flight times and projected rest periods;

(6) A daily record by date, with an hourly display of the actual time spent showing the beginning and the end of each period of:

(i) Duty, including duty aloft; (ii) Flight time in commercial air transport, aerial work activities;

and any other activity that required the application of the crew member’s commercial or airline transport pilot privileges;

(iii) Required rest; (7) A provision for the certification of each 30 days of records by the crew

member and the person making the assignments and entries.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 12.235 CONTENTS OF JOURNEY LOG

(a) The AOC holder shall use an aircraft technical log containing a journey log which includes the following information for each flight: (1) The AOC holder’s company name and logo; (2) Aircraft nationality and registration; (3) Names of crew members; (4) Duty assignments of crew members; (5) Signature of pilot-in-command; (6) Nature of flight (general aviation, aerial work, commercial air transport); (7) A date column, followed by columns for (8) through (12) in a row format; (8) A column for the departure point; (9) A column for the arrival point; (10) A column for the out-of-chocks time of departure; (11) A column for the in-to-chocks time of arrival; (12) A column for the total hours of flight time; (13) A section for trip events and incidents.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.240 CONTENTS OF THE AIRCRAFT TECHNICAL LOG CONTENTS

(a) The AOC holder shall use an aircraft technical log which includes an aircraft maintenance record section containing the following information for each aircraft: (1) The AOC holders company name; (2) A unique page numbering system; (3) Left margin date entry column; preceding items (4) through (6) in a

row format; (4) Airport entry column including the departure and arrival airport on the

same row; (5) An in-service time per leg column, including takeoff and landing

times on the same row; (6) Fuel and oil uplift columns, including, on the same row, the amounts

for — (i) uplift;

(ii) takeoff total; and (iii) en route usage;

(7) Method for entering defects found during flight in a column and row format, including —

(i) A method for numbering each defect; (ii) Identifying the airport where it was entered;

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(iii) A description of the defected noted; (iv) A description of the correction or deferment of the defect; (v) The certificate number of the person making the correction; and

(vi) The signature or 3 letter initials of the person making the correction;

(8) A method for collecting the critical summary information, such as airframe hours, landing gear cycles, etc.;

(9) A method for collecting any special inspection or maintenance status information that is applicable to the AOC holder’s operations, such as VOR receiver checks, ETOPS status, etc.;

(10) A separate provision for the current release to service, including (i) The proper terminology for the release;

(ii) The name; (11) A separate provision for the pilot’s flight preparation certification that

the document illustrates that the aircraft is airworthy, has the required operational equipment and proper release to service;

(12) A provision for tracking the deferred defects, which may be included as a separate page or pages in the front or back of the technical log.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.242 CONTENTS OF THE DEFERRED DEFECTS LOG

(a) This log shall include — (1) The company name; (2) The unique beginning and ending page numbers of the Aircraft

Technical Log it is attached to; (3) For each defect —

(i) The AOC holder’s assigned tracking number; (ii) The page number of the Aircraft Technical Log containing the

original entry; (iii) A description of the defect; (iv) A description of the basis for deferment; (v) The target date of correction;

(vi) The date of correction; (vii) The page number of the Aircraft Technical Log containing the

entry for the correction.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.245 CONTENTS OF AIRCRAFT INSPECTION AND CONDITION SUMMARY (a) For air taxi aircraft, the following information shall be recorded:

(1) The name of the AOC holder’s company; (2) The date the summary was made;

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(3) The aircraft registration; (4) The aircraft make and model; (5) The engine(s) make and model; (6) Serial numbers of the:

(i) Airframe; (ii) Engine(s); and

(iii) Propellers; (7) The total time on the —

(i) airframe; (ii) engines;

(iii) propellers; and (iv) propeller governors;

(8) The total cycles on the — (i) landing gear; and

(ii) pressure vessel; (9) The date, hours or cycles (as appropriate) the following events were

performed and are next due: (i) Annual inspection;

(ii) 100 hour inspection; (iii) Required airframe component(s) replacement times/cycles; (iv) Engine(s) inspection; (v) Engine(s) overhaul;

(vi) Required engine component(s) replacement times/cycles; (vii) Propeller inspections;

(viii) Propeller overhaul; (ix) Altimeter inspection; (x) Altimetry system inspection;

(xi) Transponder inspection; (xii) Emergency equipment inspection and/or replacement;

(xiii) Emergency locator transmitter inspection and battery replacement

(xiv) Aircraft re-weighing; (xv) Recurring airworthiness directives by applicable numbers;

(10) The reverse side of the form will include a summary of the airworthiness directives applicable to the aircraft and engine(s) by —

(i) Last date of compliance; and (ii) General description of airworthiness directives.

Note: This summary may be grouped separately for the airframe, engine(s) and components.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 12.250 CONTENTS OF LOAD AND PERFORMANCE MANIFEST FORM

(a) The company name: (1) The name of the AOC holder’s company; (2) The flight number (if assigned); (3) The aircraft make, model and type to which the form applies; (4) The date that the form was completed; (5) The printed name of the person preparing the form; (6) The signature of the pilot certifying that the information contained in

this flight preparation form is satisfactory; (7) The departure point, including —

(i) Length of proposed runway to be used; (ii) Pressure altitude;

(iii) Temperature at departure time; and (iv) Wind;

(8) The destination; (9) The initial entry information for the specific aircraft, including the —

(i) Empty weight; or (ii) Basic/dry operating weight (as appropriate);

(10) For aircraft with passenger seating of 20 or less — (i) The name of the person assigned to each seat;

(ii) The weight of that person including any carryon articles; (iii) The effect of each person(s) weight on the C.G. moment; and (iv) Total passenger weight;

(11) For aircraft with passenger seating for more than 20 — (i) The name of the passenger may be recorded in a separate

manner as prescribed by the Authority; (ii) The numbers of the weight zone or station in the passenger

cabin; (iii) The total number and weight of all passengers and articles

assigned to each weight zone or station; (iv) The effect of the weight of each zone on the C.G. moment; (v) Total passenger weight;

(12) A unique number for each cargo area, or if large cargo capacity, each weight zone or station necessary for accurate computation of a centre of gravity, including the

(i) Total weight loaded in that zone; (ii) The effect of that total on the C.G. moment;

(iii) The total weight of the cargo, baggage and mail on the aircraft;

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(13) The fuel computation, including the — (i) Zero fuel weight; as opposed to the

(ii) Maximum zero fuel weight; (iii) Taxi fuel (if a significant factor); (iv) Minimum total fuel required for flight; (v) Any additional total fuel loaded;

(vi) The total fuel on the aircraft; (vii) The effect of the total fuel weight in each tank on the C.G

moment; and (viii) The effect of the fuel burn to destination and any required

alternate on the C.G. moment; (14) A computed total for the actual loaded takeoff weight; (15) A computed total for the planned landing weight; (16) The possible limiting weights, including the maximum based on —

(i) Maximum structural takeoff weight; (ii) Maximum weight limitation due to runway length and other

factors; (iii) Maximum climb limitation weight due to obstacles and altitude;

and (iv) Maximum landing weight limitation at destination or alternate

airports based on structural or performance considerations; (17) A centre of gravity calculation displayed on a C.G. envelope, that

includes the computed — (i) C.G. for takeoff;

(ii) C.G. at landing; and (iii) Takeoff stabilizer setting;

(18) A method for computing the effects of any last minute changes to the passengers or cargo.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.255 CONTENTS OF OPERATIONAL FLIGHT PLANNING FORM(S)

(a) The following list includes the operational flight planning information that must be collected and retained. The method of compliance may be on a single form that collects all of the information or may be a series of forms and printouts — (1) The company name; (2) The date; (3) Flight number (if applicable); (4) Airports involved, including —

(i) Departure point; (ii) Destination; and (iii) Required alternate airports;

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(5) Aircraft information, including — (i) Registration number; and (ii) Aircraft make, model, type;

(6) The operational status of the aircraft with respect to possible degradation of — (i) Aircraft performance due to deferred items; (ii) All weather operational capability;

(iii) Required navigation capability; (iv) Required height-keeping capability; or (v) ETOPS’ airworthiness conformance;

(7) Names of assigned crew members, including — (i) Pilot-in-command; (ii) Second-in-command;

(iii) Flight engineer (if applicable); (iv) Senior cabin attendant; and (v) All other required cabin attendants;

(8) The crew member status with respect to — (i) Special airports; (ii) Special routes and areas; and

(iii) Lower than standard takeoff and landing minimums; (9) Name of person authorizing the flight (flight release); (10) Signature of the pilot-in-command certifying that this flight preparation

document is satisfactory; (11) A breakdown of the legs of the route in row format, including columns

for — (i) Beginning fix; (ii) Route;

(iii) Distance; (iv) Magnetic course; (v) Altitude; and (vi) Ending or transition fix;

(12) The wind information for each leg in the same row format, including columns for — (i) True or magnetic direction; (ii) Velocity; and

(iii) Temperature; (13) The fuel computations for each leg in the same row format, including

columns for — (i) Groundspeed;

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(ii) Estimated time en route; and (iii) fuel burn;

If the route will be over terrain that will require special routing in the event of en route diversion due to engine failure or loss of pressurization, these routings will be shown as alternate courses of action in the same operational flight plan.

A planned re-release will require a separate operational flight plan. (14) The total fuel computations (by either gallons, pounds, or kilograms) —

(i) To destination; (ii) To alternate(s);

(iii) Minimum required reserve; and (iv) Total minimum for flight;

(15) The NOTAM information affecting the route or aerodromes to be used; (16) The weather information for the aerodromes, routes and possible

diversions, including — (i) Terminal observations and reports;

(ii) Terminal forecasts; (iii) En route winds; (iv) En route area forecasts; (v) Significant weather for the aircraft to be used; and

(vi) High altitude weather features (if applicable); (17) The Air Traffic Service flight plan information; (18) The filing status of the flight plan.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.315 DRY LEASING OF FOREIGN REGISTERED AIRCRAFT

(a) An AOC holder may dry lease an aircraft for the purpose of commercial air transportation to any AOC holder of a State which is signatory to the Chicago Convention provided that the following conditions are met: (1) The aircraft carriers an appropriate airworthiness certificate issued, in

accordance with ICAO Annex 8, by the country of registration and meets the registration and identification requirements of that country.

(2) The aircraft is of a type design which complies with all of the requirements that would be applicable to that aircraft were it registered in The Bahamas, including the requirements which shall be met for issuance of a The Bahamas standard airworthiness certificate (including type design conformity, condition for safe operation, and the noise, fuel venting, and engine emission requirements).

(3) The aircraft is maintained according to an approved maintenance program.

(4) The aircraft is operated by The Bahamas-certified airmen employed by the AOC holder.

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(b) The AOC holder shall provide the Authority with a copy of the dry lease to be executed.

(c) Operational control of any dry leased aircraft rests with the AOC holder operating that aircraft.

(d) The Authority will remove a dry leased aircraft from the lessors AOC holders operations specifications and list it on the foreign AOC holder lessee’s operations specifications.

(e) The AOC holder engaged in dry leasing aircraft shall make the dry lease agreement explicit concerning the maintenance programme and MEL to be followed during the term of the dry lease.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.320 AIRCRAFT INTERCHANGE

(a) Before operating under an interchange agreement, The AOC holder shall show that — (1) The procedures for the interchange operation conform with safe

operating practices; (2) Required crew members and Operational Control Persons meet

approved training requirements for the aircraft and equipment to be used and are familiar with the communications and dispatch procedures to be used;

(3) Maintenance personnel meet training requirements for the aircraft and equipment, and are familiar with the maintenance procedures to be used;

(4) Flight crew members and Operational Control Persons meet appropriate route and airport qualifications;

(5) The aircraft to be operated are essentially similar to the aircraft of the AOC holder with whom the interchange is effected; and

(6) The arrangement of flight instruments and controls that are critical to safety are essentially similar, unless the authority determines that the AOC holder has adequate training programmes to insure that any potentially hazardous dissimilarities are safely overcome by flight crew familiarisation.

(b) The AOC holder conducting an interchange agreement shall include the pertinent provisions and procedures of the agreement in its manuals.

(c) The AOC holder shall amend their operations specifications to reflect an interchange agreement.

(d) The AOC holder shall comply with the applicable regulations of the State of Registry of an aircraft involved in an interchange agreement while it has operational control of that aircraft.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.325 WET LEASING

(a) The AOC holder shall provide the Authority with a copy of the wet lease to be executed.

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(b) The Authority will determine which party to a wet lease agreement has operational control considering the extent and control of certain operational functions such as: (1) Initiating and terminating flights. (2) Maintenance and servicing of aircraft. (3) Scheduling crew members. (4) Paying crew members. (5) Training crew members.

(c) The AOC holder engaged in a wet leasing arrangement shall amend its operations specifications to contain the following information: (1) The names of the parties to the agreement and the duration of the

agreement. (2) The make, model, and series of each aircraft involved in the agreement. (3) The kind of operation. (4) The expiration date of the lease agreement. (5) A statement specifying the party deemed to have operational control. (6) Any other item, condition, or limitation the Authority determines

necessary.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.355 OPERATIONS MANUAL

(a) The AOC holder shall ensure that the contents and structure of the operations manual are in accordance with rules and regulations of the Authority, and is relevant to the area(s) and type(s) of operation.

(b) An AOC holder may design a manual to be more restrictive than the Authority’s requirements.

(c) The AOC holder shall ensure that the operations manual presents the items of information listed below, to meet the prescribed requirements. The manual may consist of two or more parts containing together all such information in a format and manner based upon the outline presented in paragraph (d) below. Each part of the operations manual must contain all information required by each group of personnel addressed in that part. (1) Instructions outlining the responsibilities of the operations personnel

pertaining to the conduct of flight operations; (2) Checklist of emergency and safety equipment and instructions for use; (3) The minimum equipment list for the aircraft types operated and

specific operations authorized including any requirements relating to operations in RNP airspace;

(4) Safety precautions during refuelling with passengers; (5) Details of the accident prevention and flight safety programme, including

a statement of safety policy and the responsibility of personnel; (6) Details of the flight crew training programme and requirements;

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(7) Details of the cabin crew duties training programme; (8) Rules limiting the flight time and flight duty periods and providing for

adequate rest periods for flight crew members and cabin crew; (9) The flight crew for each type of operation including the method of

designating succession of command; (10) The in-flight and emergency duties assigned to each crew member; (11) Specific instructions for the computation of the quantities of fuel and oil to

be carried, having regard to all circumstances of the operation including the possibility of the failure of one or more powerplants while en route;

(12) The conditions under which oxygen shall be used and the amount of oxygen determined necessary to the flight;

(13) Instructions for mass and balance control, including the methods and procedures for maintaining the aircraft weight and centre of gravity within approved limits;

(14) Instructions for the conduct and control of ground de/anti-icing operations;

(15) The specifications for the operational flight plan, including the content and use;

(16) The normal, abnormal and emergency procedures to be used by the flight crew, the checklists relating thereto and aircraft systems information;

(17) Standard operating procedures for each phase of the flight; (18) Instructions on the use of normal checklists and the timing of their use; (19) Emergency evacuation procedures; (20) Departure contingency procedures; (21) Instruction on the maintenance of altitude awareness and the use of

automated or flight crew altitude call-outs; (22) Instructions on the use of autopilots and autothrottles in IMC; (23) Instructions on the clarification and acceptance of ATC clearances,

particularly where terrain clearance is involved; (24) Departure and approach briefings; (25) Route and destination familiarization; (26) Stabilized approach procedure; (27) Limitation on high rates of descent near the surface; (28) Conditions required to commence or to continue an instrument approach; (29) Instructions for the conduct of precision and non-precision instrument

approach procedures; (30) Allocation of flight crew duties and procedures for the management of

crew workload during night and IMC instrument approach and landing operations;

(31) Instructions and training requirements for the avoidance of controlled flight into terrain and policy for the use of the ground proximity warning system (GPWS);

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(32) Information and instructions relating to the interception of civil aircraft including —

(i) procedures, as prescribed in Schedule 10, for PICs of intercepted aircraft; and

(ii) visual signals for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft, as contained in Schedule 10;

(33) For aeroplanes intended to be operated above 15,000 m (49,000 ft), information which will enable the pilot to determine the best course of action to take in event of exposure to solar cosmic radiation;

(34) For situations where a decision to descend is taken, covering — (i) The necessity of giving the appropriate ATS unit prior warning of

the situation and of obtaining a provisional descent clearance, and (ii) The action to be taken in the event that communication with the

ATS united cannot be established or is interrupted; (35) Operating instructions and information on climb performance with all

engines operating; (36) A route guide to ensure that the flight crew will have, for each flight,

information relating to communication facilities, navigation aids, aerodromes and other such information as the AOC holder may deem necessary for the proper conduct of flight operations;

(37) The method for determining minimum flight altitudes; (38) The minimum flight altitudes for each route to be flown; (39) The methods for determining aerodrome operating minima; (40) Aerodrome operating minima for each of the aerodromes that are likely to

be used as aerodromes of intended landing or as alternate aerodromes; (41) The increase of aerodrome operating minima in case of degradation of

approach or aerodrome facilities; (42) The ground-air visual signal code for use by survivors in Schedule 10; (43) Procedures for the pilots-in-command observing an accident; (44) Information and instructions on the carriage of dangerous goods,

including action to be taken in the event of an emergency; (45) A list of the navigation equipment to be carried including any

requirements relating to operations in RNP airspace; (46) Where relevant to the operations, the long-range navigation procedures to

be used; (47) The circumstances in which a radio listening watch is to be maintained; (48) Security instructions and guidance; (49) The bomb search procedure checklist; (50) Information on the operators’ training programme for the development

of knowledge and skills related to human performance; (51) Other information or instructions relating to safety; (52) Duties and responsibilities of each crew member, appropriate members of

the ground organisation, and management personnel;

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(53) Reference to appropriate Civil Aviation Regulations; (54) Flight dispatching and operational control, including procedures for

co-ordinated dispatch or flight control or flight following procedures and maintenance control procedures, as applicable;

(55) En route flight, navigation, and communication procedures, including procedures for the dispatch or release or continuance of flight if any item of equipment required for the particular type of operation becomes inoperative or unserviceable en route;

(56) Appropriate information from the en route operations specifications, including for each approved route the types of aircraft authorised, the type of operation such as VFR, IFR, day, night, etc., and any other pertinent information;

(57) Appropriate information from the airport operations specifications, including for each airport —

(i) Its location (domestic and flag operations only); (ii) Its designation (regular, alternate, provisional, etc.);

(iii) The types of aircraft authorised; (iv) Instrument approach procedures; (v) Landing and takeoff minimums; and

(vi) Any other pertinent information; (58) Procedures for familiarising passengers with the use of emergency

equipment, during flight; (59) Emergency equipment and procedures; (60) Procedures for determining the usability of landing and takeoff areas, and

for disseminating pertinent information thereon to operations personnel; (61) Procedures for operating in periods of ice, hail, thunderstorms,

turbulence, or any potentially hazardous meteorological condition; (62) Airman training programs, including appropriate ground, flight, and

emergency phases; (63) Procedures for refuelling aircraft, eliminating fuel contamination,

protection from fire (including electrostatic protection), and supervising and protecting passengers during refuelling;

(64) Where applicable, pilot and dispatcher route and airport qualification procedures;

(65) Accident notification procedures; (66) Procedures and information to assist personnel to identify packages

marked or labelled as containing hazardous materials and, if these materials are to be carried, stored, or handled, procedures and instructions relating to the carriage, storage, or handling of hazardous materials, including the following: (i) Procedures for determining the proper shipper certification and proper

packaging, marking, labelling, shipping documents, compatibility of materials, and instructions on the loading, storage, and handling;

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(ii) Notification procedures for reporting hazardous material incidents; (iii) Instructions and procedures for the notification of the pilot in

command when there are hazardous materials aboard. APPENDIX 1 TO 12.370

TRAINING PROGRAMMES MANUAL The AOC holder and AOC applicant may submit and maintain training

programme manuals based on the following outline:

1.0 Training Syllabi and Checking Programmes 1.1 General Requirements Training syllabi and checking programmes for all operations personnel assigned to operational duties in connection with the preparation and/or conduct of a flight shall be developed to meet the respective requirements of the Authority. An AOC holder may not use, nor may any person serve in a required crew member capacity or operational capacity unless that person meets the training and currency requirements established by the Authority for that respective position. 1.2 Flight Crew The training syllabi and checking programmes for flight crew members shall include: (a) A written training programme acceptable to the Authority that provides for initial, transition,

difference, and recurrent training, as appropriate, for flight deck crew members for each type of aircraft flown by that crew member. This written training programme shall include both normal and emergency procedures training applicable for each type of aircraft flown by the crew member.

(b) Adequate ground and flight training facilities and properly qualified instructors required to meet training objectives and needs.

(c) A current list of approved training materials, equipment, training devices, simulators, and other required training items needed to meet the training needs for each type and variation of aircraft flown by the AOC holder.

(d) Adequate numbers of ground, flight, and check pilots to ensure adequate training and flight testing of flight crew members.

(e) A record system acceptable to the Authority to show compliance with appropriate training and currency requirements.

1.3 Cabin Crew The training syllabi and checking programmes for cabin crew members shall include: (a) Basic initial ground training covering duties and responsibilities. (b) Appropriate Authority rules and regulations. (c) Appropriate portions of the AOC holders operating manual. (d) Appropriate emergency training as required by the Authority and the AOC holders operating manual. (e) Appropriate flight training. (f) Appropriate recurrent, upgrade, or difference training, as required, to maintain currency in both type

and any variance the crew member may be required to work in. (g) Maintain a training record system acceptable to the Authority to show compliance with all required

training. 1.4 All Aircraft Crew A written training programme shall be developed for all aircraft crew members in the emergency procedures appropriate to each make and model of aircraft flown in by the crew member. Areas shall include: (a) Instruction in emergency procedures, assignments. and crew co-ordination. (b) Individual instruction in the use of onboard emergency equipment such as fire extinguishers,

emergency breathing equipment, first aid equipment and its proper use, emergency exits and evacuation slides, and the aircraft’s oxygen system including the use of portable emergency oxygen bottles. Flight deck crew members shall also practice using their emergency equipment designed to protect them in case of a cockpit fire or smoke.

(c) Training shall also include instruction in potential emergencies such as rapid decompression, ditching, fire fighting, aircraft evacuation, medical emergencies, hijacking, and disruptive passengers.

(d) Scheduled recurrent training to meet Authority requirements.

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1.5 All Operations Personnel The training syllabi and checking programmes for all operations personnel shall include: (a) Training in the safe transportation and recognition of all dangerous goods permitted by the Authority to

be shipped by air. Training shall include the proper packaging, marking, labelling, and documentation of dangerous articles and magnetised materials.

(b) All appropriate security training required by the Authority. (c) A method of providing any required notification of an accident or incident involving dangerous goods. 1.6 Operations Personnel Other Than Aircraft Crew Operations personnel other than aircraft crew (e g., Operational Control Person, handling personnel etc.), a written training programme shall be developed that pertains to their respective duties. The training programme shall provide for initial, recurrent, and any required upgrade training. 2.0 Procedures for Training and Checking 2.1 Proficiency Checking Procedures Procedures to be applied in the event that personnel do not achieve or maintain the required standards. 2.2 Procedures involving the Simulation of Abnormal or Emergency Situations Procedures to ensure that abnormal or emergency situations requiring the application of part or all of abnormal or emergency procedures, and simulation of IMC by artificial means, are not simulated during commercial air transportation flights. 3.0. Document Retention 3.1 Documentation to be Stored and Storage Periods An AOC holder shall retain all documentation required by appropriate Authority or the Authority of a foreign country in which the AOC holder is operating for the time specified by the respective Authority or for the time period needed to show compliance with appropriate regulations or this operations manual, whichever is longer.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.375 AIRCRAFT OPERATING MANUAL

Each AOC applicant and AOC holder should submit and maintain an aircraft operating manual containing at least the following.

1.0 General Information and Units of Measurement 1.1 General Information (e.g. aircraft dimensions), including a description of the units of measurement used for the operation of the aircraft type concerned and conversion tables. 2.0 Limitations 2.1 Certification and Operational Limitations A description of the certified limitations and the applicable operational limitations including: (a) Certification status; (b) Passenger seating configuration for each aircraft type including a pictorial presentation; (c) Types of operation that are approved (e.g. IFR/VFR, CAT Il/lll, flights in known icing conditions etc.); (d) Crew composition; (e) Operating within mass and centre of gravity limitations; (f) Speed limitations; (g) Flight envelopes; (h) Wind limits including operations on contaminated runways; (i) Performance limitations for applicable configurations; (j) Runway slope; (k) Limitations on wet or contaminated runways; (l) Airframe contamination; and (m) Post landing 3.0 Normal Procedures 3.1 Normal Procedures The normal procedures and duties assigned to the crew, the appropriate checklists, the system for use

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of the checklists and a statement covering the necessary co-ordination procedures between flight and cabin crew. The following normal procedures and duties shall be included: (a) Pre-flight (b) Pre-departure and loading; (c) Altimeter setting and checking; (d) Taxi, Take-Off and Climb; (e) Noise abatement; (f) Cruise and descent; (g) Approach, landing preparation and briefing; (h) VFR approach; (i) Instrument approach; (j) Visual approach and circling; (k) Missed approach; (l) Normal landing; (m) Post landing; and (n) Operation on wet and contaminated runways. 3.2 Specific Flight Deck Procedures (a) Determining airworthiness of aircraft (b) Obtaining flight release (c) Initial cockpit preparation (d) Standard operating procedures (e) Cockpit discipline (f) Standard call-outs (d) Communications (e) Flight safety (f) Push-back and towing procedures (g) Taxi guidelines and ramp signals (h) Take-off and climb out procedures (i) Choice of runway (j) Take-off in limited visibility (k) Take-off in adverse weather (i) Use and limitations of weather radar (m) Use of landing lights (n) Monitoring of flight instruments (o) Power settings for take-off (p) Malfunctions during take-off (q) Rejected take-off decision (r) Climb, best angle, best rate (s) Sterile cockpit procedures (t) En route and holding procedures (u) Cruise control (v) Navigation logbook (w) Descent, approach and landing procedures (x) Standard call-outs (y) Reporting maintenance problems (z) How to obtain maintenance and service en route 4.0 Abnormal and Emergency Procedures 4.1 Abnormal and Emergency Procedures and Duties The manual shall contain a listing of abnormal and emergency procedures assigned to crew members with appropriate check-lists that include a system for use of the check-lists and a statement covering the necessary co-ordination procedures between flight and cabin crew. The following abnormal and emergency procedures and duties shall be included: (a) Crew incapacitation (b) Fire and smoke drills (c) Unpressurised and partially pressurised flight (d) Exceeding structural limits such as overweight landing (e) Exceeding cosmic radiation limits (f) Lightning strikes (g) Distress communications and alerting ATC to emergencies (h) Engine failure (i) System failures

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(j) Guidance for diversion in case of serious technical failure (k) Ground proximity warning (l) TCAS warning (m) Windshear (n) Emergency landing/ditching (o) Aircraft evacuation (p) Fuel Jettisoning and Overweight Landing:

• General considerations and policy • Fuel jettisoning procedures and precautions

(q) Emergency Procedures: • Emergency decent • Low fuel • Dangerous goods incident or accident

(r) Interception procedures (s) Emergency signal for cabin attendants (t) Communication Procedures (u) Radio listening watch 5.0 Performance Data Performance data shall be provided in a form in which it can be used without difficulty. 5.1 Performance Data Performance material which provides the necessary data to allow the flight crew to comply with the approved aircraft flight manual performance requirements shall be included to allow the determination of — (a) Take-off climb limits — Mass, Altitude, Temperature; (b) Take-off field length (dry, wet, contaminated); (c) Net flight path data for obstacle clearance calculation or, where applicable, take-off flight path; (d) The gradient losses for banked climb outs; (e) En route climb limits; (f) Approach climb limits; (g) Landing climb limits; (h) Landing field length (dry, wet, contaminated) including the effects of an inflight failure of a system or

device, if it affects the landing distance; (i) Brake energy limits; and (j) Speeds applicable for the various flight stages (also considering wet or contaminated runways). 5.1.1. Supplementary Performance Data Supplementary data covering flights in icing conditions. Any certified performance related to an allowable configuration, or configuration deviation, such as anti-skid inoperative, shall be included. 5.1.2. Other Acceptable Performance Data If performance data, as required for the appropriate performance class, is not available in the approved AFM, then other data acceptable to the Authority shall be included. Alternatively, the operations manual may contain cross-reference to the approved data contained in the AFM where such data is not likely to be used often or in an emergency. 5.2 Additional Performance Data Additional performance data where applicable including: (a) All engine climb gradients; (b) Drift-down data; (c) Effect of de-icing/anti-icing fluids; (d) Flight with landing gear down; (e) For aircraft with 3 or more engines, one engine inoperative ferry flights; and (f) Flights conducted under the provisions of a configuration deviation list (CDL). 6.0 Flight Planning 6.1 Flight Planning Data Data and instructions necessary for pre-flight and inflight planning including factors such as speed schedules and power settings. Where applicable, procedures for engine(s) out operations, ETOPS and flights to isolated airports shall be included. 6.2 Fuel Calculations The method for calculating fuel needed for the various stages of flight.

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7.0 Mass And Balance 7.1 Calculating Mass and Balance Instructions and data for the calculation of mass and balance including: (a) Calculation system (e.g. Index system) (b) Information and instructions for completion of mass and balance documentation, including manual and

computer generated types (c) Limiting mass and centre of gravity of the various versions (d) Dry operating mass and corresponding centre of gravity or index. 8.0 Loading 8.1 Loading Procedures Procedures and provisions for loading and securing the load in the aircraft. 8.1 Loading Dangerous Goods The operations manual shall contain a method to notify the PIC when dangerous goods is loaded in the aircraft. 9.0 Survival And Emergency Equipment including Oxygen 9.1 List of Survival Equipment to be Carried A list of the survival equipment to be carried for the routes to be flown and the procedures for checking the serviceability of this equipment prior to take-off. Instructions regarding the location, accessibility and use of survival and emergency equipment and its associated check list(s) shall also be included. 9.2 Oxygen Usage The procedure for determining the amount of oxygen required and the quantity that is available. The flight profile, number of occupants and possible cabin decompression shall be considered. The information provided shall be in a form in which it can be used without difficulty. 9.3 Emergency Equipment Usage A description of the proper use of the following emergency equipment: (a) Life jackets (b) Life rafts (c) Medical kits/first aid kits (d) Survival kits (e) Emergency locator transmitter (ELT) (f) Visual signalling devices (g) Evacuation slides (h) Emergency lighting 10.0 Emergency Evacuation Procedures 10.1 Instructions for Emergency Evacuation Instructions for preparation for emergency evacuation including, crew co-ordination and emergency station assignment. 10.2 Emergency Evacuation Procedures A description of the duties of all members of the crew for the rapid evacuation of an aircraft and the handling of the passengers in the event of a forced landing, ditching or other emergency. 11.0 Aircraft Systems. 11.1 Aircraft Systems A description of the aircraft systems, related controls and indications and operating instructions. 12.0 Route and Airport Instructions and Information (optional for this manual) 12.1 Instructions and information Instructions and information relating to communications, navigation and airports including minimum flight levels and altitudes for each route to be flown and operating minima for each airport planned to be used, including: (a) Minimum flight Ievel/altitude (b) Operating minima for departure, destination and alternate airports (c) Communication facilities and navigation aids (d) Runway data and airport facilities (e) Approach, missed approach and departure procedures including noise abatement procedures (f) Communications-failure procedures

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(g) Search and rescue facilities in the area over which the aircraft is to be flown (h) A description of the aeronautical charts that shall be carried on board in relation to the type of flight

and the route to be flown, including the method to check their validity (i) Availability of aeronautical information and MET services (j) En route COM/NAV procedures, including holding (k) Airport categorisation for flight crew competence qualification.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.415 PASSENGER BRIEFING CARDS

(a) The AOC holder shall, at each exit seat, provide passenger information cards that include the following information in the primary language in which emergency commands are given by the crew: (1) Functions required of a passenger in the event of an emergency in

which a crew member is not available to assist — (i) Locate the emergency exit;

(ii) Recognise the emergency exit opening mechanism; (iii) Comprehend the instructions for operating the emergency exit; (iv) Operate the emergency exit; (v) Assess whether opening the emergency exit will increase the

hazards to which passengers may be exposed; (vi) Follow oral directions and hand signals given by a crew member;

(vii) Stow or secure the emergency exit door so that it will not impede use of the exit;

(viii) Assess the condition of an escape slide, activate the slide, and stabilise the slide after deployment to assist others in getting off the slide;

(ix) Pass expeditiously through the emergency exit; and (x) Assess, select, and follow a safe path away from the emergency exit.

(2) A request that a passenger identify himself or herself to allow resealing if he or she —

(i) Cannot perform the emergency functions stated in the information card;

(ii) Has a nondiscernible condition that will prevent him or her from performing the functions;

(iii) May suffer bodily harm as the result of performing one or more of those functions; or

(iv) Does not wish to perform those functions; (v) Lacks the ability to read, speak, or understand the language or the

graphic form in which instructions are provided by the AOC holder.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 12.420 AERONAUTICAL DATA CONTROL SYSTEM

(a) The AOC holder shall provide aeronautical data for each airport used by the AOC holder which includes the following: (1) Airports:

(i) Facilities. (ii) Navigational and communications aids.

(iii) Construction affecting takeoff, landing, or ground operations. (iv) Air traffic facilities.

(2) Runways, clearways, and stopways: (i) Dimensions. (ii) Surface.

(iii) Marking and lighting systems. (iv) Elevation and gradient.

(3) Displaced thresholds: (i) Location. (ii) Dimensions.

(iii) Takeoff or landing or both. (4) Obstacles:

(i) Those affecting takeoff and landing performance computations. (ii) Controlling obstacles.

(iii) Instrument flight procedures. (iv) Departure procedure. (v) Approach procedure.

(vi) Missed approach procedure. (5) Special information:

(i) Runway visual range measurement equipment. (ii) Prevailing winds under low visibility conditions.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.430 WEATHER REPORTING SOURCES

(a) The Authority approves and considers the following sources of weather reports satisfactory for flight planning or controlling flight movement: (1) Bahamas State Meteorological office. (2) The Bahamas-operated automated surface observation stations. Note: Some automated systems cannot report all required items for a complete surface aviation weather report. (3) The Bahamas-operated supplemental aviation weather reporting

stations. (4) Observations taken by airport traffic control towers.

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(5) The Bahamas-contracted weather observatories. (6) Any active meteorological office operated by a foreign state which

subscribes to the standards and practices of ICAO conventions. Note: These meteorological offices are normally listed in the MET tables located in ICAO Regional Air Navigation Plans. (7) Any military weather reporting sources approved by the Authority. Note: Use of military sources is limited to control of those flight operations which use military airports as departure, destination, alternate, or diversionary airports. (8) Near real time reports such as pilot reports, radar reports, radar

summary charts, and satellite imagery reports made by commercial weather sources or other sources specifically approved by the Authority.

(9) An AOC holder operated and maintained weather reporting system approved by the Authority.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.435 DE-ICING AND ANTI-ICING PROGRAMME

(a) Contents of the AOC holder’s ground de-icing and anti-icing programme shall include a detailed description of — (1) How the AOC holder determines that conditions are such that frost,

ice, or snow may reasonably be expected to adhere to the aircraft and that ground de-icing and anti-icing operational procedures shall be in effect;

(2) Who is responsible for deciding that ground de-icing and anti-icing operational procedures shall be in effect;

(3) The procedures for implementing ground de-icing and anti-icing operational procedures; and

(4) The specific duties and responsibilities of each operational position or group responsible for getting the aircraft safely airborne while ground de-icing and anti-icing operational procedures are in effect.

(b) The AOC holder’s programme shall include procedures for flight crew members to increase or decrease the determined holdover time in changing conditions. The holdover time shall be supported by data acceptable to the Authority. If the maximum holdover time is exceeded, takeoff is prohibited unless at least one of the following conditions exists — (1) A pre-takeoff contamination check is conducted outside the aircraft

(within five minutes prior to beginning take off) to determine that the wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces, as defined in the certificate holder’s programme, are free of frost, ice, or snow;

(2) It is otherwise determined by an alternate procedure, approved by the Authority and in accordance with the AOC holder’s approved programme, that the wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces are free of frost, ice, or snow; or

(3) The wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces are de-iced again and a new holdover time is determined.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 12.540 CONTENTS OF THE MAINTENANCE CONTROL MANUAL

(a) The AOC holder’s maintenance control manual shall contain the following information which may be issued in separate parts — (1) A description of the required maintenance procedures, including

where — (i) A description of the administrative arrangements between the

AOC holder and the approved maintenance organization; (ii) A description of the maintenance procedures and the procedures

for completing and signing a maintenance release when maintenance is based on a system other than that of an approved maintenance organization.

(2) The names and duties of the person or persons required to ensure that all maintenance is carried out in accordance with the maintenance control manual.

(3) A reference to the required maintenance programme(s). (4) A description of the methods for completion and retention of the

required AOC holder’s maintenance records. (5) A description of establishing and maintaining a system of analysis and

continued monitoring or the performance and efficiency of the main- tenance programme, in order to correct any deficiency in that programme.

(6) A description of the procedures for obtaining and assessing continued airworthiness information and implementing any resulting actions for all aircraft over 5,700 kg maximum certificated take-off mass, from the organisation responsible for the type design, and shall implement such actions considered necessary by the State of Registry.

(7) A description of procedures for assessing continuing airworthiness information and implementing any resulting actions.

(8) A description of the procedures for implementing action resulting from mandatory continuing airworthiness information.

(9) A description of the procedures for monitoring, assessing and reporting maintenance and operational experience for all aircraft over 5,700 kg maximum certificated take-off mass.

(10) A description of aircraft types and models to which the manual applies. (11) A description of procedures for ensuring that unserviceabilities

affecting airworthiness are recorded and rectified; and (12) A description of the procedures for advising the State of Registry of

significant in-service occurrences. (13) A description of the procedures to ensure each aeroplane they operate

is in an airworthy condition. (14) A description of the procedures to ensure the operational emergency

equipment for each flight is serviceable. (15) A description of the procedures for the introduction of new aircraft to the

fleet.

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(16) A description of the procedures for assessment of contractor capabilities, including de-icing.

(17) A description of the procedures for control and approval of major repairs and alterations.

(18) The certificate holder’s manual must contain the required programs that must be followed in performing maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations of the AOC holder’s airplanes, including airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, emergency equipment and parts thereof, and must include at least the following —

(i) The method of performing routine and nonroutine maintenance (other than required inspections, preventive maintenance, and alterations.

(ii) A designation of the items of maintenance and alterations that must be inspected (required inspections), including at least those that could result in a failure, malfunction, or defect endangering the safe operations of the aircraft, if not performed properly or if improper parts or materials are used.

(iii) The method of performing required inspections and a designation by occupational title or personnel authorized to perform each required inspection.

(iv) Procedures for the reinspection of work performed pursuant to previous required inspections findings (“buy-back”) procedures.

(v) Procedures, standards and limits necessary for required inspections and acceptance or rejections of the items required to be inspected and for periodic inspection and calibration of precision tools, measuring devices and test equipment.

(vi) Instruction to prevent any person who performs any item of work from performing any required inspection of that work.

(vii) Instructions and procedures to prevent any decision of an inspector, regarding any required inspection from being countermanded by persons other than supervisory personnel of the inspection unit, or a person at that level of administrative control that has overall responsibility for the management of both the required inspection functions and the other maintenance, preventive maintenance and alteration functions.

(viii) Procedures to ensure that required inspection, other maintenance, preventive maintenance and alterations that are not completed as a result of shift changes or similar work interruptions are properly completed before the aircraft is released to service.

(ix) A description of the procedures for preparing the release to service and the circumstances under which the release is to be signed.

(x) A list of personnel authorized to sign the release to service and the scope of their authorization.

Note: The manual may be put together in any subject order and subjects combined so long as all applicable subjects are covered in this manual.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 12.550 AOC HOLDER’S ADDITIONAL QUALITY SYSTEM FOR MAINTENANCE (a) Each AOC shall establish a plan acceptable to the Authority to show when

and how often the activities are required will be monitored. In addition, reports should be produced at the completion of each monitoring investigation and include details of discrepancies of non-compliance with procedures or requirements.

(b) The feedback part of the system shall address who is required to rectify discrepancies and non-compliance in each particular case and the procedure to be followed if rectification is not completed within appropriate time scales. The procedure should lead to the Accountable Manager.

(c) To ensure effective compliance the AOC holder and AOC applicant should use the following elements: (19) Product sampling — the part inspection of a representative sample of

the aircraft fleet. (20) Defect sampling — the monitoring of defect rectification performance. (21) Concession sampling — the monitoring of any concession to not carry

out maintenance on time. (22) On time maintenance sampling — the monitoring of when (flying

hours/calendar time/flight cycles, etc.) aircraft and their components are brought in for maintenance.

(23) Sample reports of unairworthy conditions and maintenance errors on aircraft and components.

Note: The primary purpose of the Quality System for maintenance is to monitor compliance with the approved procedures specified in an operators maintenance control manual to ensure compliance and thereby ensure the maintenance aspects of the operational safety of the aircraft. In particular, this part of the Quality System provides a monitor of the effectiveness of maintenance, and should include a feedback system to ensure that corrective actions are identified and carried out in a timely manner.

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SCHEDULE 13

PASSENGER CARRYING REQUIREMENTS FOR AOC HOLDERS AND OPERATORS OF LARGE AIRCRAFT

SUBPART A: GENERAL 13.001 Applicability 13.005 Definitions 13.010 Acronyms 13.015 Carriage of Persons Without Compliance with these Passenger-

Carrying Requirements SUBPART B: CABIN ATTENDANTS 13.020 Required Cabin Attendants 13.025 Cabin Attendants at Duty Stations SUBPART C: PASSENGERS 13.030 Denial of Transportation 13.035 Prohibition Against Carriage of Weapons 13.040 Carriage of Special Situation Passengers 13.045 Oxygen for Medical Use by Passengers 13.050 Carriage of Persons with Reduced Mobility 13.055 Passenger Seat Belts 13.060 Exit Row Seating 13.065 Passenger Information Signs 13.070 Passenger Compliance with Instructions 13.075 Required Passenger Briefings 13.080 Passenger Briefing: Extended Overwater Operations SUBPART D: SECURING ITEMS OF MASS 13.085 Securing of Items of Mass in Passenger Compartment 13.090 Carry-on Baggage 13.095 Carriage of Cargo in Passenger Compartments SUBPART E: EMERGENCY PREPAREDNESS 13.100 Accessibility of Emergency Exits and Equipment 13.105 Evacuation Capability 13.110 Arming of Automatic Emergency Exits 13.115 Stops Where Passengers Remain on Board 13.120 Passenger Seat Backs 13.125 Stowage of Food, Beverage and Passenger Service

APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 13.060: Exit Row Seating Appendix 1 to 13.095: Carriage of Cargo in Passenger Compartments

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SUBPART A GENERAL

13.001 APPLICABILITY (a) This Schedule prescribes the passenger-carrying requirements for AOC

holders and other operators of aeroplanes of more than 5700 kg in addition to the requirements of Schedule 9.

13.005 DEFINITIONS (a) For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply —

(1) Passenger exit seats. Those seats having direct access to an exit, and those seats in a row of seats through which passengers would have to pass to gain access to an exit, from the first seat inboard of the exit to the first aisle inboard of the exit. A passenger seat having “direct access” means a seat from which a passenger can proceed directly to the exit without entering an aisle or passing around an obstruction.

13.010 ACRONYMS (a) The following acronyms are used in this Schedule:

(1) AOC — Air Operator Certificate (2) PBE — Protective Breathing Equipment (3) PIC — Pilot In Command (4) SIC — Second In Command (5) SCA — Senior Cabin Attendant

13.015 CARRIAGE OF PERSONS WITHOUT COMPLIANCE WITH THESE PASSENGER-CARRYING REQUIREMENTS

(a) The passenger-carrying requirements of paragraph (b) do not apply when carrying — (1) A crew member not required for the flight; (2) A representative of the Authority on official duty; (3) A person necessary to the safety or security of cargo or animals; or (4) Any person authorised by the AOC holder’s Operation Manual

procedures, as approved by the Authority. (b) No person may be carried without compliance to the passenger carrying

requirements unless — (1) There is an approved seat with an approved seat belt for that person; (2) That seat is located so that the occupant is not in any position to interfere

with the flight crew members performing their duties; (3) There is unobstructed access from their seat to the flight deck or a regular

or emergency exit; (4) There is a means for notifying that person when smoking is prohibited and

when seat belts shall be fastened; and (5) That person has been orally briefed by a crew member on the use of

emergency equipment and exits.

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SUBPART B CABIN ATTENDANTS

13.020 REQUIRED CABIN ATTENDANTS (a) The AOC holder shall schedule, and the PIC shall ensure that the minimum

number of required cabin attendants are on board passenger-carrying flights. (b) The number of cabin attendants may not be less than minimum prescribed

by the Authority in the AOC holders’ operations specifications or the following, whichever is greater — (1) For a seating capacity of 20 to 50 passengers: 1 cabin attendant; and (2) One additional cabin attendant for each unit, or part of a unit, of 50

passenger seat capacity. (c) When passengers are on board a parked aircraft, the minimum number of

flight attendants shall be one-half that required for the flight operation, but never less than one cabin attendant (or another person qualified in the emergency evacuation procedures for the aircraft).

Note: Where one-half would result in a fractional number, it is permissible to round down to the next whole number.

13.025 CABIN ATTENDANTS AT DUTY STATIONS (a) During taxi, cabin attendants shall remain at their duty stations with safety

belts and shoulder harness fastened except to perform duties related to the safety of the aircraft and its occupants.

(b) During takeoff and landing, cabin attendants shall remain at their duty stations with safety belts and shoulder harness fastened.

(c) During en route phases of flight, the cabin attendant shall be seated at their duty station with safety belts and shoulder harness fastened whenever the PIC so directs.

Note: This does not prevent the PIC from directing the fastening of the seat belt only at times other than for takeoff and landing.

(d) During takeoff and landing, cabin attendants shall be assigned to duty stations as near as practicable to required floor level exits and shall be uniformly distributed throughout the aircraft to provide the most effective egress of passengers in event of an emergency evacuation.

(e) When passengers are on board a parked aircraft, cabin attendants (or another person qualified in emergency evacuation procedures for the aircraft) will be placed in the following manner: (1) If only one qualified person is required, that person shall be located in

accordance with the AOC holder’s Operations Manual procedures. (2) If more than one qualified person is required, those persons shall be spaced

throughout the cabin to provide the most effective assistance for the evacuation in case of an emergency.

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SUBPART C PASSENGERS

13.030 DENIAL OF TRANSPORTATION (a) An AOC holder may deny transportation because a passenger —

(1) Refuses to comply with the instructions regarding exit seating restrictions prescribed by the Authority; or

(2) Has a handicap that can be physically accommodated only by an exit row seat.

13.035 PROHIBITION AGAINST CARRIAGE OF WEAPONS (a) No person may, while on board an aircraft being operated in commercial air

transport, carry on or about their person a deadly or dangerous weapon, either concealed or unconcealed. Note: This section does not apply to officials or employees of the State who are authorised to carry weapons or crew members and other persons authorised by the AOC holder to carry arms.

13.040 CARRIAGE OF SPECIAL SITUATION PASSENGERS (a) No AOC holder may allow the transportation of special situation passengers

except — (1) As provided in the AOC holder’s Operations Manual procedures; and (2) With the knowledge and concurrence of the PIC.

13.045 OXYGEN FOR MEDICAL USE BY PASSENGERS (a) An AOC holder may allow a passenger to carry and operate equipment for the

storage, generation or dispensing of medical oxygen only as prescribed by the Authority.

(b) No person may smoke, and no crew member may allow any person to smoke within 10 feet of oxygen storage and dispensing equipment carried for the medical use of a passenger.

(c) No crew member may allow any person to connect or disconnect oxygen dispensing equipment to or from a oxygen cylinder while any other passenger is aboard the aircraft.

13.050 CARRIAGE OF PERSONS WITH REDUCED MOBILITY (a) No person may allow a person of reduced mobility to occupy seats where their

presence could — (1) Impede the crew in their duties; (2) Obstruct access to emergency equipment; or (3) Impede the emergency evacuation of the aircraft.

13.055 PASSENGER SEAT BELTS (a) Each passenger occupying a seat or berth shall fasten his or her safety belt and

keep it fastened while the “Fasten Seat Belt” sign is lighted or, in aircraft not equipped with such a sign, whenever instructed by the PIC.

(b) No passenger safety belt may be used by more than one occupant during takeoff and landing.

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(c) At each unoccupied seat, the safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed, shall be secured so as not to interfere with crew members in the performance of their duties or with the rapid egress of occupants in an emergency.

Note: A person who has not reached his or her second birthday may be held by an adult who is occupying a seat or berth.

Note: A berth, such as a multiple lounge or divan seat, may be occupied by two persons provided it is equipped with an approved safety belt for each person and is used during en route flight only.

13.060 EXIT ROW SEATING (a) No PIC or SCA may allow a passenger to sit in an emergency exit row if the PIC

or SCA determine that it is likely that the passenger would be unable to understand and perform the functions necessary to open an exit and to exit rapidly. See Appendix 1 to 13.060 for additional requirements pertaining to exit row seating.

13.065 PASSENGER INFORMATION SIGNS (a) The PIC shall turn on required passenger information signs during any

movement on the surface, for each takeoff and each landing, and when otherwise considered to be necessary.

13.070 PASSENGER COMPLIANCE WITH INSTRUCTIONS (a) Each passenger on a commercial air transport flight shall comply with

instructions given by a crew member in compliance with this section.

13.075 REQUIRED PASSENGER BRIEFINGS (a) No person may commence a takeoff unless the passengers are briefed prior to

takeoff in accordance with the AOC holder’s Operation Manual procedures on — (1) Smoking limitations and prohibitions; (2) Emergency exit location and use; (3) Use of safety belts; (4) Emergency floatation means location and use; (5) Fire extinguisher location and operation; (6) Placement of seat backs; (7) If flight is above 12,000 feet MSL, the normal and emergency use of

oxygen; and (8) The passenger briefing card.

(b) Immediately before or immediately after turning the seat belt sign off, the PIC or SCA shall ensure that the passengers are briefed to keep their seat belts fastened while seated, even when the seat belt sign is off.

(c) Before each takeoff, the PIC or SCA shall ensure that any persons of reduced mobility are personally briefed on — (1) The route to the most appropriate exit; and (2) The time to begin moving to the exit in event of an emergency.

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13.080 PASSENGER BRIEFING: EXTENDED OVERWATER OPERATIONS (a) No person may commence extended overwater operations unless all

passengers have been orally briefed on the location and operations of life preservers, liferafts and other flotation means, including a demonstration of the method of donning and inflating a life preserver.

SUBPART D SECURING ITEMS OF MASS

13.085 SECURING OF ITEMS OF MASS IN PASSENGER COMPARTMENT (a) No person may allow the takeoff or landing of an aircraft unless each item

of mass in the passenger cabin is properly secured to prevent it from becoming a hazard during taxi, takeoff and landing and during turbulent weather conditions.

(b) No person may allow an aircraft to move on the surface, takeoff or land unless each passenger serving cart is secured in its stowed position.

13.090 CARRY-ON BAGGAGE (a) No person may allow the boarding of carry-on baggage unless it can be

adequately and securely stowed in accordance with the AOC holder’s Operations Manual procedures.

(b) No person may allow aircraft passenger entry doors to be closed in preparation for taxi or pushback unless at least one required crew member has verified that each article of baggage has been properly stowed in overhead racks with approved restraining devices or doors, or in approved locations aft of the bulkhead.

(c) No person may allow carry-on baggage to be stowed in a location that would cause that location to be loaded beyond its maximum placard weight limitation. Note: The stowage locations shall be capable of restraining the articles in crash impacts severe enough to induce the ultimate inertia forces specified in the emergency landing conditions under which the aircraft was type-certified.

13.095 CARRIAGE OF CARGO IN PASSENGER COMPARTMENTS (a) No person may allow the carriage of cargo in the passenger compartment of

an aeroplane except as prescribed by the Authority. See Appendix 1 to 13.095 for specific requirements pertaining to carriage of cargo in passenger compartments.

SUBPART E EMERGENCY PREPAREDNESS

13.100 ACCESSIBILITY OF EMERGENCY EXITS AND EQUIPMENT (a) No person may allow carry-on baggage or other items to block access to the

emergency exits when the aircraft is moving on the surface, during takeoff or landing, or while passengers remain on board.

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13.105 EVACUATION CAPABILITY (a) The PIC, SCA and other person assigned by the AOC holder shall ensure that,

when passengers are on board the aircraft prior to movement on the surface, at least one floor-level exit provides for egress of passengers through normal or emergency means.

13.110 ARMING OF AUTOMATIC EMERGENCY EXITS (a) No person may cause an aeroplane carrying passengers to be moved on the

surface, takeoff or land unless each automatically deployable emergency evacuation assisting means installed on the aircraft is ready for evacuation.

13.115 STOPS WHERE PASSENGERS REMAIN ON BOARD (a) At stops where passengers remain on board the aircraft, the PIC, the SCA, or

both shall ensure that — (1) All engines are shut down; (2) At least one floor level exit remains open to provide for the deplaning of

passengers; and (3) There is at least one person immediately available who is qualified in the

emergency evacuation of the aircraft and who has been identified to the passengers on board as responsible for the passenger safety.

(b) If refuelling with passengers on board, the PIC or a designated company representative shall ensure that the AOC holder’s Operations Manual procedures are followed.

13.120 PASSENGER SEAT BACKS No PIC or SCA may allow the takeoff or landing of an aircraft unless each

passenger seat back is in the upright position. Note: Exceptions may only be made in accordance with procedures in the AOC holder’s Operations Manual provided the seat back does not obstruct any passenger’s access to the aisle or to any emergency exit.

13.125 STOWAGE OF FOOD, BEVERAGE AND PASSENGER SERVICE (a) No PIC or SCA may allow the movement of an aircraft on the surface, takeoff

or land — (1) When any food, beverage or tableware furnished by the AOC holder is

located at any passenger seat; and (2) Unless each food and beverage tray and seat back tray table is in the

stowed position.

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APPENDICES

APPENDIX 1 TO 13.060 EXIT ROW SEATING

(a) No cabin attendant may seat a person in a passenger exit seat if it is likely that the person would be unable to perform one or more of the applicable functions listed below — (1) The person lacks sufficient mobility, strength, or dexterity in both

arms and hands, and both legs — (i) To reach upward, sideways, and downward to the location of

emergency exit and exit-slide operating mechanisms; (ii) To grasp and push, pull, turn, or otherwise manipulate those

mechanisms; (iii) To push, shove, pull, or otherwise open emergency exits; (iv) To lift out, hold, deposit on nearby seats, or manoeuvre over the

seatbacks to the next row objects the size and weight of over- wing window exit doors;

(v) To remove obstructions of size and weight similar to over-wing exit doors;

(vi) To reach the emergency exit expeditiously; (vii) To maintain balance while removing obstructions;

(viii) To exit expeditiously; (ix) To stabilise an escape slide after deployment; or (x) To assist others in getting off an escape slide;

(2) The person is less than 15 years of age or lacks the capacity to perform one or more of the applicable functions listed above without the assistance of an adult companion, parent, or other relative;

(3) The person lacks the ability to read and understand instructions required by this section and related to emergency evacuation provided by the AOC holder in printed or graphic form or the ability to understand oral crew commands;

(4) The person lacks sufficient visual capacity to perform one or more of the above functions without the assistance of visual aids beyond contact lenses or eyeglasses;

(5) The person lacks sufficient aural capacity to hear and understand instructions shouted by flight attendants, without assistance beyond a hearing aid;

(6) The person lacks the ability adequately to impart information orally to other passengers; or

(7) The person has a condition or responsibilities, such as caring for small children, that might prevent the person from performing one or more of the functions listed above; or a condition that might cause the person harm if he or she performs one or more of the functions listed above.

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(b) Determinations as to the suitability of each person permitted to occupy an exit seat shall be made by the cabin attendants or other persons designated in the AOC holder’s operations manual.

(c) In the event a cabin attendant determines that a passenger assigned to an exit seat would be unable to perform the emergency exit functions, or if a passenger requests a non-exit seat, the cabin attendant shall expeditiously relocate the passenger to a non-exit seat.

(d) In the event of full booking in the non-exit seats, and if necessary to accommodate a passenger being relocated from an exit seat, the cabin attendant shall move a passenger who is willing and able to assume the evacuation functions, to an exit seat.

(e) Each AOC ticket agent shall, prior to boarding, assign seats consistent with the passenger selection criteria and the emergency exit functions, to the maximum extent feasible.

(f) Each AOC ticket agent shall make available for inspection by the public at all passenger loading gates and ticket counters at each aerodrome where it conducts passenger operations, written procedures established for making determinations in regard to exit row seating,

(g) Each cabin attendant shall include in their passenger briefings a request that a passenger identify himself or herself to allow reseating if he or she — (1) Cannot meet the selection criteria; (2) Has a nondiscernible condition that will prevent him or her from

performing the evacuation functions; (3) May suffer bodily harm as the result of performing one or more of those

functions; or (4) Does not wish to perform emergency exit functions.

(h) Each cabin attendant shall include in their passenger briefings a reference to the passenger information cards and the functions to be performed in an emergency exit.

(i) Each passenger shall comply with instructions given by a crew member or other authorised employee of the AOC holder implementing exit seating restrictions.

(j) No PIC may allow taxi or pushback unless at least one required crew member has verified that all exit rows and escape paths are unobstructed and that no exit seat is occupied by a person the crew member determines is likely to be unable to perform the applicable evacuation functions.

APPENDIX 1 TO 13.095 CARRIAGE OF CARGO IN PASSENGER COMPARTMENTS

(a) Cargo may be carried anywhere in the passenger compartment if it is carried in an approved cargo bin that meets the following requirements — (1) The bin must withstand the load factors and emergency landing conditions

applicable to the passenger seats of the aeroplane in which the bin is installed, multiplied by a factor of 1.15, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of cargo that may be carried in the bin;

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(2) The maximum weight of cargo that the bin is approved to carry and any instructions necessary to insure proper weight distribution within the bin must be conspicuously marked on the bin;

(3) The bin may not impose any load on the floor or other structure of the aeroplane that exceeds the load limitations of that structure;

(4) The bin must be attached to the seat tracks or to the floor structure of the aeroplane, and its attachment must withstand the load factors and emergency landing conditions applicable to the passenger seats of the aeroplane in which the bin is installed, multiplied by either the factor 1.15 or the seat attachment factor specified for the aeroplane, whichever is greater, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of cargo that may be carried in the bin;

(5) The bin may not be installed in a position that restricts access to or use of any required emergency exit, or of the aisle in the passenger compartment;

(6) The bin must be fully enclosed and made of material that is at least flame resistant;

(7) Suitable safeguards must be provided within the bin to prevent the cargo from shifting under emergency landing conditions; and

(8) The bin may not be installed in a position that obscures any passenger’s view of the “seat belt” sign, “no smoking” sign, or any required exit sign, unless an auxiliary sign or other approved means for proper notification of the passenger is provided.

(b) Cargo, including carry-on baggage, may be carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of a small (Group B) aeroplane if it is carried in an approved cargo rack, bin, or compartment installed in or on the aeroplane, if it is secured by an approved means, or if it is carried in accordance with each of the following — (1) For cargo, it is properly secured by a safety belt or other tie-down having

enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting under all normally anticipated flight and ground conditions, or for carry-on baggage, it is restrained so as to prevent its movement during air turbulence;

(2) It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants; (3) It does not impose any load on seats or in the floor structure that exceeds

the load limitation for those components; (4) It is not located in a position that obstructs the access to, or use of, any

required emergency or regular exit, or the use of the aisle between the crew and the passenger compartment, or is located in a position that obscures any passenger’s view of the “seat belt” sign, “no smoking” sign or placard, or any required exit sign, unless an auxiliary sign or other approved means for proper notification of the passengers is provided;

(5) It is not carried directly above seated occupants. (6) It is stowed in compliance with these restrictions during takeoff and

landing. (7) For cargo-only operations, if the cargo is loaded so that at least one

emergency or regular exit is available to provide all occupants of the aeroplane a means of unobstructed exit from the aeroplane if an emergency occurs.

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SCHEDULE 14

AOC PERSONNEL QUALIFICATION

SUBPART A: GENERAL 14.001 Applicability 14.005 Definitions 14.010 Acronyms SUBPART B: AVIATION PERSONNEL QUALIFICATIONS 14.020 Age 60 Restriction 14.025 PIC Licence Requirements: Turbojet or Large Aircraft 14.030 PIC Licence Requirements: Non-Turbojet or Turbofan Small

Aeroplanes 14.035 PIC Aeronautical Experience: Small Aeroplanes 14.040 SIC Licence Requirements 14.045 FE Licence Requirements 14.050 One Pilot Qualified to Perform FE Functions 14.055 Persons Qualified to Flight Release 14.060 Pairing of Low Experience Crew Members SUBPART C: GROUND TRAINING REQUIREMENTS 14.065 Company Procedures Indoctrination 14.070 Initial Dangerous Goods Training 14.075 Initial Security Training 14.080 Initial Crew Resource Management 14.085 Initial Emergency Equipment Drills 14.090 Initial Aircraft Ground Training SUBPART D: FLIGHT TRAINING REQUIREMENTS 14.095 Initial Aircraft Flight Training 14.100 Initial Specialized Operations Training 14.105 Aircraft Differences 14.110 Use of Simulators and Training Devices 14.115 Introduction of New Equipment or Procedures SUBPART E: PROFICIENCY AND COMPETENCY CHECKS 14.120 Pilot, Aircraft and Instrument Proficiency Checks 14.125 Flight Engineer Proficiency Checks 14.130 Competence Checks: Cabin Attendants 14.135 Competence Checks: Operational Control Persons SUBPART F: SUPERVISED LINE FLYING 14.140 Supervised Line Flying: Pilots 14.145 Supervised Line Flying: Flight Engineers 14.150 Supervised Line Experience: Cabin Attendants 14.155 Line Observations: Operational Control Persons SUBPART G: CONTINUING QUALIFICATION 14.160 Route and Airport Qualification 14.162 Route and Area Checks: Pilot Qualification

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14.165 PIC Low Minimums Authorisation 14.170 Designated Special Aerodromes and Heliports: PIC Qualification 14.175 Re-establishing Regency of Experience: Pilot SUBPART H: RECURRENT TRAINING 14.180 Recurrent Training: Flight Crew Members 14.185 Recurrent Training: Cabin Attendants 14.190 Recurrent Training: Operational Control Persons SUBPART I: INSTRUCTOR & CHECK AIRMAN QUALIFICATION 14.195 Check Airman Training 14.200 Flight Instructor Training 14.205 Simulator Instructor Qualifications 14.207 Aircraft Instructor Pilot Qualifications 14.210 Check Airman Qualifications 14.215 Check Airman Designation 14.220 Check Airman Limitations SUBPART J: ADMINISTRATIVE REQUIREMENTS 14.225 Substitution of Simulator Experience 14.230 Termination of a Proficiency, Competence or Line Check 14.235 Recording of Crew Member Qualifications 14.240 Monitoring of Training and Checking Activities 14.245 Eligibility Period 14.250 Reductions in Requirements

APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 14.060: Pairing of Low Experience Crew Members: Commercial Air

Transport Appendix 1 to 14.065: Company Procedures Indoctrination Appendix 1 to 14.070: Initial Dangerous Goods Training Appendix 1 to 14.080: Initial Crew Resource Management Training Appendix 1 to 14.085: Initial Emergency Equipment Drills Appendix 1 to 14.090: Initial Aircraft Ground Training — Flight Crew Appendix 2 to 14.090: Initial Aircraft Ground Training — Cabin Attendants Appendix 3 to 14.090: Initial Aircraft Ground Training-Operational Control Person Appendix 1 to 14.095: Initial Aircraft Flight Training Appendix 1 to 14.100: Initial Specialized Operations Training Appendix 1 to 14.105: Aircraft Differences-Operational Control Person Appendix 1 to 14.120: Aircraft and Instrument Proficiency Check: Pilot Appendix 1 to 14.125: Flight Engineer Proficiency Checks Appendix 1 to 14.130: Competence Checks: Cabin Attendants Appendix 1 to 14.135: Competence Checks: Operational Control Persons Appendix 1 to 14.180: Recurrent Training: Flight Crew Appendix 1 to 14.185: Recurrent Emergency Training: Cabin Attendants Appendix 1 to 14.190: Recurrent Training — Operational Control Person Appendix 1 to 14.195: Check Airman Training Appendix 1 to 14.200: Instructor Pilot Training

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SUBPART A GENERAL

14.001 APPLICABILITY (a) This Schedule prescribes the minimum requirements for qualification and

currency of operations personnel to be able to serve in commercial air transport or to be used by the holder of an Air Operator Certificate issued by The Bahamas.

14.005 DEFINITIONS (a) For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply —

(1) Calendar day. The period of elapsed time, using Co-ordinated Universal Time or local time, that begins at midnight and ends 24 hours later at the next midnight.

(2) Check airman (aeroplane). A person who is designated by the Authority, to conduct an evaluation in an aeroplane, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device for a particular type aeroplane.

(3) Check airman (simulator). A person who is designated by the Authority to conduct an evaluation, but only in a flight simulator or in a flight training device for a particular type aircraft.

14.010 ACRONYMS (a) The following acronyms are used in this Schedule:

(1) AFM — Aeroplane Flight Manual (2) AOC — Air Operator Certificate (3) CAT — Category (4) CRM — Crew Resource Management (5) ETOPS — Extended Twin-engine Operations (6) FE — Flight Engineer (7) GPS — Global Positioning System (8) IMC — Instrument Meteorological Conditions (9) INS — Inertial Navigation System (10) LDA — Localizes-type Directional Aid (11) LOC — Localizes (12) LVTO — Low Visibility Take Off (13) MDA — Minimum Decent Altitude (14) RVR — Runway Visibility Range (15) RVSM — Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (16) PBE — Protective Breathing Equipment (17) PIC — Pilot In Command (18) SIC — Second In Command (19) SCA — Senior Cabin Attendant (20) SM — Statute Miles (21) VMC — Visual Meteorological Conditions

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SUBPART B AVIATION PERSONNEL QUALIFICATIONS

14.020 AGE 60 RESTRICTION (a) No person may serve nor may any AOC holder use a person as a PIC of an

aeroplane with a gross takeoff weight of more than 5700 kg or an aircraft engaged in international commercial air transport operations if that person has reached their 60th birthday.

(b) Check airman who have reached their 60th birthday or who do not hold an appropriate medical certificate may continue their check airman functions, but may not serve as or occupy the position of a required pilot flight crew member on an aeroplane with a gross takeoff weight of more than 5700 kg engaged in international commercial air transport operations.

14.025 PIC LICENCE REQUIREMENTS: TURBOJET OR LARGE AIRCRAFT (a) No pilot may act as PIC of a turbojet or large aircraft in commercial air

transportation operations unless he or she holds an ATP licence and a type rating for that aircraft.

14.030 PIC LICENCE REQUIREMENTS: NON TURBOJET SMALL AEROPLANES

(a) No pilot may act as PIC of a non-turbojet small aircraft in commercial air transport during — (1) IFR operations unless he or she holds a commercial pilot licence with

appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft operated, and an instrument rating; or

(2) Day VFR operations unless he or she holds a commercial pilot licence with appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft operated and an instrument rating.

14.035 PIC AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE: SMALL AEROPLANES (a) No pilot may act as PIC of a small aeroplane in commercial air transport

during — (1) IFR — IMC operations across international borders unless he or she

meets the minimum aeronautical experience requirements necessary to qualify for the ATP licence.

(2) IFR — IMC operations within The Bahamas unless he or she has logged a minimum of 500 hours as a pilot, including at least 100 hours in IFR operations.

(3) VMC operations across international borders unless he or she has logged a minimum of 500 hours of time as a pilot, including at least 100 hours of cross-country flight time including 25 hours of which were at night.

(4) VMC day-only operations within The Bahamas unless he or she has logged a minimum of 250 hours as a pilot, including at least 100 hours of cross- country flight time.

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14.040 SIC LICENCE REQUIREMENTS (a) No pilot may act as SIC of an aircraft in commercial air transport operations

unless he or she — (1) Holds a commercial pilot licence with appropriate category and class

ratings for the aircraft operated; and (2) Holds an instrument rating.

14.045 FE LICENCE REQUIREMENTS (a) No person may act as the flight engineer of an aircraft unless he or she holds a

flight engineer licence with the appropriate class rating.

14.050 ONE PILOT QUALIFIED TO PERFORM FE FUNCTIONS (a) The AOC holder shall ensure that, on all flights requiring a flight engineer, there

is assigned at least one other flight crew member qualified to perform the FE duties in the event the FE becomes incapacitated.

14.055 PERSONS QUALIFIED TO FLIGHT RELEASE (a) No person may issue a flight release for a scheduled passenger-carrying

commercial air transport operation in aircraft of more than 5700 kg unless that person — (1) Holds a Operational Control Person licence or an ATP rating; and (2) Is currently qualified with the AOC holder for the operation and type of

aircraft used.

14.060 PAIRING OF LOW EXPERIENCE CREW MEMBERS (a) If an SIC has fewer than 50 hours of flight time in an aeroplane type of

more than 5700 kg and more than 19 passenger seats; and the PIC is not an appropriately qualified check airman, the PIC shall make all takeoffs and landings in situations designated as critical by the Authority.

(b) The Authority may, upon application by the AOC holder, authorise deviations from paragraph (b) by an appropriate amendment to the operations specifica- tions.

See Appendix 1 to 14.060 for those situations designated as critical by the Authority and for circumstances authorising a deviation from paragraph (b).

SUBPART C GROUND TRAINING REQUIREMENTS

14.065 COMPANY PROCEDURES INDOCTRINATION (a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a crew member or

Operational Control Person/flight dispatcher unless that person has completed the company procedures indoctrination curriculum approved by the Authority, which shall include a complete review of operations manual procedures pertinent to the crew member or flight operation officer’s duties.

See Appendix 1 to 14.065 for recommended knowledge area and programme hours.

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14.070 INITIAL DANGEROUS GOODS TRAINING (a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a crew member unless

he or she has completed the appropriate initial dangerous goods curriculum approved by the Authority. See Appendix 1 to 14.070 for sample course curriculum.

14.075 INITIAL SECURITY TRAINING (a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a crew member

unless he or she has completed the initial security curriculum approved by the Authority.

(b) This curriculum will instruct the crew members on the most appropriate manner to behave to minimize the consequences of acts of unlawful interference.

(c) It shall familiarize these employees with preventive measures and techniques which will assist them in the prevention of acts of sabotage or other unlawful forms of interference.

14.080 INITIAL CREW RESOURCE MANAGEMENT (a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a crew member or

operational control person unless that person has completed the initial CRM curriculum approved by the Authority. See Appendix 1 to 14.080 for sample course curriculum contents.

14.085 INITIAL EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT DRILLS (a) No person may serve nor may any AOC holder use a person as a crew member

unless that person has completed the appropriate initial emergency equipment curriculum and drills for the crew member position approved by the Authority for the emergency equipment available on the aircraft to be operated. See Appendix 1 to 14.085 for sample course curriculum content.

14.090 INITIAL AIRCRAFT GROUND TRAINING (a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a crew member or

Operational Control Person unless he or she has completed the initial ground training approved by the Authority for the aircraft type.

(b) Initial aircraft ground training for flight crew members shall include the pertinent portions of the operations manuals relating to aircraft-specific performance, mass and balance, operational policies, systems, limitations, normal, abnormal and emergency procedures on the aircraft type to be used. See Appendix 1 to 14.090 for sample course curriculum for flight crew members.

Note: The AOC holder may have separate initial aircraft ground training curricula of varying lengths and subject emphasis which recognise the experience levels of flight crew members approved by the Authority.

(c) For cabin attendants, initial aircraft ground training shall include the pertinent portions of the operations manuals relating to aircraft-specific configuration, equipment, normal and emergency procedures for the aircraft types within the fleet. See Appendix 2 to 14.090 for sample course curriculum for cabin attendants.

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(d) For Operational Control Persons, aircraft initial ground training shall include the pertinent portions of the operations manuals relating to aircraft-specific flight preparation procedures, performance, mass and balance, systems, and limitations for the aircraft types within the fleet. See Appendix 3 to 14.090 for sample course curriculum for Operational Control Persons.

SUBPART D FLIGHT TRAINING REQUIREMENTS

14.085 INITIAL AIRCRAFT FLIGHT TRAINING (a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a flight crew member

unless he or she has completed the initial flight training approved by the Authority for the aircraft type.

(b) Initial flight training shall focus on the manoeuvring and safe operation of the aircraft in accordance with AOC holder’s normal, abnormal and emergency procedures.

(c) An AOC holder may have separate initial flight training curriculum which recognise the experience levels of flight crew members approved by the Authority. See Appendix 1 to 14.095 for sample flight curriculum.

14.100 INITIAL SPECIALIZED OPERATIONS TRAINING (a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a flight crew member

unless he or she has completed the appropriate initial specialized operations training curriculum approved by the Authority.

(b) Specialized operations for which initial training curricula shall be developed include — (1) Low minimums operations, including low visibility takeoffs and Category

II and III operations; (2) Extended range operations; (3) Specialized navigation; and (4) PIC right seat qualification. See Appendix 1 to 14.100 for recommendations regarding initial specialized operations training curriculum.

14.105 AIRCRAFT DIFFERENCES (a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a Operational

Control Person or crew member on an aircraft of a type for which a differences curriculum is included in the AOC holder’s approved training program, unless that person has satisfactorily completed that curriculum, with respect to both the crew member position and the particular variant of that aircraft. See Appendix 1 to 14.105 for recommended aircraft differences training pertaining to Operational Control Persons.

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14.110 USE OF SIMULATORS AND TRAINING DEVICES

(a) Each aeroplane simulator and other training device that is used for flight crew member qualification shall — (1) Be specifically approved by the Authority for —

(i) The AOC holder; (ii) The type aeroplane, including type variations, for which the training

or check is being conducted; (iii) The particular manoeuvre, procedure, or crew member function

involved; (2) Maintain the performance, functional, and other characteristics that are

required for approval; (3) Be modified to conform with any modification to the aeroplane being

simulated that results in changes to performance, functional, or other characteristics required for approval;

(4) Be given a daily functional pre-flight check before use; and (5) Have a daily discrepancy log kept by the appropriate instructor or check

airman at the end of each training or check flight.

14.115 INTRODUCTION OF NEW EQUIPMENT OR PROCEDURES (a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a flight crew member

when that service would require expertise in the use of new equipment or procedures for which a curriculum is included in the AOC holder’s approved training program, unless that person has satisfactorily completed that curriculum, with respect to both the crew member position and the particular variant of that aircraft.

SUBPART E PROFICIENCY AND COMPETENCY CHECKS

14.120 PILOT, AIRCRAFT AND INSTRUMENT PROFICIENCY CHECKS (a) No pilot may serve nor may any person use a pilot flight crew member unless,

since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that service, that person has passed the proficiency check prescribed by the Authority for the make and model and, if applicable, type aircraft on which their services are required.

(b) No pilot may serve nor may any person use a pilot in IFR operations unless, since the beginning of the 6th calendar month before that service, that pilot has passed the instrument competency check prescribed by the Authority.

(c) A pilot may complete the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) simultaneously in a specific aircraft type.

See Appendix 1 to 14.120 for recommended operation and procedures pertaining to the proficiency checks.

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14.125 FLIGHT ENGINEER PROFICIENCY CHECKS (a) No person may serve nor may any person use a flight engineer on an aeroplane

unless within the preceding 6 calendar months he or she has — (1) Had a proficiency check in accordance with the requirements prescribed by

the Authority; or (2) 50 hours flight time with an AOC holder as flight engineer in the type

aeroplane.

See Appendix 1 to 14.125 for recommended procedures used in FE proficiency checks.

14.130 COMPETENCE CHECKS: CABIN ATTENDANTS (a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a cabin attendant

unless, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that service, that person has passed the competency check prescribed by the Authority performing the emergency duties appropriate to that person’s assignment. See Appendix 1 to 14.130 for recommended content for cabin attendant competence checks.

14.135 COMPETENCE CHECKS: OPERATIONAL CONTROL PERSONS (a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a Operational

Control Person unless, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that service, that person has passed the competency check, prescribed by the Authority, performing the flight preparation and subsequent duties appropriate to that person’s assignment. See Appendix 1 to 14.135 for recommended content for an operational control competence checks.

SUBPART F SUPERVISED LINE FLYING

14.140 SUPERVISED LINE FLYING: PILOTS (a) Each pilot initially qualifying as PIC for turbojet or aircraft weighing more than

5,700 kg shall complete a minimum of 10 flights performing the duties of a PIC under the supervision of a check airman.

(b) Each PIC transitioning to a new aircraft type shall complete a minimum of 5 flights performing the duties of a PIC under the supervision of a check airman.

(c) Each pilot qualifying for duties other than PIC shall complete a minimum of 5 flights performing those duties under the supervision of a check airman.

(d) During the time that a qualifying PIC is acquiring operating experience, a check airman who is also serving as the PIC shall occupy a pilot station.

(e) In the case of a transitioning PIC, the check airman serving as PIC may occupy the observer’s seat if the transitioning pilot has made at least two takeoffs and landings in the type aeroplane used, and has satisfactorily demonstrated to the check airman that he is qualified to perform the duties of a PIC for that type of aeroplane.

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(f) For aircraft with 9 or less passengers, the pilots are not required to complete line flying under supervision if the original route check qualification in the type of aircraft was under the supervision of an authorized person of the Authority prior to the carriage of passengers in commercial air transport.

14.145 SUPERVISED LINE FLYING: FLIGHT ENGINEERS (a) Each person qualifying as a flight engineer for an aircraft type shall perform

those functions for a minimum of five flights under the supervision of a check airman or a qualified flight engineer.

14.150 SUPERVISED LINE EXPERIENCE: CABIN ATTENDANTS (a) Each person qualifying as a cabin attendant shall perform those functions for a

minimum of two flights under the supervision of a senior cabin attendant.

Note: While qualifying, this person may not be a required crew member.

14.155 LINE OBSERVATIONS: OPERATIONAL CONTROL PERSONS (a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a Operational

Control Person unless, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that service, that person has observed, on the flight deck, the conduct of two complete flights over routes representative of those for which that person is assigned duties.

SUBPART G CONTINUING QUALIFICATION

14.160 ROUTE AND AIRPORT QUALIFICATION (a) No person may serve nor may any person use a pilot as the PIC of an aeroplane

on a route or route segment for which that pilot is not currently qualified until such pilot has complied with paragraph (b); 14.162 and 14.170.

(b) Each such pilot shall demonstrate to the AOC holder an adequate knowledge of — (1) The route to be flown, and the aerodromes which are to be used. This shall

include knowledge of — (i) The terrain and minimum safe altitudes;

(ii) The seasonal meteorological conditions; (iii) The meteorological, communication and air traffic facilities, services

and procedures; (iv) The search and rescue procedures; and (v) The navigational facilities and procedures, including any long-range

navigation procedures, associated with the route along which the flight is to take place; and

(2) Procedures applicable to flight paths over heavily populated areas and areas of high air traffic density, obstructions. physical layout, lighting approach aids and arrival, departure, holding and instruction approach procedures, and applicable operating minima.

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14.162 ROUTE AND AREA CHECKS: PILOT QUALIFICATION (a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a pilot unless, within

the preceding 12 calendar months that person has passed a route check in which he or she satisfactorily performed their assigned duties in one of the types of aeroplanes they are to fly.

(b) No person may perform PIC duties over a designated special operational area that requires a special navigation system or procedures or in ETOPS operations unless their competency with the system and procedures has been demonstrated to the AOC holder within the past 12 calendar months.

(c) Each PIC shall demonstrate special operational competency by navigation over the route or area as PIC under the supervision of a check airman and, on a continuing basis, on flights performing PIC duties.

14.165 PIC LOW MINIMUMS AUTHORISATION (a) After initial qualification for Category II approach minimums, a PIC may not

plan for or initiate an instrument approach when the ceiling is less than 300 feet and the visibility less than 1 mile until he or she has 15 flights performing PIC duties in the aircraft type (which included 5 approaches to landing using Category II procedures).

(b) After initial qualification for Category III approach minimums, a PIC may not plan for or initiate an approach when the ceiling is less than 100 feet or the visibility is less than 1200 RVR until he or she has 20 flights performing PIC duties in the aircraft type (which included 5 approach and landing using Category III procedures).

14.170 DESIGNATED SPECIAL AERODROMES AND HELIPORTS: PIC QUALIFICATION

(a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as PIC for operations at designated special aerodromes and heliports unless within the preceding 12 calendar months — (1) The PIC has been qualified by the AOC holder through a pictorial means

acceptable to the Authority for that aerodrome; or (2) The PIC or the assigned SIC has made a takeoff and landing at that

aerodrome while serving as a flight crew member for the AOC holder. Note: If acceptable to the Authority, that portion of the demonstration including the arrival, holding, instrument approach and departure may be conducted in a simulator or training device adequate for those purposes.

(b) Designated special aerodrome and heliport limitations are not applicable if the operation will occur — (1) During daylight hours; (2) When the visibility is at least 3 miles; and (3) When the ceiling at that aerodrome is at least 1000 feet above the lowest

initial approach altitude prescribed for an instrument approach procedure.

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14.715 RE-ESTABLISHING RECENCY OF EXPERIENCE: PILOT (a) In addition to meeting all applicable training and checking requirements, a

required pilot flight crew member who, in the preceding 90 days has not made at least three takeoffs and landings in the type aeroplane in which that person is to serve, shall, under the supervision of a check airman, re-establish recency of experience as follows: (1) Make at least three takeoffs and landings in the type aeroplane in which

that person is to serve or in a qualified simulator. (2) Make at least one takeoff with a simulated failure of the most critical

powerplant, one landing from the lowest DH authorized for the AOC holder, and one landing to a full stop.

(b) When using a simulator to accomplish any of the takeoff and landing training requirements necessary to re-establish recency of experience, each required flight crew member position shall be occupied by an appropriately qualified person and the simulator shall be operated as if in a normal in-flight environment without use of the repositioning features of the simulator.

(c) A check airman who observes the takeoffs and landings of a pilot flight crew member shall certify that the person being observed is proficient and qualified to perform flight duty in operations and may require any additional manoeuvres that are determined necessary to make this certifying statement.

SUBPART H RECURRENT TRAINING

14.180 RECURRENT TRAINING: FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS (a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a flight crew member

unless within the preceding 12 calendar months that person has completed the recurrent ground and flight training curricula approved by the Authority.

(b) The recurrent ground training shall include training on — (1) Aircraft systems and limitations and normal, abnormal and emergency

procedures; (2) Emergency equipment and drills; (3) Crew resource management; (4) Recognition or transportation of dangerous goods; and (5) Security training.

(c) The recurrent flight training curriculum shall include — (1) Manoeuvring and safe operation of the aircraft in accordance with AOC

holder’s normal, abnormal and emergency procedures; (2) Manoeuvres and procedures necessary for avoidance of in-flight hazards;

and (3) For authorized pilots, at least one low visibility takeoff to the lowest

applicable minimum LVTO and two approaches to the lowest approved minimums for the AOC holder, one of which is to be a missed approach.

See Appendix 1 to 14.180 for recommended recurrent training content.

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Note: Satisfactory completion of a proficiency check with the AOC holder for the type aircraft and operation to be conducted may be used in lieu of recurrent flight training.

14.185 RECURRENT TRAINING: CABIN ATTENDANTS (a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a cabin attendant

unless within the preceding 12 calendar months that person has completed the recurrent ground curricula approved by the Authority.

(b) The recurrent ground training shall include training on — (1) Aircraft-specific configuration, equipment and procedures; (2) Emergency and first aid equipment and drills; (3) Crew resource management and human performance; (4) Recognition or transportation of dangerous goods; and (5) Security training. See Appendix 1 to 14.185 for recommended emergency program training content for cabin attendants.

14.190 RECURRENT TRAINING: OPERATIONAL CONTROL PERSONS (a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a Operational

Control Person unless within the preceding 12 calendar months that person has completed the recurrent ground curricula approved by the Authority.

(b) The recurrent ground training shall include training on — (1) Aircraft-specific flight preparation, including flight planning, loading,

mass and balance, and performance; (2) Weather, including season effects on flight and radio reception; (3) Crew resource management; and (4) Recognition or transportation of dangerous goods. See Appendix 1 to 14.190 for recommended recurrent training content for Operational Control Persons.

SUBPART I INSTRUCTOR & CHECK AIRMAN QUALIFICATION

14.195 CHECK AIRMAN TRAINING (a) No person may use and no person may serve as a check airman for an AOC

holder unless he or she has completed the curricula approved by the Authority for those functions for which they are to serve. See Appendix 1 to 14.195 for recommended training program content for check airmen.

14.200 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR TRAINING (a) No person may use and no person may serve as an instructor for an AOC holder

unless he or she has completed the curricula approved by the Authority for those functions for which they are to serve. See Appendix 1 to 14.200 for recommended training program content for instructor pilots.

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14.205 SIMULATOR INSTRUCTOR QUALIFICATIONS (a) No person may use a person nor may any person serve as an instructor pilot

unless, with respect to the aeroplane type involved, that person — (1) Holds the airman licences and rating required to serve as a PIC or a flight

engineer, as applicable; (2) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training for the aeroplane,

including recurrent training, that are required to serve as a PIC or a flight engineer, as applicable;

(3) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate proficiency and recency of experience checks that are required to serve as a PIC or a flight engineer, as applicable; and

(4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable instructor training require- ments.

14.207 AIRCRAFT INSTRUCTOR PILOT QUALIFICATIONS (a) No person may use a person nor may any person serve as an instructor pilot

unless, with respect to the aeroplane type involved, that person — (1) Holds the airman licences and rating required to serve as a PIC or a flight

engineer, as applicable; (2) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training for the aeroplane,

including recurrent training, that are required to serve as a PIC or a flight engineer, as applicable;

(3) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate proficiency, competency and recency of experience checks that are required to serve as a PIC or a flight engineer, as applicable;

(4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable initial or transitional training requirements; and

(5) Holds at least a Class III medical certificate unless serving as a required crew member, in which case holds a Class I or a Class II medical certificate as appropriate.

14.210 CHECK AIRMAN QUALIFICATIONS (a) No person may use a person, nor may any person serve as a check airman

unless, with respect to the aeroplane type involved, that person — (1) Holds the airman licences and ratings required to serve as a PIC or a

flight engineer, as applicable; (2) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases for the

aeroplane, including recurrent training, that are required to serve as a PIC and flight engineer, as applicable;

(3) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate proficiency, competency and recency of experience checks that are required to serve as a PIC or flight engineer, as applicable;

(4) Holds at least a Class III medical certificate unless serving as a required crew member, in which case holds a Class I or Class II medical certificate as appropriate;

(5) Has been designated by the Authority for that purpose.

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14.215 CHECK AIRMAN DESIGNATION (a) No person may serve nor may any AOC holder use a person as a check airman

for any flight check unless that person has been designated by name and approved function by the Authority within the preceding 12 calendar months.

14.220 CHECK AIRMAN LIMITATIONS (a) No person may serve nor may any AOC holder use a person as a check airman

for any check — (1) In an aircraft as a required pilot flight crew member unless that person

holds the required airman licences and ratings and has completed all applicable training, qualification and currency requirements of this Schedule applicable to the crew position and the flight operations being checked;

(2) In an aircraft as an observer check airman unless that person holds the airman licences and ratings and has completed all applicable training, qualification and line observation requirements of this Schedule applicable to the position and the flight operations being checked; or

(3) In a simulator unless that person has completed or observed all training, qualification and line observation requirements of this Schedule applicable to the position and flight operations being checked.

SUBPART J ADMINISTRATIVE REQUIREMENTS

14.225 SUBSTITUTION OF SIMULATOR EXPERIENCE (a) No AOC holder may use a simulator for training or checking unless that

simulator has been specifically approved for the AOC holder in writing by the Authority.

(b) No AOC holder may use a simulator for any purpose other than that specified in the Authority’s approval.

14.230 TERMINATION OF A PROFICIENCY, COMPETENCE OR LINE CHECK

(a) If it is necessary to terminate a check for any reason, the AOC holder may not use the crew member or Operational Control Person in commercial air transport operations until the completion of a satisfactory recheck.

14.235 RECORDING OF CREW MEMBER QUALIFICATIONS (a) The AOC holder shall record in its records maintained for each crew member

and Operational Control Person, the completion of each of the qualifications required by this Schedule.

(b) The crew member may complete any curricula required by this Schedule concurrently or intermixed with other required curricula, but completion of each of these curricula shall be recorded separately.

14.240 MONITORING OF TRAINING AND CHECKING ACTIVITIES (a) To enable adequate supervision of its training and checking activities, the AOC

holder shall forward to the Authority at least 24 hours prior to the scheduled activity the dates, report times and report location of all —

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(1) Training for which a curriculum is approved in the AOC holder’s training program; and

(2) Proficiency, competence and line checks. (b) Failure to provide the information required by paragraph (a) may invalidate

the training or check and the Authority may require that it be repeated for observation purposes.

14.245 ELIGIBILITY PERIOD (a) Crew members who are required to take a proficiency check, a test or

competency check, or recurrent training to maintain qualification for commercial air transport operations may complete those requirements at any time during the eligibility period.

(b) The eligibility period is defined as the three calendar month period including the month-prior, the month-due, and the month-after any due date specified by this subsection.

(c) Completion of the requirement at any time during the period shall be considered as completed in the month-due for calculation of the next due date.

14.250 REDUCTIONS IN REQUIREMENTS (a) The Authority may authorise reductions in, or waive, certain portions of the

training requirements of this subpart, taking into account the previous experience of the crew members.

(b) An AOC holder’s request for reduction or waiver shall be made in writing and outline the basis under which the request is made.

(c) If the request was for a specific crew member, the correspondence from the Authority authorising the reduction and the basis for it shall be filed in the record the AOC holder maintains for that crew member.

(d) With the approval of the Authority, correspondence courses or written examinations may be used to reduce the amount of classroom time for ground training subjects.

(e) A person who progresses successfully through flight training, is recommended by their instructor or a check airman, and successfully completes the appropriate flight check, or is permitted by the Authority, to complete a course in less than programmed time, need not complete the programmed hours of flight training for the particular aeroplane.

Note: Whenever the Authority finds that 20 percent of the flight checks given at a particular training base during the previous 6 months are unsuccessful, this method of approval will not be used by the AOC holder at that base until the Authority finds that the effectiveness of the flight training there has improved.

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APPENDICES

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.060 PAIRING OF LOW EXPERIENCE CREW MEMBERS: COMMERCIAL AIR

TRANSPORT (a) Situations designated as critical by the Authority at special aerodromes

designated by the Authority or at special aerodromes designated by the AOC holder include — (1) The prevailing visibility value in the latest weather report for the

aerodrome is at or below 3/4 mile; (2) The runway visual range for the runway to be used is at or below 4,000

feet; (3) The runway to be used has water, snow, slush or similar conditions that

may adversely affect aeroplane performance; (4) The braking action on the runway to be used is reported to be less than

“good”; (5) The crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15

knots; (6) Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the aerodrome; or (7) Any condition in which the PIC determines it to be prudent to exercise the

PIC’s prerogative. (b) Circumstances which would, routinely, be considered for deviation from the

required minimum line operating flight time include — (1) A newly certified AOC holder does not employ any pilots who meet the

minimum flight time requirements; (2) An existing AOC holder adds to its fleet a type aeroplane not before

proven for use in its operations; or (3) An existing AOC holder establishes a new domicile to which it assigns

pilots who will be required to become qualified on the aeroplanes operated from that domicile.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.065 COMPANY PROCEDURES INDOCTRINATION

(a) Each AOC holder shall ensure that all operations personnel are provided company indoctrination training that covers the following areas: (1) AOC holder’s organization, scope of operation, and administrative

practices as applicable to their assignments and duties. (2) Appropriate provisions of these Schedules and other applicable Schedules

and guidance materials. (3) AOC holder policies and procedures. (4) Applicable crew member manuals. (5) Appropriate portions of the AOC holder’s operations manual.

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(b) The AOC holder shall provide a minimum of 40 programmed hours of instruction for company procedures indoctrination training unless a reduction is determined appropriate by the Authority.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.070 INITIAL DANGEROUS GOODS TRAINING

(a) Each AOC holder not holding a permanent approval to carry dangerous goods shall ensure that — (1) Personnel engaged in general cargo handling have received training to

carry out their duties in respect of dangerous goods. At a minimum this training shall cover the areas identified in Column 1 of Table 1 and be to a depth sufficient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods and how to identify such goods; and

(2) Aircraft crew members, passenger handling staff, and security staff employed by the AOC holder who deal with the screening of passengers and their baggage, have received training which, at a minimum, shall cover the areas identified in Column 2 of Table 1 and be to a depth sufficient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods, how to identify them and what requirements apply to the carriage of such goods by passengers.

Table 1

Areas of Dangerous Goods Training 1 2 General Philosophy x x Limitations On Dangerous Goods In Air Transport x x Package Marking And Labelling x x Dangerous Goods In Passengers Baggage x Emergency Procedures x

Note: x indicates an area to be covered. (b) Each AOC holder holding a permanent approval to carry dangerous goods

shall ensure that — (1) Personnel engaged in the acceptance of dangerous goods have received

training and are qualified to carry out their duties. At a minimum, this training shall cover the areas identified in Column 1 of Table 2 and be to a depth sufficient to ensure the staff can take decisions on the acceptance or refusal of dangerous goods offered for carriage by air;

(2) Personnel engaged in ground handling, storage and loading of dangerous goods have received training to enable them to carry out their duties in respect of dangerous goods. At a minimum, this training shall cover the

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areas identified in Column 2 of Table 2 and be to a depth sufficient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods, how to identity such goods and how to handle and load them;

(3) Personnel engaged in general cargo handling have received training to enable them to carry out their duties in respect of dangerous goods. At a minimum, this training shall cover the areas identified in Column 3 of Table 2 and be to a depth sufficient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods, how to identify such goods and how to handle and load them;

(4) Flight crew members have received training which, at a minimum, shall cover the areas identified in Column 4 of Table 2. Training shall be to a depth sufficient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods and how they should be carried on an aeroplane; and

(5) Passenger handling staff; security staff employed by the operator who deal with the screening of passengers and their baggage; and crew members (other than flight crew members) have received training which, at a minimum, shall cover the areas identified in Column 5 of Table 2. Training shall be to a depth sufficient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods and what requirements apply to the carriage of such goods by passengers or, more generally, their carriage on an aeroplane.

(c) Each AOC holder shall ensure that all personnel who require dangerous goods training receive recurrent training at intervals of not longer than 2 years.

(d) Each AOC holder shall ensure that records of dangerous goods training are maintained for all personnel requiring such training and that these records are maintained at the location where the Personnel perform such duties.

(e) Each AOC holder shall ensure that its handling agent’s staff are trained in accordance with the applicable column of Table 1 or Table 2.

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Table 2

Note: x indicates an area to be covered.

Areas Of Training 1 2 3 4 5 General Philosophy x x x x x Limitations on Dangerous Goods in Air Transport

x x x x x

Classification and List of Dangerous Goods

x x x

General Packaging Requirements and Packaging Instructions

x

Packaging Specifications and Marking

x

Package Marking and Labelling x x x x x Documentation from the Shipper x Acceptance of Dangerous Goods, including the Use of a Checklist

x

Loading, Restrictions on Loading and Segregation

x x x x

Inspections for Damage or Leakage and Decontamination Procedures

x x

Provision of Information to Commander

x x x

Dangerous Goods in Passengers’ Baggage

x x x

Emergency Procedures x x x x

(f) An AOC holder shall provide dangerous goods training manuals which contain adequate procedures and information to assist personnel in identifying packages marked or labelled as containing hazardous materials including —

(i) Instructions on the acceptance, handling, and carriage of hazardous materials;

(ii) Instructions governing the determination of proper shipping names and hazard classes;

(iii) Packaging, labelling, and marking requirements; (iv) Requirements for shipping papers, compatibility requirements,

loading, storage, and handling requirements; and (v) Restrictions.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 14.080 INITIAL CREW RESOURCE MANAGEMENT TRAINING

(a) Each AOC holder shall ensure that the Operational Control Person and all aircraft crew members have CRM training as part of their initial and recurrent training requirements.

(b) A CRM training program shall include — (1) An initial indoctrination/awareness segment; (2) A method to provide recurrent practice and feedback; and (3) A method of providing continuing reinforcement.

(c) Curriculum topics to be contained in an initial CRM training course include — (1) Communications processes and decision behaviour; (2) Internal and external influences on interpersonal communications; (3) Barriers to communication; (4) Listening skills; (5) Decision making skills; (6) Effective briefings; (7) Developing open communications; (8) Inquiry, advocacy, and assertion training; (9) Crew self-critique; (10) Conflict resolution; (11) Team building and maintenance; (12) Leadership and followship training; (13) Interpersonal relationships; (14) Workload management; (15) Situational awareness; (16) How to prepare, plan and monitor task completions; (17) Workload distribution; (18) Distraction avoidance; (19) Individual factors; and (20) Stress reduction.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.085 INITIAL EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT DRILLS

(a) Each aircraft crew member shall accomplish emergency training during the specified training periods, using those items of installed emergency equipment for each type of aeroplane in which he or she is to serve.

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(b) During initial training, each aircraft crew member shall perform the following one-time emergency drills — (1) Protective Breathing Equipment/Firefighting Drill:

(i) Locate source of fire or smoke (actual or simulated fire). (ii) Implement procedures for effective crew co-ordination and commu-

nication, including notification of flight crew members about fire situation.

(iii) Don and activate installed PBE or approved PBE simulation device. (iv) Manoeuvre in limited space with reduced visibility. (v) Effectively use the aircraft’s communication system.

(vi) Identify class of fire. (vii) Select the appropriate extinguisher.

(viii) Properly remove extinguisher from securing device. (ix) Prepare, operate and discharge extinguisher properly. (x) Utilise correct firefighting techniques for type of fire.

(2) Emergency Evacuation Drill: (i) Recognise and evaluate an emergency.

(ii) Assume appropriate protective position. (iii) Command passengers to assume protective position. (iv) Implement crew co-ordination procedures. (v) Ensure activation of emergency lights.

(vi) Assess aircraft conditions. (vii) Initiate evaluation (dependent on signal or decision).

(viii) Command passengers to release seatbelts and evacuate. (ix) Assess exit and redirect, if necessary; to open exit, including

deploying slides and commanding helpers to assist. (x) Command passengers to evacuate at exit and run away from

aircraft. (xi) Assist special need passengers, such as handicapped, elderly,

and persons in a state of panic. (xii) Actually exit aircraft or training device using at least one of the

installed emergency evacuation slides. Note: The crew member may either observe the aeroplane exits being opened in the emergency mode and the associated exit slide/raft pack being deployed and inflated, or perform the tasks resulting in the accomplishment of these actions.

(c) Each aircraft crew member shall accomplish additional emergency drills during initial and recurrent training, including performing the following emergency drills — (1) Emergency Exit Drill:

(i) Correctly pre-flight each type of emergency exit and evacuation slide or slideraft (if part of cabin attendants assigned duties).

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(ii) Disarm and open each type of door exit in normal mode. (iii) Close each type of door exit in normal mode. (iv) Arm of each type of door exit in emergency mode. (v) Opening each type of door exit in emergency mode.

(vi) Use manual slide inflation system to accomplish or ensure slide or slideraft inflation.

(vii) Open each type of window exit. (viii) Remove escape rope and position for use.

(2) Hand Fire Extinguisher Drill: (i) Pre-flight each type of hand fire extinguisher.

(ii) Locate source of fire or smoke and identify class of fire. (iii) Select appropriate extinguisher and remove from securing

device. (iv) Prepare extinguisher for use. (v) Actually operate and discharge each type of installed hand fire

extinguisher. Note: Fighting an actual or a simulated fire is not necessary during this drill.

(vi) Utilise correct firefighting techniques for type of fire. (vii) Implement procedures for effective crew co-ordination and

communication, including notification of crew members about the type of fire situation.

(3) Emergency Oxygen System Drill: (i) Actually operate portable oxygen bottles, including masks and

tubing. (ii) Verbally demonstrate operation of chemical oxygen generators.

(iii) Prepare for use and operate oxygen device properly, including donning and activation.

(iv) Administer oxygen to self, passengers, and to those persons with special oxygen needs.

(v) Utilise proper procedures for effective crew co-ordination and communication.

(vi) Activate PBE. (vii) Manually open each type of oxygen mask compartment and

deploy oxygen masks. (viii) Identify compartments with extra oxygen masks.

(ix) Implement immediate action decompression procedures. (x) Reset oxygen system, if applicable.

(4) Flotation Device Drill: (i) Don and inflate life vests.

(ii) Remove and use flotation seat cushions. (iii) Demonstrate swimming techniques using a seat cushion.

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(5) Ditching Drill, if applicable: Note: During a ditching drill students shall perform the “prior to impact” and “after impact” procedures for a ditching, as appropriate to the specific operator’s type of operation.

(i) Implement crew co-ordination procedures, including briefing with captain to obtain pertinent ditching information and briefing flight attendants.

(ii) Co-ordinate time frame for cabin and passenger preparation. (iii) Adequately brief passengers on ditching procedures. (iv) Ensure cabin is prepared, including the securing of carry-on

baggage, lavatories, and galleys. (v) Demonstrate how to properly deploy and inflate sliderafts.

(vi) Remove, position, attach sliderafts to aircraft. (vii) Inflate rafts.

(viii) Use escape ropes at overwing exits. (ix) Command helpers to assist. (x) Use slides and seat cushions as flotation devices.

(xi) Remove appropriate emergency equipment from aircraft. (xii) Board rafts properly.

(xiii) Initiate raft management procedures (i.e., Disconnecting rafts from aircraft, applying immediate first aid, rescuing persons in water, salvaging floating rations and equipment, deploying sea anchor, tying rafts together, activating or ensuring operation of emergency locator transmitter).

(xiv) Initiate basic survival procedures (i.e., Removing and utilising survival kit items, repairing and maintaining raft, ensuring protection from exposure, erecting canopy, communicating location, providing continued first aid, providing sustenance).

(xv) Use heaving line to rescue persons in water. (xvi) Tie sliderafts or rafts together.

(xvii) Use life line on edge of slideraft or raft as a handhold. (xviii) Secure survival kit items.

(d) Each aircraft crew member shall accomplish additional emergency drill requirements during initial and recurrent training including observing the following emergency drills — (1) Liferaft Removal and Inflation Drill, if applicable:

(i) Removal of a liferaft from the aircraft or training device. (ii) Inflation of a liferaft.

(2) Slideraft Transfer Drill: (i) Transfer of each type of slideraft pack from an unusable door

to a usable door.

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(ii) Disconnect slideraft at unusable door. (iii) Redirect passengers to usable slideraft. (iv) Installation and deployment of slideraft at usable door.

(3) Slide and Slideraft Deployment, Inflation, and Detachment Drill: (i) Engage slide girt bar in floor brackets.

(ii) Inflate slides with and without quick-release handle (manually and automatically).

(iii) Disconnecting slide from aircraft for use as a flotation device.

Arm sliderafts for automatic inflation. (iv) Disconnecting slideraft from the aircraft.

(4) Emergency Evacuation Slide Drill: (i) Open armed exit with slide or slideraft deployment and inflation.

(ii) Egress from aircraft via the evacuation slide and run away to a safe distance.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.090 INITIAL AIRCRAFT GROUND TRAINING — FLIGHT CREW

(a) Each AOC holder shall have an initial aircraft ground training curriculum for the flight crew applicable to their duties, the type of operations conducted and aircraft flown. Instructions shall include at least the following general subjects — (1) AOC holder’s dispatch, flight release, or flight locating procedures; (2) Principles and methods for determining weight and balance, and runway

limitations for takeoff; (3) Adverse weather recognition and avoidance, and flight procedures which

shall be followed when operating in the following conditions: (i) Icing.

(ii) Fog. (iii) Turbulence. (iv) Heavy precipitation. (v) Thunderstorms.

(vi) Low-level windshear and microburst. (vii) Low visibility.

(4) Normal and emergency communications procedures and navigation equipment including the AOC holder’s communications procedures and ATC clearance requirements;

(5) Navigation procedures used in area departure, en route, area arrival, approach and landing phases;

(6) Approved crew resource management training; (7) Air traffic control systems, procedures, and phraseology;

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(8) Aircraft performance characteristics during all flight regimes, including: (i) The use of charts, tables, tabulated data and other related manual

information. (ii) Normal, abnormal, and emergency performance problems.

(iii) Meteorological and weight limiting performance factors (such as temperature, pressure, contaminated runways, precipitation, climb/runway limits).

(iv) Inoperative equipment performance limiting factors (such as MEL/CDL, inoperative antiskid).

(v) Special operational conditions (such as unpaved runways, high altitude aerodromes and drift down requirements).

(b) Each AOC holder shall have an initial aircraft ground training curriculum for the flight crew applicable to their duties, the type of operations conducted and aircraft flown, including at least the following aircraft systems: (1) Aircraft:

(i) Aircraft dimensions, turning radius, panel layouts, cockpit and cabin configurations.

(ii) Other major systems and components or appliances of the aircraft. (2) Powerplants:

(i) Basic engine description. (ii) Engine thrust ratings.

(iii) Engine components such as accessory drives, ignition, oil, fuel control, hydraulic, and bleed air features.

(3) Electrical: (i) Sources of aircraft electrical power (engine driven generators,

APU generator, and external power); (ii) Electrical buses;

(iii) Circuit breakers; (iv) Aircraft battery; and (v) Standby power systems.

(4) Hydraulic: (i) Hydraulic reservoirs, pumps, accumulators; filters, check valves,

interconnects and actuators; and (ii) Other hydraulically operated components.

(5) Fuel: (i) Fuel tanks (location and quantities);

(ii) Engine driven pumps; (iii) Boost pumps; (iv) System valves and crossfeeds; (v) Quantity indicators; and

(vi) Provisions for fuel jettisoning.

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(6) Pneumatic: (i) Bleed air sources (APU or external ground air); and

(ii) Means of routing, venting and controlling bleed air via valves, ducts, chambers, and temperature and pressure limiting devices.

(7) Air conditioning and pressurisation: (i) Heaters, air conditioning packs, fans, and other environmental

control devices; (ii) Pressurisation system components such as outflow and negative

pressure relief valves; and (iii) Automatic, standby, and manual pressurisation controls and annun-

ciators. (8) Flight controls:

(i) Primary controls (yaw, pitch, and roll devices); (ii) Secondary controls (leading/trailing edge devices, flaps, trim, and

damping mechanisms); (iii) Means of actuation (direct/indirect or fly by wire); and (iv) Redundancy devices.

(9) Landing gear: (i) Landing gear extension and retraction mechanism including the

operating sequence of struts, doors, and locking devices, and brake and antiskid systems, if applicable;

(ii) Steering (nose or body steering gear); (iii) Bogie arrangements; (iv) Air/ground sensor relays; and (v) Visual downlock indicators.

(10) Ice and rain protection: (i) Rain removal systems; and

(ii) Anti-icing and/or de-icing system(s) affecting flight controls, engines, pitot static probes, fluid outlets, cockpit windows, and aircraft structures.

(11) Equipment and furnishings: (i) Exits;

(ii) Galleys; (iii) Water and waste systems; (iv) Lavatories; (v) Cargo areas;

(vi) Crew member and passenger seats; (vii) Bulkheads;

(viii) Seating and/or cargo configurations; and (ix) Non-emergency equipment and furnishings.

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(12) Navigation equipment: (i) Flight directors;

(ii) Horizontal situation indicator; (iii) Radio magnetic indicator; (iv) Navigation receivers (GPS, ADF, VOR, OMEGA, LORAN-C,

RNAV, Marker Beacon, DME); (v) Inertial systems (INS, IRS);

(vi) Functional displays; (vii) Fault indications and comparator systems;

(viii) Aircraft transponders; (ix) Radio altimeters; (x) Weather radar; and

(xi) Cathode ray tube or computer generated displays of aircraft position and navigation information.

(13) Auto flight system: (i) Autopilot;

(ii) Autothrottles; (iii) Flight director and navigation systems; (iv) Automatic approach tracking; (v) Autoland; and

(vi) Automatic fuel and performance management systems. (14) Flight instruments:

(i) Panel arrangement; (ii) Flight instruments (altitude indicator, directional gyro, magnetic

compass, airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeters, standby instruments); and

(iii) Instrument power sources, and instrument sensory sources (e.g., Pilot static pressure).

(15) Display systems: (i) Weather radar; and

(ii) Other CRT displays (e.g., checklist, vertical navigation or longitudinal navigation displays).

(16) Communication equipment: (i) VHF/HF radios;

(ii) Audio panels; (iii) Inflight interphone and passenger address systems; (iv) Voice recorder; and (v) Air/ground passive communications systems (ACARS).

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(17) Warning systems: (i) Aural, visual, and tactile warning systems (including the

character and degree of urgency related to each signal); and (ii) Warning and caution annunciator systems ( including ground

proximity and takeoff warning systems). (18) Fire protection:

(i) Fire and overheat sensors, loops, modules; or other means of providing visual and/or aural indications of fire or overheat detection;

(ii) Procedures for the use of fire handles, automatic extinguishing systems and extinguishing agents; and

(iii) Power sources necessary to provide protection for fire and overheat conditions in engines, APU, cargo bay/wheel well, cockpit, cabin and lavatories.

(19) Oxygen: (i) Passenger, crew, and portable oxygen supply systems;

(ii) Sources of oxygen (gaseous or solid); (iii) Flow and distribution networks; (iv) Automatic deployment systems; (v) Regulators, pressure levels and gauges; and

(vi) Servicing requirements. (20) Lighting:

(i) Cockpit, cabin, and external lighting systems; (ii) Power sources;

(iii) Switch positions; and (iv) Spare lightbulb locations.

(21) Emergency equipment: (i) Fire and oxygen bottles;

(ii) First aid kits; (iii) Liferafts and life preservers; (iv) Crash axes; (v) Emergency exits and lights;

(vi) Slides and sliderafts; (vii) Escape straps or handles; and

(viii) Hatches, ladders and movable stairs. (22) Auxiliary Power Unit (APU):

(i) Electric and bleed air capabilities; (ii) Interfaces with electrical and pneumatic systems;

(iii) Inlet doors and exhaust ducts; (iv) Fuel supply.

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(c) Each AOC holder shall have an initial aircraft ground training curriculum for the flight crew applicable to their duties, the type of operations conducted and aircraft flown, including at least the following aircraft systems integration items: (1) Use of checklist:

(i) Safety chocks; (ii) Cockpit preparation (switch position and checklist flows);

(iii) Checklist callouts and responses; and (iv) Checklist sequence.

(2) Flight planning: (i) Performance limitations (meteorological, weight, and MEL/CDL

items); (ii) Required fuel loads;

(iii) Weather planning (lower than standard takeoff minimums or alternate requirements).

(3) Navigation systems: (i) Pre-flight and operation of applicable receivers;

(ii) Onboard navigation systems; and (iii) Flight plan information input and retrieval.

(4) Autoflight: (i) Autopilot, autothrust, and flight director systems, including the

appropriate procedures, normal and abnormal indications, and annunciators.

(5) Cockpit familiarisation: (i) Activation of aircraft system controls and switches to include

normal, abnormal and emergency switches; and (ii) Control positions and relevant annunciators, lights, or other

caution and warning systems.

APPENDIX 2 TO 14.090 INITIAL AIRCRAFT GROUND TRAINING — CABIN ATTENDANTS

(a) Each AOC holder shall have an initial ground training curriculum for cabin attendants applicable to the type of operations conducted and aircraft flown, including at least the following general subjects: (1) Aircraft familiarisation:

(i) Aircraft characteristics and description; (ii) Flightdeck configuration;

(iii) Cabin configuration; (iv) Galleys; (v) Lavatories; and

(vi) Stowage areas.

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(2) Aircraft equipment and furnishings: (i) Cabin attendant stations;

(ii) Cabin attendant panels; (iii) Passenger seats; (iv) Passenger service units and convenience panels; (v) Passenger information signs;

(vi) Aircraft markings; and (vii) Aircraft placards.

(3) Aircraft systems: (i) Air conditioning and pressurisation system;

(ii) Aircraft communication systems (call, interphone and passenger address);

(iii) Lighting and electrical systems; (iv) Oxygen systems (flightcrew, observer and passenger); and (v) Water system.

(4) Aircraft exits: (i) General information;

(ii) Exits with slides or sliderafts (pre-flight and normal operation); (iii) Exits without slides (pre-flight and normal operations); and (iv) Window exits.

(5) Crew member communication and co-ordination: (i) Authority of PIC;

(ii) Routine communication signals and procedures; and (iii) Crew member briefing.

(6) Routine crew member duties and procedures: (i) Crew member general responsibilities;

(ii) Reporting duties and procedures for specific aircraft; (iii) Predeparture duties and procedures prior to passenger boarding; (iv) Passenger boarding duties and procedures; (v) Prior to movement on the surface duties and procedures;

(vi) Prior to takeoff duties and procedures applicable to specific aircraft; (vii) Inflight duties and procedures;

(viii) Prior to landing duties and procedures; (ix) Movement on the surface and arrival duties and procedures; (x) After arrival duties and procedures; and

(xi) Intermediate stops.

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(7) Passenger handling responsibilities: (i) Crew member general responsibilities;

(ii) Infants, children, and unaccompanied minors; (iii) Passengers needing special assistance; (iv) Passengers needing special accommodation; (v) Carry-on stowage requirements;

(vi) Passenger seating requirements; and (vii) Smoking and no smoking requirements.

(8) Approved Crew Resource Management (CRM) training for cabin attendants, which includes flight crew-cabin crew coordination.

(9) Human performance training as related to passenger cabin safety duties. (10) High Altitude Physiology regarding the effect of lack of oxygen and, in the

case of pressurized aircraft, the physiological phenomena accompanying a loss of pressurization.

(b) Each AOC holder shall have an initial ground training curriculum for cabin attendants applicable to the type of operations conducted and aircraft flown, including at least the following aircraft specific emergency subjects: (1) Emergency equipment:

(i) Emergency communication and notification systems; (ii) Aircraft exits;

(iii) Exits with slides or sliderafts (emergency operation); (iv) Slides and sliderafts in a ditching; (v) Exits without slides (emergency operation);

(vi) Window exits (emergency operation); (vii) Exits with tailcones (emergency operation);

(viii) Cockpit exits (emergency operation); (ix) Ground evacuation and ditching equipment; (x) First aid equipment;

(xi) Portable oxygen systems (oxygen bottles, chemical oxygen generators, protective breathing equipment (PBE));

(xii) Firefighting equipment; (xiii) Emergency lighting systems; and (xiv) Additional emergency equipment.

(2) Emergency assignments and procedures: (i) General types of emergencies specific to aircraft;

(ii) Emergency communication signals and procedures; (iii) Awareness of the other crew members’ assignments and functions in

the event of an emergency so far as is necessary for the fulfillment of the cabin attendant’s own duties.

(iv) Rapid decompression;

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(v) Insidious decompression and cracked window and pressure seal leaks; (vi) Fires; (vii) Ditching;

(viii) Ground evacuation; (ix) Unwarranted evacuation (i.e., passenger initiated); (x) Illness or injury;

(xi) Abnormal situations involving passengers or crew members; (xii) Hijacking;

(xiii) Bomb threat; (xiv) Turbulence; (xv) Other unusual situations; and

(xvi) Previous aircraft accidents and incidents. (3) Aircraft specific emergency drills:

(i) Emergency exit drill; (ii) Hand fire extinguisher drill;

(iii) Emergency oxygen system drill; (iv) Flotation device drill; (v) Ditching drill, if applicable;

(vi) Liferaft removal and inflation drill, if applicable; (vii) Slideraft pack transfer drill, if applicable;

(viii) Slide or slideraft deployment, inflation, and detachment drill, if applicable; and

(ix) Emergency evacuation slide drill, if applicable. (c) Each AOC holder shall ensure that initial ground training for cabin attendants

includes a competence check given by the appropriate supervisor or ground instructor to determine his or her ability to perform assigned duties and responsibilities.

(d) Each AOC holder shall ensure that initial ground training for cabin attendants consists of at least the following programmed hours of instruction: (1) Multi-engine turbine: 16 hours; and (2) Multi-engine reciprocating: 8 hours.

APPENDIX 3 TO 14.090 INITIAL AIRCRAFT GROUND TRAINING — OPERATIONAL CONTROL

PERSON (a) Each AOC holder shall provide initial aircraft ground training for Operational

Control Persons that include instruction in at least the following general dispatch subjects: (1) Applicable contents of the Operations Manual (2) Normal and emergency communications procedures

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(3) Available sources of weather information (4) Actual and prognostic weather charts (5) Interpretation of weather information (6) Seasonal meteorological conditions and the sources of meteorological

information (7) Adverse weather phenomena (e.g., clear air turbulence, windshear, and

thunderstorms) (8) Effects of meteorological conditions on radio reception in the aeroplanes

used; (9) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) system (10) Peculiarities and limitations of each navigation system which is used by the

operation, (11) Navigational charts and publications (12) Air traffic control (ATC) and instrument procedures (13) Familiarisation with operational area (14) Characteristics of special aerodromes and other operationally significant

aerodromes which the operator uses (i.e., terrain, approach aids, or prevailing weather phenomena)

(15) Joint Operational Control Person/pilot responsibilities (16) Approved Crew Resource Management (CRM) training for Operational

Control Persons, to include the knowledge and skills related to human performance relevant to these duties.

(b) Each AOC holder shall provide initial aircraft ground training for Operational Control Persons that include instruction in at least the following aircraft characteristics: (1) General operating characteristics of the AOC holder’s aircraft (2) Aircraft specific training with emphasis on the following topics:

(i) Aircraft loading instructions; (ii) Aircraft operating and performance characteristics;

(iii) Radio communications and navigation equipment capability; (iv) Instrument approach and communications equipment; and (v) Emergency equipment.

(3) Flight manual training. (4) Equipment training.

(c) Each AOC holder shall provide initial aircraft ground training for Operational Control Persons that include instruction in at least the following emergency procedures: (1) Assisting the flight crew in an emergency. (2) Alerting of appropriate governmental, company and private agencies.

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(d) Each AOC holder shall ensure that initial ground training for Operational Control Persons includes a competence check given by an appropriate supervisor or ground instructor that demonstrates the required knowledge and abilities to accomplish the — (1) Assistance of the PIC in the flight preparation and providing of relevant

information; (2) Assistance in the operational and ATC flight plan preparation; (3) Furnish the PIC while in flight the information which may be necessary to

safe conduct of the flight; and (4) In the event of an emergency, initiate such procedures as may be outlined

in the operations manual.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.095 INITIAL AIRCRAFT FLIGHT TRAINING

(a) Each AOC holder shall ensure that pilot initial flight training includes at least the following: Note: Flight training may be conducted in an appropriate aircraft or adequate training simulator (simulator shall have landing capability).

(1) Preparation: (i) Visual inspection (for aircraft with a flight engineer, use of pictorial

display authorized) (ii) Pre-taxi procedures

(iii) Performance limitations (2) Surface operation:

(i) Pushback (ii) Powerback taxi, if applicable to type of operation to be conducted

(iii) Starting (iv) Taxi (v) Pre take-off checks

(3) Takeoff: (i) Normal

(ii) Crosswind (iii) Rejected (iv) Power failure after V1 (v) Lower than standard minimum, if applicable to type of operation to

be conducted (4) Climb:

(i) Normal (ii) One-engine inoperative during climb to en route altitude

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(5) En route: (i) Steep turns (PIC only) (ii) Approaches to stalls (takeoff, en route, and landing configurations)

(iii) Inflight powerplant shutdown (iv) Inflight powerplant restart (v) High speed handling characteristics

(6) Descent: (i) Normal (ii) Maximum rate

(7) Approaches: (i) VFR procedures (ii) Visual approach with 50% loss of power on one-engine (2 engines

inoperative on 3-engine aeroplanes) (PIC only) (iii) Visual approach with slat/flap malfunction (iv) IFR precision approaches (ILS normal and ILS with one-engine

inoperative) (v) IFR non-precision approaches (NDB normal and VOR normal) (vi) Non-precision approach with one engine inoperative (LOC back-

course procedures, SDF/LDA, GPS, TACAN and circling approach procedures)

Note: Simulator shall be qualified for traininglchecking on the circling manoeuvre. (vii) Missed approach from precision approach

(viii) Missed approach from non-precision approach (ix) Missed approach with powerplant failure

(8) Landings: (i) Normal with a pitch mistrim (small aircraft only)

(ii) Normal from precision instrument approach (iii) Normal from precision instrument approach with most critical engine

inoperative (iv) Normal with 50% loss of power on one side (2 engines inoperative on

3-engine aeroplanes) (PIC only) (v) Normal with flap/slat malfunction (vi) Rejected landings

(vii) Crosswind (viii) Manual reversion/degraded control augmentation

(ix) Short/soft field (small aircraft only) (x) Glassy/rough water (seaplanes only)

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(9) After landing: (i) Parking

(ii) Emergency evacuation (iii) Docking, mooring, and ramping (seaplanes only)

(10) Other flight procedures during any airborne phase: (i) Holding

(ii) Ice accumulation on airframe (iii) Air hazard avoidance (iv) Windshear/mircoburst

(11) Normal, abnormal and alternate systems procedures during any phase:

(i) Pneumatic/pressurisation (ii) Air conditioning

(iii) Fuel and oil (iv) Electrical (v) Hydraulic

(vi) Flight controls (vii) Anti-icing and de-icing systems

(viii) Autopilot (ix) Flight management guidance systems and/or automatic or other

approach and landing aids (x) Stall warning devices, stall avoidance devices, and stability

augmentation systems (xi) Airborne weather radar

(xii) Flight instrument system malfunction (xiii) Communications equipment (xiv) Navigation systems

(12) Emergency systems procedures during any phase: (i) Aircraft fires

(ii) Smoke control (iii) Powerplant malfunctions (iv) Fuel jettison (v) Electrical, hydraulic, pneumatic systems (vi) Flight control system malfunction

(vii) Landing gear and flap system malfunction (b) Each AOC Holder shall ensure that flight engineer flight training includes

at least the following: (1) Training and practice in procedures related to the carrying out of flight

engineer duties and functions. This training and practice may be accomplished either in flight, in an aeroplane simulator or a training device.

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(2) A proficiency check. (c) Each AOC holder shall ensure that flight training includes

at least the following: (1) Initial flight training for flight navigators must include flight training

and a flight check that is adequate to ensure the crew member’s proficiency in the performance of his/her assigned duties.

(2) The flight training and check specified in paragraph (1) must be performed —

(i) In-flight or in an appropriate training device; or (ii) In commercial air transport operations, if performed under the

supervision of a qualified flight navigator.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.100 INITIAL SPECIALIZED OPERATIONS TRAINING

(a) Each AOC holder shall provide initial specialized operations training to ensure that each pilot and Operational Control Person is qualified in the type of operation in which he or she serves and in any specialized or new equipment, procedures, and techniques, such as: (1) Class II navigation:

(i) Knowledge of specialized navigation procedures, such as MNPS.

(ii) Knowledge of specialized equipment, such as INS, LORAN, OMEGA.

(2) CAT II and CAT III approaches: (i) Special equipment, procedures and practice.

(ii) A demonstration of competency. (3) Lower than standard minimum takeoffs:

(i) Runway and lighting requirements. (ii) Rejected takeoffs at, or near, VI with a failure of the most

critical engine. (iii) Taxi operations. (iv) Procedures to prevent runway incursions under low visibility

conditions. (4) Extended range operations with two engine aeroplanes. (5) Airborne radar approaches. (6) Autopilot instead of SIC.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.105 AIRCRAFT DIFFERENCES — OPERATIONAL CONTROL PERSON

(a) Each AOC holder shall provide aircraft differences training for Operational Control Persons when the operator has aircraft variances within the same type of aircraft, which includes at least the following: (1) Operations procedures —

(i) Operations under adverse weather phenomena conditions, including clear air turbulence, windshear, and thunderstorms;

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(ii) Weight and balance computations and load control procedures; (iii) Aircraft performance computations, to include takeoff weight

limitations based on departure runway, arrival runway, and en route limitations, and also engine-out limitations;

(iv) Flight planning procedures, to include route selection, flight time, and fuel requirements analysis;

(v) Dispatch release preparation; (vi) Crew briefings;

(vii) Flight monitoring procedures; (viii) Flightcrew response to various emergency situations, including

the assistance the aircraft Operational Control Person can provide in each situation;

(ix) MEL and CDL procedures; (x) Manual performance of an required procedures in case of the

loss of automated capabilities; (xi) Training in appropriate geographic areas;

(xii) ATC and instrument procedures, to include ground hold and central flow control procedures; and

(xiii) Radiotelephone procedures. (2) Emergency procedures —

(i) Actions taken to aid the flightcrew; and (ii) AOC holder and Authority notification.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.120 AIRCRAFT AND INSTRUMENT PROFICIENCY CHECK: PILOT

(a) Satisfactory completion of a PIC proficiency check following completion of an approved air carrier training program for the particular type aircraft, satisfies the requirement for an aircraft type rating practical test if — (1) That proficiency check includes all manoeuvres and procedures

required for a type rating practical test; and (2) Proficiency checks are be conducted by an check airman approved by

the Authority. (b) Aircraft and instrument proficiency checks for PIC and SIC must include

the following operations and procedures listed in Table A. As noted, examiners may waive certain events on the flight test based on an assessment of the pilot’s demonstrated level of performance.

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TYPE OF OPERATION OR PROCEDURE PIC or SIC Notes Ground Operations Preflight inspection PIC/SIC Taxiing PIC/SIC Both pilots may take simulta-

neous credit. Powerplant checks PIC/SIC Both pilots may take simulta-

neous credit. Takeoffs Normal PIC/SIC Instrument PIC/SIC Crosswind PIC/SIC With power plant failure PIC/SIC Rejected takeoff PIC/SIC Both pilots may take simulta-

neous credit. May be waived. Instrument Procedures Area departure PIC/SIC May be waived. Area arrival PIC/SIC May be waived. Holding PIC/SIC May be waived. Normal ILS approach PIC/SIC Engine-out ILS PIC/SIC Coupled ILS approach PIC/SIC Both pilots may take

simultaneous credit. Nonprecision approach PIC/SIC Second nonprecision approach PIC/SIC Missed approach from an ILS PIC/SIC Second missed approach PIC only Circling approach PIC/SIC Only when authorized in the

AOC holder’s Operations Man- ual. May be waived.

Inflight Manoeuvres Steep turns PIC only May be waived. Specific flight characteristics PIC/SIC Approaches to stalls PIC/SIC May be waived. Powerplant failure PIC/SIC 2 engine inoperative approach (3 and 4 engine aircraft)

PIC/SIC

Normal landing PIC/SIC Landing from an ILS PIC/SIC Crosswind landing PIC/SIC Landing with engine-out PIC/SIC

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TYPE OF OPERATION OR PROCEDURE PIC or SIC Notes Landing from circling approach PIC/SIC Only if authorized in Operations

Manual. May be waived. Normal And Non-Normal Procedures PIC/SIC Rejected landing PIC/SIC 2 engine inoperative landing (3 and 4 engine air- craft)

PIC only

Other Events PIC or SIC Examiner’s discretion

(c) The oral and flight test phases of a proficiency check should not be conducted simultaneously.

(d) When the examiner determines that an applicant’s performance is unsatisfactory, the examiner may terminate the flight test immediately or, with the consent of the applicant, continue with the flight test until the remaining events are completed.

(e) If the check must be terminated (for mechanical or other reasons) and there are events which still need to be repeated, the examiner shall issue a letter of discontinuance, valid for 60 days, listing the specific areas of operation that have been successfully completed.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.125 FLIGHT ENGINEER PROFICIENCY CHECKS

(a) Examiners shall include during proficiency checks for flight engineers an oral or written examination of the normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures listed below: (1) Normal procedures:

(i) Interior pre-flight (ii) Panel set-up

(iii) Fuel load (iv) Engine start procedures (v) Taxi and before takeoff procedures (vi) Takeoff and climb Pressurisation (vii) Cruise and fuel management

(viii) Descent and approach (ix) After landing and securing (x) Crew co-ordination

(xi) Situational awareness, traffic scan, etc. (xii) Performance computations

(xiii) Anti-ice, de-ice.

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(2) Abnormal and emergency procedures: (i) Troubleshooting

(ii) Knowledge of checklist (iii) Ability to perform procedures (iv) Crew co-ordination (v) Minimum equipment list (MEL) and configuration deviation list

(CDL) (vi) Emergency or alternate operation of aeroplane flight systems.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.130 COMPETENCE CHECKS: CABIN ATTENDANTS

(a) Evaluators shall conduct competency checks for cabin attendants to demonstrate that the candidate’s proficiency level is sufficient to successfully perform assigned duties and responsibilities.

(b) A qualified supervisor or inspector, approved by the Authority, shall observe and evaluate competency checks for cabin attendants.

(c) Evaluators shall include during each cabin attendant competency check a demonstrated knowledge of: (1) Emergency equipment:

(i) Emergency communication and notification systems; (ii) Aircraft exits;

(iii) Exits with slides or sliderafts (emergency operation); (iv) Slides and sliderafts in a ditching; (v) Exits without slides (emergency operation);

(vi) Window exits (emergency operation); (vii) Exits with tailcones (emergency operation);

(viii) Cockpit exits (emergency operation); (ix) Ground evacuation and ditching equipment; (x) First aid equipment;

(xi) Portable oxygen systems (oxygen bottles, chemical oxygen generators, protective breathing equipment (PBE));

(xii) Firefighting equipment; (xiii) Emergency lighting systems; and (xiv) Additional emergency equipment.

(2) Emergency procedures: (i) General types of emergencies specific to aircraft;

(ii) Emergency communication signals and procedures; (iii) Rapid decompression; (iv) Insidious decompression and cracked window and pressure seal

leaks;

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(v) Fires; (vi) Ditching;

(vii) Ground evacuation; (viii) Unwarranted evacuation (i.e., Passenger initiated);

(ix) Illness or injury; (x) Abnormal situations involving passengers or crew members;

(xi) Turbulence; and (xii) Other unusual situations.

(3) Emergency drills: (i) Location and use of all emergency and safety equipment carried on

the aeroplane; (ii) The location and use of all types of exits;

(iii) Actual donning of a lifejacket where fitted; (iv) Actual donning of protective breathing equipment; and (v) Actual handling of fire extinguishers.

(4) Crew Resource Management: (i) Decision making skills;

(ii) Briefings and developing open communication; (iii) Inquiry, advocacy, and assertion training; and (iv) Workload management.

(5) Dangerous goods: (i) Recognition of and transportation of dangerous goods;

(ii) Proper packaging, marking, and documentation; and (iii) Instructions regarding compatibility, loading, storage and

handling characteristics. (6) Security:

(i) Hijacking; and (ii) Disruptive passengers.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.135 COMPETENCE CHECKS: OPERATIONAL CONTROL PERSONS

(a) Evaluators shall conduct competency checks for Operational Control Persons to demonstrate that the candidate’s proficiency level is sufficient to ensure the successful outcome of all dispatch operations.

(b) A qualified supervisor or inspector, approved by the Authority, shall observe and evaluate competency checks for Operational Control Persons.

(c) Each competency check for Operational Control Persons shall include: (1) An evaluation of all aspects of the dispatch function;

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(2) A demonstration of the knowledge and abilities in normal and abnormal situations; and

(3) An observation of actual flights being dispatched. (d) Each evaluator of newly hired Operational Control Persons shall include during

initial competency checks an evaluation of all geographic areas and types of aircraft the Operational Control Person will be qualified to dispatch. (Note: The supervisor may approve a competency check of representative aircraft types when, in the supervisor’s judgement, a check including all types is impractical or unnecessary).

(e) Evaluators may limit initial equipment and transition competency checks solely to the dispatch of the types of aeroplanes on which the aircraft dispatcher is qualifying (unless the check is to simultaneously count as a recurrent check).

(f) Each evaluator of Operational Control Persons shall include, during recurrent and requalification competency checks, a representative sample of aircraft and routes for which the aircraft dispatcher maintains current qualification.

(g) The Authority requires special operations competency checks before an aircraft dispatcher is qualified in ETOPS or other special operations authorized by the Authority.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.180 RECURRENT TRAINING: FLIGHT CREW

(a) Each AOC holder shall establish a recurrent training program for all flight crew members in the AOC holder’s operations manual and shall have it approved by the Authority.

(b) Each flight crew member shall undergo recurrent training relevant to the type or variant of aeroplane on which he or she is certified to operate and for the crew member position involved.

(c) Each AOC holder shall have all recurrent training conducted by suitably qualified personnel.

(d) Each AOC holder shall ensure that flight crew member recurrent ground training includes at least the following: (1) General subjects:

(i) Flight locating procedures (ii) Principles and method for determining

weight/balance and runway limitations (iii) Meteorology to ensure practical knowledge of

weather phenomena including the principles of frontal system, icing, fog, thunderstorms, windshear, and high altitude weather situations

(iv) ATC systems and phraseology (v) Navigation and use of navigational aids

(vi) Normal and emergency communication procedures

(vii) Visual cues before descent to MDA (viii) Accident/incident and occurrence review

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(ix) Other instructions necessary to ensure the pilot’s competence (2) Aircraft systems and limitations:

(i) Normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures (ii) Aircraft performance characteristics

(iii) Engines and or propellers (iv) Major aircraft components (v) Major aircraft systems (i.e., flight controls, electric, hydraulic

and other systems as appropriate) (vi) Ground icing and de-icing procedures and requirements

(3) Emergency equipment and drills: (4) Every 12 months:

(i) Location and use of all emergency and safety equipment carried on the aeroplane;

(ii) The location and use of all types of exits; (iii) Actual donning of a lifejacket where fitted; (iv) Actual donning of protective breathing equipment; and (v) Actual handling of fire extinguishers.

(5) Every 3 years: (i) Operation of all types of exits;

(ii) Demonstration of the method used to operate a slide, where fitted; and

(iii) Fire-fighting using equipment representative of that carried in the aeroplane on an actual or simulated fire;

Note: With halon extinguishers, an alternative method acceptable to the authority may be used.

(iv) Effects of smoke in an enclosed area and actual use of all relevant equipment in a simulated smoke-filled environment;

(v) Actual handling of pyrotechnics, real or simulated, where fitted; (vi) Demonstration in the use of the life-raft(s), where fitted;

(vii) An emergency evacuation drill; (viii) A ditching drill, if applicable; and

(ix) A rapid decompression drill, if applicable. (6) Crew resource management:

(i) Decision making skills; (ii) Briefings and developing open communication;

(iii) Inquiry, advocacy, and assertion training; (iv) Workload management; and (v) Situational awareness.

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(7) Dangerous goods: (i) Recognition of and transportation of dangerous goods;

(ii) Proper packaging, marking, and documentation; and (iii) Instructions regarding compatibility, loading, storage and

handling characteristics. (8) Security:

(i) Hijacking; and (ii) Disruptive passengers.

(e) Each AOC holder shall verify knowledge of the recurrent ground training by an oral or written examination.

(f) Each AOC holder shall ensure that pilot recurrent flight training include at least the following: Note: Flight training may be conducted in an appropriate aircraft or adequate training simulator (simulator shall have landing capability). (1) Preparation:

(i) Visual inspection (use of pictorial display authorized); and (ii) Pre-taxi procedures.

(2) Surface operation: (i) Performance limitations;

(ii) Cockpit management; (iii) Securing cargo; (iv) Pushback; (v) Powerback taxi;

(vi) Starting; (vii) Taxi; and

(viii) Pre take-off checks. (3) Takeoff:

(i) Normal; (ii) Crosswind;

(iii) Rejected; (iv) Power failure after V1; (v) Powerplant failure during second segment; and

(vi) Lower than standard minimum. (4) Climb:

(i) Normal; and (ii) One-engine inoperative during climb to en route altitude.

(5) En route: (i) Steep turns;

(ii) Approaches to stalls (takeoff, en route, and landing configurations);

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(iii) Inflight powerplant shutdown; (iv) Inflight powerplant restart; and (v) High speed handling characteristics.

(6) Descent: (i) Normal; and

(ii) Maximum rate. (7) Approaches:

(i) VFR procedures; (ii) Visual approach with 50% loss of power on one-engine (2 engines

inoperative on 3-engine aeroplanes) (PIC only); (iii) Visual approach with slat/flap malfunction; (iv) IFR precision approaches (ILS normal and ILS with one-engine

inoperative); (v) IFR non-precision approaches (NDB normal and VOR normal); (vi) Non-precision approach with one engine inoperative (LOC back-

course, SDF/LDA, GPS, TACAN and circling approach procedures);

Note: Simulator shall be qualified for training/checking on the circling manoeuvre. (vii) Missed approach from precision approach; (viii) Missed approach from non-precision approach; and (ix) Missed approach with powerplant failure.

(8) Landings: (i) Normal with a pitch mistrim (small aircraft only); (ii) Normal from precision instrument approach; (iii) Normal from precision instrument approach with most critical engine

inoperative; (iv) Normal with 50% loss of power on one side (2 engines inoperative

on 3-engine aeroplanes) (PIC only); (v) Normal with flap/slat malfunction;

(vi) Rejected landings; (vii) Crosswind;

(viii) Short/soft field (small aircraft only); and (ix) Glassy/rough water (seaplanes only).

(9) After landing: (i) Parking;

(ii) Emergency evacuation; and (iii) Docking, mooring, and ramping (seaplanes only).

(10) Other flight procedures during any airborne phase: (i) Holding;

(ii) Ice accumulation on airframe;

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(iii) Air hazard avoidance; and (iv) Windshear/microburst.

(11) Normal, abnormal and alternate systems procedures during any phase: (i) Pneumatic/pressurisation;

(ii) Air conditioning; (iii) Fuel and oil; (iv) Electrical; (v) Hydraulic; (vi) Flight controls;

(vii) Anti-icing and de-icing systems; (viii) Flight management guidance systems and/or automatic or other

approach and landing aids; (ix) Stall warning devices, stall avoidance devices, and stability augmenta-

tion systems; (x) Airborne weather radar;

(xi) Flight instrument system malfunction; (xii) Communications equipment;

(xiii) Navigation systems; (xiv) Auto-pilot;

(xv) Approach and landing aids; and (xvi) Flight instrument system malfunction.

(12) Emergency systems procedures during any phase: (i) Aircraft fires;

(ii) Smoke control; (iii) Powerplant malfunctions; (iv) Fuel jettison; (v) Electrical, hydraulic, pneumatic systems;

(vi) Flight control system malfunction; and (vii) Landing gear and flap system malfunction.

(g) Each AOC holder shall ensure that flight engineer recurrent flight training includes at least the flight training specified herein.

(h) Each AOC holder shall ensure that flight navigator recurrent training includes enough training and an inflight check to ensure competency with respect to operating procedures and navigation equipment to be used and familiarity with essential navigation information pertaining to the AOC holder’s routes that require a flight navigator.

(i) The AOC holder may combine recurrent training with the AOC holder’s proficiency check.

(j) Recurrent ground and flight training curricula may be accomplished concur- rently or intermixed, but completion of each of these curricula shall be recorded separately.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 14.185 RECURRENT EMERGENCY TRAINING: CABIN ATTENDANTS

(a) Each AOC holder shall establish and have approved by the Authority a recurrent training program for all cabin attendants.

(b) Each cabin attendant shall undergo recurrent training in evacuation and other appropriate normal and emergency procedures and drills relevant to their assigned positions and the type(s) and/or variant(s) of aeroplane on which they operate.

(c) Each AOC holder shall have all recurrent training conducted by suitably qualified personnel.

(d) Each AOC holder shall ensure that, every 12 months, each cabin attendant receives recurrent training in at least the following: (1) Emergency equipment:

(i) Emergency communication and notification systems; (ii) Aircraft exits; (iii) Exits with slides or sliderafts (emergency operation); (iv) Slides and sliderafts in a ditching; (v) Exits without slides (emergency operation); (vi) Window exits (emergency operation);

(vii) Exits with tailcones (emergency operation); (viii) Cockpit exits (emergency operation);

(ix) Ground evacuation and ditching equipment; (x) First aid equipment;

(xi) Portable oxygen systems (oxygen bottles, chemical oxygen generators, protective breathing equipment (PBE));

(xii) Firefighting equipment; (xiii) Emergency lighting systems; and (xiv) Additional emergency equipment.

(2) Emergency procedures: (i) General types of emergencies specific to aircraft; (ii) Emergency communication signals and procedures;

(iii) Rapid decompression; (iv) Insidious decompression and cracked window and pressure seal

leaks; (v) Fires;

(vi) Ditching; (vii) Ground evacuation;

(viii) Unwarranted evacuation (i.e., passenger initiated); (ix) Illness or injury; (x) Abnormal situations involving passengers or crew members;

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(xi) Turbulence; and (xii) Other unusual situations.

(3) Emergency drills: (4) Every 12 months:

(i) Location and use of all emergency and safety equipment carried on the aeroplane;

(ii) The location and use of all types of exits; (iii) Actual donning of a lifejacket where fitted; (iv) Actual donning of protective breathing equipment; and (v) Actual handling of fire extinguishers.

(5) Every 3 years: (i) Operation of all types of exits;

(ii) Demonstration of the method used to operate a slide, where fitted;

(iii) Fire-fighting using equipment representative of that carried in the aeroplane on an actual or simulated fire;

Note: With Halon extinguishers, an alternative method acceptable to the Authority may be used.

(iv) Effects of smoke in an enclosed area and actual use of all relevant equipment in a simulated smoke-filled environment;

(v) Actual handling of pyrotechnics, real or simulated, where fitted; (vi) Demonstration in the use of the life-raft(s), where fitted; (vii) An emergency evacuation drill;

(viii) A ditching drill, if applicable; (ix) A rapid decompression drill, if applicable;

(6) Crew resource management: (i) Decision making skills;

(ii) Briefings and developing open communication; (iii) Inquiry, advocacy, and assertion training; and (iv) Workload management.

(7) Dangerous goods: (i) Recognition of and transportation of dangerous

goods; (ii) Proper packaging, marking, and documentation;

and (iii) Instructions regarding compatibility, loading,

storage and handling characteristics. (8) Security:

(i) Hijacking; and (ii) Disruptive passengers.

(e) An AOC holder may administer each of the recurrent training curricula concurrently or intermixed, but shall record completion of each of these curricula separately.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 14.190 RECURRENT TRAINING — OPERATIONAL CONTROL PERSON

(a) Each AOC holder shall establish and maintain a recurrent training program, approved by the Authority and established in the AOC holder’s operations manual, to be completed annually by each Operational Control Person.

(b) Each Operational Control Person shall undergo recurrent training relevant to the type(s) and/or variant(s) of aeroplane and operations conducted by the AOC holder.

(c) Each AOC holder shall conduct all recurrent training by suitably qualified personnel.

(d) An AOC holder shall ensure that, every 12 months, each Operational Control Person receives recurrent training in at least the following: (1) Aircraft-specific flight preparation; (2) Emergency assistance to flight crews; (3) Crew Resource Management; and (4) Dangerous goods.

(e) An AOC holder may administer each of the recurrent ground and flight training curricula concurrently or intermixed, but shall record completion of each of these curricula separately.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.195 CHECK AIRMAN TRAINING

(a) No person may use a person, nor may any person serve as a check airman (aeroplane) or check airman (simulator) in a training program unless, with respect to the aeroplane type involved, that person has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases for the aeroplane, including recurrent training, that are required to serve as PIC or flight engineer, as applicable.

(b) Each AOC holder shall ensure that initial ground training for check airman includes: (1) Check airman duties, functions, and responsibilities; (2) Applicable Schedules and the AOC holder’s policies and procedures; (3) Appropriate methods, procedures, and techniques for conducting the

required checks; (4) Proper evaluation of student performance including the detection of:

(i) Improper and insufficient training; and (ii) Personal characteristics of an applicant that could adversely

affect safety; (5) Appropriate corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory checks; and (6) Approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the

required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures in the aeroplane.

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(c) Transition ground training for all check airman shall include the approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures applicable to the aeroplane to which the check airman is in transition.

(d) Each AOC holder shall ensure that the initial and transition flight training for check airman (aeroplane) includes: (1) Training and practice in conducting flight evaluations (from the left and

right pilot seats for pilot check airmen) in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the flight checks;

(2) The potential results of improper, untimely, or non-execution of safety measures during an evaluation; and

(3) The safety measures (to be taken from either pilot seat for check airman for emergency situations that are likely to develop during an evaluation.

(e) Each AOC holder shall ensure that the initial and transition flight training for check airman (simulator) includes: (1) Training and practice in conducting flight checks in the required normal,

abnormal, and emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the evaluations checks required by this Schedule (this training and practice shall be accomplished in a flight simulator or in a flight training device).

(2) Training in the operation of flight simulators or flight training devices, or both, to ensure competence to conduct the evaluations required by this Schedule.

(f) An AOC holder may accomplish flight training for check airman in full or in part in an aircraft, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device, as appropriate.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.200 INSTRUCTOR PILOT TRAINING

(a) No person may use a person, nor may any person serve as an instructor pilot instructor in a training program unless: (1) That person has satisfactorily completed initial or transition flight

instructor training; and (2) Within the preceding 24 calendar months, that person satisfactorily

conducts instruction under the observation of an inspector from the Authority, an AOC holder’s check airman, or an examiner employed by the AOC holder.

(b) An AOC holder may accomplish the observation check for a instructor pilot, in part or in full, in an aeroplane, a flight simulator, or a flight training device.

(c) Each AOC holder shall ensure that initial ground training for instructor pilots includes the following — (1) Flight instructor duties, functions, and responsibilities; (2) Applicable Schedule and the AOC holder’s policies and procedures;

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(3) Appropriate methods, procedures, and techniques for conducting the required checks;

(4) Proper evaluation of student performance including the detection of: (i) Improper and insufficient training; and

(ii) Personal characteristics of an applicant that could adversely affect safety;

(5) Appropriate corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory checks; (6) Approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the

required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures in the aeroplane;

(7) Except for holders of a flight instructor licence: (i) The fundamental principles of the teaching-learning process;

(ii) Teaching methods and procedures; and (iii) The instructor-student relationship.

(d) Each AOC holder shall ensure that the transition ground training for instructor pilots includes the approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures applicable to the aeroplane to which the flight instructor is in transition.

(e) Each AOC holder shall ensure that the initial and transition flight training for instructor pilots (aeroplane), flight engineer instructors (aeroplane), and flight navigator instructors (aeroplane) includes the following: (1) The safety measures for emergency situations that are likely to

develop during instruction. (2) The potential results of improper, untimely, or non-execution of safety

measures during instruction. (3) For instructor pilot (aeroplane):

(i) Inflight training and practice in conducting flight instruction from the left and right pilot seats in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures to ensure competence as an instructor; and

(ii) The safety measures to be taken from either pilot seat for emergency situations that are likely to develop during instruction.

(4) For flight engineer instructors (aeroplane) and flight navigator instructors (aeroplane), in-flight training to ensure competence to perform assigned duties.

(f) An AOC holder may accomplish the flight training requirements for inspector pilots in full or in part in flight, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device, as appropriate.

(g) An AOC holder shall ensure that the initial and transition flight training for instructor pilots (simulator) includes the following: (1) Training and practice in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency

procedures to ensure competence to conduct the flight instruction required by this part. This training and practice shall be accomplished in full or in part in a flight simulator or in a flight training device.

(2) Training in the operation of flight simulators or flight training devices, or both, to ensure competence to conduct the flight instruction required by this Schedule.

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SCHEDULE 15 AOC KEY OPERATIONS PERSONNEL:

DUTY PERIODS, REST PERIODS AND FLIGHT TIME

SUBPART A: GENERAL 15.001 Applicability 15.005 Definitions 15.010 Acronyms 15.015 Knowledge or Suspicion of Crew Fatigue 15.017 Special Flight Duty Schemes SUBPART B: FLIGHT TIME 15.020 Maximum Number of Flight Time Hours 15.025 Exceeding Flight Time SUBPART C: DUTY PERIODS 15.030 Scheduled Duty Periods 15.035 Compliance with Duty Requirements 15.040 Deadhead Transportation 15.045 Duty Aloft SUBPART D: REST PERIODS 15.050 Minimum Rest Period 15.055 Minimum Rest Period Each Seven Consecutive Day Period APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 15.020: Flight Crew Duty and Rest Periods Appendix 1 to 15.025: Situations Requiring Longer Flight Crew Member Rest Periods Appendix 1 to 15.050: Acceptable Reductions to Crew Member Rest Periods

SUBPART A GENERAL

15.001 APPLICABILITY (a) This Schedule prescribes the maximum duty periods, maximum flight time and

minimum rest periods to ensure that key crew and operations personnel do not experience fatigue during AOC-related duties.

15.005 DEFINITIONS (a) For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply —

(1) Calendar day. The period of elapsed time, using Co-ordinated Universal Time or local time, that begins at midnight and ends 24 hours later in the next midnight.

(2) Deadhead Transportation. Time spent in transportation on an aircraft (at the insistence of the AOC holder) to or from a crew member’s home station.

(3) Duty Time. The total time from the moment a person identified in this Schedule begins (immediately subsequent to a rest period) any work on behalf of the AOC holder until that person is relieved of all duties.

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(4) Flight. The period from takeoff to landing, sometimes referred to as “sectors.”

(5) Flight Duty Period. The total time from the moment a flight crew member commences duty, immediately subsequent to a rest period and prior to making a flight or a series of flights, to the moment the flight crew member is relieved of all duties having completed such flight or series of flights.

(6) Flight Time. The period of time that the aircraft first moves under its own power until it is parked with engines shutdown.

(7) Rest period. A period free of all restraint, duty or responsibility for an AOC holder conducting commercial air transport operations.

15.010 ACRONYMS (a) The following acronyms are used in this Schedule:

(1) AOC — Air Operator Certificate (2) FE — Flight Engineer (3) PIC — Pilot In Command (4) SIC — Second In Command (5) SCA — Senior Cabin Attendant

15.015 KNOWLEDGE OR SUSPICION OF CREW FATIGUE (a) No person may act as a crew member of an aircraft in commercial air transport

if he knows or suspects that he is suffering from such fatigue as may endanger the safety of the flight.

(b) No person may cause or permit a crew member to fly in commercial air transport if that person knows or suspects that the crew member is suffering from such fatigue as may endanger the safety of the flight.

15.017 SPECIAL FLIGHT DUTY SCHEMES (a) The Authority may approve a special flight duty scheme for an AOC

holder. (b) An AOC holder may elect to apply the flight crew member flight duty and rest

requirements to the cabin attendants. SUBPART B

FLIGHT TIME 15.020 MAXIMUM NUMBER OF FLIGHT TIME HOURS (a) Except as prescribed by the Authority, no person may schedule any flight crew

member and no person may accept an assignment for flight time in commercial air transport, if that flight crew member’s total flight time will exceed 8 hours in any 24 consecutive hours. See Appendix 1 to 15.020 scheduling requirements for flight time of more than 8 hours.

(b) Except as approved by the Authority, no person may schedule any flight crew member and no flight crew member may accept an assignment as a required crew member for more than 7 flights in commercial air transport during any duty period or 18 consecutive hours, whichever occurs first.

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(c) No person may schedule any flight crew member and no flight crew member may accept an assignment for flight time in commercial air transport, if that crew member’s total flight time, total flights or duty aloft in commercial flying will exceed the limitations prescribed by the Authority. See Appendix 2 to 15.020 for total maximum total flight hours.

15.025 EXCEEDING FLIGHT TIME (a) The Authority will consider a person in compliance with prescribed standards

if he or she exceeds the prescribed flight time limitations when — (1) The flight is scheduled and normally terminates within the prescribed

limitations; but (2) Due to circumstances beyond the control of the AOC holder (such as

adverse weather conditions) are not expected at the time of departure to reach the destination within the scheduled time.

See Appendix 1 to 15.025 for requirements for flight time that exceeds the maximum scheduled flight time.

SUBPART C DUTY PERIODS

15.030 SCHEDULED DUTY PERIODS (a) With respect to duty periods, no person may schedule:

(1) A flight crew member for more than 14 consecutive hours of duty, except as prescribed by the Authority.

(2) A cabin attendant for more than 14 consecutive hours of duty, except as prescribed by the Authority.

(3) A flight operations officer for more than 10 consecutive hours of duty within a 24 consecutive hour period, unless he or she is given an intervening rest period.

(b) A person is considered to be on duty if they are performing any tasks on behalf of the AOC holder, whether scheduled, requested or self initiated.

15.035 COMPLIANCE WITH DUTY REQUIREMENTS (a) The Authority will consider a person in compliance with prescribed duty

limitations, if he or she exceeds those limitations during an emergency or adverse situations beyond the control of the AOC holder.

15.040 DEADHEAD TRANSPORTATION (a) If a person requires a flight crew member to engage in deadhead transportation

for more than 4 hours one half of that time shall be treated as duty time, unless they are given 10 hours of rest on the ground before being assigned to flight duty.

15.045 DUTY ALOFT (a) The Authority will consider all time spent on an aircraft as an assigned or relief

flight crew member, whether resting or performing tasks to be duty aloft. (b) The Authority will consider a flight crew member to be on continuous duty aloft

unless he or she receives a rest period of 8 consecutive hours on the ground.

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(c) Each AOC holder shall provide adequate sleeping quarters approved by the Authority on the aeroplane whenever a flight crew member is scheduled to be in duty aloft for more than 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours.

SUBPART D REST PERIODS

15.050 MINIMUM REST PERIOD (a) The minimum rest period is considered to be 8 consecutive hours. (b) The minimum rest period for flight crew members shall be 9 consecutive

hours, unless otherwise prescribed by the Authority. (c) With respect to rest periods, no person holder may assign, nor may any

person — (1) Perform duties in commercial air transport unless that person has had at

least the minimum rest period applicable to those duties as prescribed by the Authority; or

(2) Accept an assignment to any duty with the AOC holder during any required rest period.

(d) The AOC holder may exercise the option to reduce a crew member’s rest period within the limitations prescribed by the Authority. See Appendix 1 to 15.050 for the acceptable methods for reducing rest periods

(e) Time spent in local transportation in excess of 30 minutes will not be considered a part of a crew member’s rest period.

(f) Time spent in transportation, not local in character, that is required by the AOC holder to position crew members to or from flights is not considered part of a rest period.

(g) Time spent in transportation on aircraft (at the insistence of the AOC holder) to or from a crew member’s home station is not considered part of a rest period.

15.055 MINIMUM REST PERIOD EACH SEVEN CONSECUTIVE DAY PERIOD

(a) The AOC holder shall relieve the flight crew member, flight operations officer, or cabin attendant from all duties for 24 consecutive hours during any 7 consecutive day period.

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APPENDICES Each AOC holder, scheduling official, and crew member shall use the

following tables to consolidate all scheduling and actual event requirements with respect to flight crew member flight time, duty and rest periods for commercial air transport operations.

APPENDIX 1 TO 15.020 FLIGHT CREW DUTY AND REST PERIODS

TABLE 14-A Acceptable Variations to the Basic Flight Time, Duty vs. Rest Requirements for Flight

Crew Members This table outlines flight crew maximum duty periods (including duty aloft) and pre-

scribed rest periods. Total Hours

of Flight Time

Intervening Rest Period

Flight Deck Duty (24 hour period)

Duty Aloft (Hours)

Total Duty Period (Hours)

1 Pilot Crew 8 8 8 16 2 Pilot Crew 8 8 8 18

2 Pilot + FE

9

See Table 14E 9 9 18

2 Pilots + 1 Relief

Pilot

8 8 12 12 18

2 Pilot + 2 Relief Pilots

8 8 12 16 20

Each AOC holder and each pilot shall use the following tables to determine the maximum allowable flight hours.

TABLE 14-B Maximum Allowable Flight Hours — Minimum Flight Crew

12 calendar Months

Consecutive 90 Days

Consecutive 30 Days

Consecutive 7 days

• Scheduled or Charter Flights

• Sector Lengths less than 4000 miles

1,000 NA 100 30

• Aircraft more than 5700 kg.

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TABLE 14-C Maximum Allowable Flight Hours — Three Person Flight Crew

• Schedule Flights • Sector Lengths more

than 4000 miles 1,000 NA 100 30

• Aircraft more than 5700 kg.

Maximum Duty Aloft 2 Pilot + FE

1,200 300 120 34

Maximum Duty Aloft With Relief

1,200 350 120 40

APPENDIX 1 TO 15.025 SITUATIONS REQUIRING LONGER FLIGHT CREW MEMBER REST

PERIODS

TABLE 14-D Situations Requiring Longer Flight Crew Member Rest Periods

Period of Time

Total Flight Time (Hours)

Intervening Rest Period (Hours)

Subsequent Rest Period (Hours)

1 or 2 Pilot Crew

24 8+ See Table 14E

2 Pilots + FE 48 20+ 18 2 Pilots + FE 72 24+ 18 2 Pilots + FE

+ Relief Crew

Return to Base

NA

See Table 14E 2X

Total flight hours aloft

APPENDIX 1 TO 15.050 ACCEPTABLE REDUCTIONS TO CREW MEMBER REST PERIODS

TABLE 14-E Acceptable Flight Crew Scheduled Initial Rest Period Reduction by Lengthening the

Subsequent Rest Period Flight Deck Duty Period (Hours)

Rest Period (Hours) Authorised Reduced Rest Period (Hours)

Next Rest Period if Reduction Taken

Less than 8 9 8 10 8-9 10 8 11

9 or more 11 9 12

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TABLE 14-F Acceptable Situations for Reducing Initial Cabin Attendant Rest Period Through the Addi-

tion of Extra Attendants on the Flights Scheduled Duty Period (Hours)

Extra Atten- dants Required

Rest Period (Hours)

Authorised Re- duced Rest Peri-

od (Hours)

Next Rest Peri- od if Reduction

Taken 14 or less 0 9 8 10

14-16 1 12 10 14 16-18 2 12 10 14 18-20 3 12 10 14

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SCHEDULE 16 AIR OPERATOR FLIGHT RELEASE REQUIREMENTS

SUBPART A: GENERAL 16.001 Applicability 16.005 Definitions 16.010 Acronyms SUBPART B: OPERATIONAL CONTROL 16.015 Operational Control 16.020 Functions Associated with Operational Control 16.025 Qualified Persons Required for Operational Control Functions 16.030 Pilot-in-Command Responsibilities 16.035 Operational Control Duties 16.040 Methods of Flight Supervision SUBPART C: FLIGHT RELEASE 16.045 Flight Release Decision-Making Records 16.050 Flight Release: Aircraft Requirements 16.055 Flight Release: Facilities and NOTAMs 16.060 Flight Release: Weather Reports and Forecasts 16.065 Flight Release in Icing Conditions 16.070 Flight Release under VFR or IFR 16.075 Flight Release: Minimum Fuel Supply 16.080 Flight Release: Aircraft Loading and Performance 16.085 Flight Release: Amendment or Re-release En Route 16.090 Flight Release with Airborne Weather Radar Equipment

SUBPART A GENERAL

16.001 APPLICABILITY (a) This Schedule prescribes the requirements for the flight release of aircraft

by Bahamian AOC holders, both within The Bahamas and during international operations outside The Bahamas.

(b) This Schedule is applicable to both the AOC holder, the person designated by the AOC holder to issue a flight release, and any other person that performs a function regarding the flight can be construed to fall under the definition of operational control.

16.005 DEFINITIONS (a) For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply —

(1) Flight plan. Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft. The term “flight plan” is used to mean variously, full information on all items comprised in the flight plan description, covering the whole route of a flight, or limited information required when the purpose is to obtain a

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clearance for a minor portion of a flight such as to cross an airway, to take off from, or to land at a controlled aerodrome.

(2) Flight-Following. The method of flight supervision that ensures the timely communication of departure and arrival times to the AOC holder’s central facility for operational control.

(3) Flight Locating. The method of flight supervision that ensures that the aircraft and crew may be located after the completion of a flight or a specified maximum time without contact with the AOC holder.

(4) Fight Progress. The method of flight supervision that ensures active monitoring by assigned personnel of the AOC holder of the conditions that may affect the flight and the ability to communicate with the flight(s) while en route.

(5) Operational flight plan. The operator’s plan for the safe conduct of the flight based on considerations of aircraft performance, other operating limitations, and relevant expected conditions on the route to be followed and at the aerodromes or heliports concerned.

16.010 ACRONYMS (a) The following acronyms are used in this Schedule:

(1) AOC — Air Operator Certificate (2) ATC — Air Traffic Control (3) ETA — Estimated Time of Arrival (4) ETOPS — Extended Twin-engine Operations (5) IMC — Instrument Meteorological Conditions (6) LVTO — Low Visibility Take Off (7) NOTAM — Notice to Airmen (8) RFM — Rotorcraft Flight Manual (9) RVR — Runway Visibility Range (10) RVSM — Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (11) PIC — Pilot In Command (12) SIC — Second In Command (13) SM — Statute Miles (14) VMC — Visual Meteorological Conditions

SUBPART B OPERATIONAL CONTROL

16.015 OPERATIONAL CONTROL (a) Each AOC holder must exercise operational control of the aircraft it operates in

commercial air transport. (b) The primary task of operational control is the decision-making necessary to

authorize, divert, or terminate a commercial air transport flight.

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(c) Any person who participates in the decision-making for any of the tasks and functions associated with operational control is considered to be a party to the flight release of the aircraft and subject to the requirements of this Schedule.

16.020 FUNCTIONS ASSOCIATED WITH OPERATIONAL CONTROL (a) The person(s) exercising responsibility for operational control for an AOC

holder shall — (1) Authorise the specific flight operation; (2) Ensure that an airworthy aircraft properly equipped for the flight is

available; (3) Ensure that qualified personnel and adequate facilities are available to

support and conduct the flight; (4) Ensure that proper flight planning and preparation is made; (5) Ensure that flight locating and flight following procedures are

followed; and (6) For scheduled, passenger-carrying flights of more than two hours

duration, ensure the monitoring of the progress of the flight and the provision of information that may be necessary to safety.

16.025 QUALIFIED PERSONS REQUIRED FOR OPERATIONAL CONTROL FUNCTIONS

(a) A qualified person shall be designated by the AOC holder to exercise the functions and responsibilities for operational control of each flight in commercial air transport.

(b) For passenger-carrying flights conducted on a published schedule, a qualified operational control person shall be on-duty at an operations base to perform the operational control functions.

(c) For all other flights, the qualified person exercising operational control responsibilities shall be available for consultation prior to, during and immediately following the flight operation.

16.030 PILOT-IN-COMMAND RESPONSIBILITIES (a) For all flights, the PIC shares in the responsibility for operational control of the

aircraft and has the situational authority to make decisions regarding operational control issues in-flight.

(b) Where a decision of the PIC differs from that recommended, the person making the recommendation shall make a record of the associated facts.

(c) The PIC may be designated as the sole person to exercise operational control when the AOC holder is using flight-locating as the primary method of flight supervision.

16.035 OPERATIONAL CONTROL DUTIES (a) For passenger-carrying flights conducted on a published schedule, the qualified

person performing the duties — (1) Assist the PIC in flight preparation and provide the relevant information

required; (2) Assist the PIC in preparing the operational and ATC flight plans;

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(3) Sign the dispatch copy of the flight release; (4) Furnish the PIC while in flight, by appropriate means, with information

which may be necessary for the safe conduct of the flight; and (5) In the event of an emergency, initiate the applicable procedures contained

in the AOC holder’s operations manual. (b) A qualified person performing the operational control duties shall avoid taking

any action that would conflict with the procedures established by — (1) Air traffic control; (2) The meteorological service; (3) The communications service; or (4) AOC holder.

16.040 METHODS OF FLIGHT SUPERVISION (a) The three methods of AOC flight supervision that are to be practised in The

Bahamas are: (1) Flight Locating; (2) Flight Following; and (3) Flight Progress.

(b) AOC holders operating non-turbojet aircraft weighing less than 5700 kg. and carrying less than 9 passengers in non-scheduled flights may use flight locating as the primary method of flight supervision.

(c) All other aircraft operated by AOC holders shall use flight-following as the primary method of flight supervision.

(d) Scheduled AOC holders of turbojet aircraft weighing more that 5700 kg and with a passenger carrying capacity of more than 19 passengers may use a combination of flight following and flight progress methods of flight supervision.

SUBPART C FLIGHT RELEASE

16.045 FLIGHT RELEASE DECISION-MAKING RECORDS (a) The decision to authorize the flight release of an aircraft in commercial air

transport operations must be recorded using a method that can be verified at any time within 3 months after the flight.

(b) The signature of the PIC, and any other required person, on a filed operational flight plan will be the primary method of recording that decision.

(c) This flight release documentation must be retained at the point of departure by a designated representative of the AOC holder, unless the Authority has approved a different method.

16.050 FLIGHT RELEASE: AIRCRAFT REQUIREMENTS (a) No person may issue a flight release for a commercial air transport

operation unless the aircraft is airworthy and properly equipped for the intended flight operation.

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(b) No person may issue a flight release for a commercial air transport operation using an aircraft with inoperative instruments and equipment installed, except as specified in the Minimum Equipment List approved for the AOC holder for that type aircraft.

16.055 FLIGHT RELEASE: FACILITIES AND NOTAMs (a) No person may release an aircraft over any route or route segment unless there

are adequate communications and navigational facilities in satisfactory operating condition as necessary to conduct the flight safely.

(b) The Operational Control Person shall ensure that the PIC is provided all available current reports or information on aerodrome conditions and irregularities of navigation facilities that may effect the safety of the flight. Note: For their review of the operational flight plan, the PIC will be provided with all available NOTAMs with respect to the routing, facilities and aerodromes.

16.060 FLIGHT RELEASE: WEATHER REPORTS AND FORECASTS (a) No person may release a flight unless he or she is thoroughly familiar with

reported and forecast weather conditions on the route to be flown. (b) No person may release a flight unless he or she has communicated all

information and reservations they may have regarding weather reports and forecasts to the PIC.

16.065 FLIGHT RELEASE IN ICING CONDITIONS (a) No person may release an aircraft, when in their opinion or that of the PIC, the

icing conditions that may be expected or are met exceed that for which the aircraft is certified and has sufficient operational de-icing or anti-icing equipment.

(b) No person may release an aircraft any time conditions are such that frost, ice or snow may reasonably be expected to adhere to the aircraft, unless there is available to the PIC at the aerodrome of departure adequate facilities and equipment to accomplish the procedures approved for the AOC holder by the Authority for ground de-icing and anti-icing.

16.070 FLIGHT RELEASE UNDER VFR OR IFR No person may release a flight under VFR or IFR unless the weather reports and forecasts indicated that the flight can reasonably be expected to be completed as specified in the release. 16.075 FLIGHT RELEASE: MINIMUM FUEL SUPPLY No person may issue a flight release for a commercial air transport operation unless the fuel supply specified in the release is equivalent to or greater than the minimum flight planning requirements of Schedule 10 and 12, including anticipated contingencies. 16.080 FLIGHT RELEASE: AIRCRAFT LOADING AND PERFORMANCE (a) No person may issue a flight release unless he or she is familiar with the

anticipated loading of the aircraft and is reasonably certain that the proposed operation will not exceed the — (1) Centre of gravity limits; (2) Aircraft operating limitations; and (3) Minimum performance requirements.

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16.085 FLIGHT RELEASE: AMENDMENT OR RE-RELEASE EN ROUTE (a) Each person who amends a flight release while the flight is en route shall

record that amendment. (b) No person may amend the original flight release to change the destination or

alternate aerodrome while the aircraft is en route unless the flight preparation requirements for routing, aerodrome selection and minimum fuel supply are met at the time of amendment or re-release.

(c) No person may allow a flight to continue to an aerodrome to which it has been released if the weather reports and forecasts indicate changes which would render that aerodrome unsuitable for the original flight release.

16.090 FLIGHT RELEASE WITH AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR EQUIPMENT

No person may release a large aeroplane carrying passengers under IFR or night VFR conditions when current weather reports indicate that thunderstorms, or other potentially hazardous weather conditions that can be detected with airborne weather radar, may reasonably be expected along the route to be flown, unless the airborne weather radar equipment is in satisfactory operating condition.

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SCHEDULE 17

MASS AND BALANCE AND PERFORMANCE FOR AIRCRAFT USED IN COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

SUBPART A: GENERAL 17.001 Applicability 17.005 Definitions 17.010 Acronyms 17.015 Minimum Requirements SUBPART B: APPLICABLE CODE OF PERFORMANCE 17.020 Approval of Code of Performance 17.025 Acceptable Codes of Performance 17.030 Consideration of Other Codes of Performance SUBPART C: MASS AND BALANCE 17.035 Supervision of Loading 17.040 Approved Method Required 17.045 Signature Required 17.050 Last Minute Changes 17.055 Determination of Aircraft Empty Operating Weight 17.060 Determination of Actual Passenger Weights 17.065 Determination of Average Passenger Weights SUBPART D: COMPUTATIONS OF APPLICABLE WEIGHTS AND

PERFORMANCE 17.070 Aircraft Performance Calculations SUBPART E: RESTRICTED PERFORMANCE AIRCRAFT 17.075 Single Engine Aircraft 17.080 Restricted Performance Multi-Engine Aircraft SUBPART F: TAKEOFF LIMITATIONS 17.085 Aeroplanes 17.090 Helicopters SUBPART G: EN ROUTE LIMITATIONS 17.095 En route Limitations — All Engines Operating 17.100 Aeroplanes — One Engine Inoperative 17.105 Helicopters — One Engine Inoperative 17.110 Aeroplanes-Two Engines Inoperative 17.115 Helicopters-Two Engines Inoperative SUBPART H: LANDING LIMITATIONS 17.120 Aeroplanes 17.125 Helicopters

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SUBPART A GENERAL

17.001 APPLICABILITY (a) this Schedule prescribes mass and balance and aircraft performance and

operating limitations in addition to those in Schedule 10. (b) These requirements for aircraft used in commercial air transport by the holders

of an Air Operator Certificate issued by The Bahamas. 17.005 DEFINITIONS (a) For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply —

(1) Critical engine. The engine whose failure would most adversely affect the performance or handling qualities of an aircraft.

(2) Defined point after takeoff. The point, within the takeoff and initial climb phase, before which the Class 2 helicopters ability to continue the flight safely, with one engine inoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be required.

(3) Defined point before landing. The point, within the approach and landing phase, after which the Class 2 helicopter’s ability to continue the flight safely, with one engine inoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be required.

(4) Effective length of the runway. The distance for landing from the point at which the obstruction clearance plane associated with the approach end of the runway intersects the centreline of the runway to the far end.

(5) Flight plan. Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft. The term “flight plan” is used to mean variously, full information on all items comprised in the flight plan description, covering the whole route of a flight, or limited information required when the purpose is to obtain a clearance for a minor portion of a flight such as to cross an airway, to take off from, or to land at a controlled aerodrome.

(6) Helideck. A heliport located on a floating or fixed offshore structure. (7) Heliport. An aerodrome or defined area on a structure intended to be

used wholly or in part for the arrival, departure, and surface movement of helicopters.

(8) Landing decision point. The point used in determining landing performance from which, an engine failure occurring at this point, the landing may be safely continued or a balked landing initiated.

(9) Obstruction clearance plane. A plane sloping upward from the runway at a slope of 1:20 to the horizontal, and tangent to or clearing all obstructions within a specified area surrounding the runway as shown in a profile view of that area. In the plane view, the centreline of the specified area coincides with the centreline of the runway, beginning at the point where the obstruction clearance plane intersects the centreline of the runway and proceeding to a point at least 1,500 feet from the beginning point. Thereafter, the centreline coincides with the takeoff path over the ground for the runway (in the case of takeoffs) or with the instrument approach

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counterpart (for landings), or where the applicable one of these paths has not been established, it proceeds consistent with turns of at least 4,000 foot radius until a point is reached beyond which the obstruction clearance plane clears all obstructions. This area extends laterally 200 feet on each side of the centreline at the point where the obstruction clearance plane intersects the runway and continues at this width to the end of the runway; then it increases uniformly to 500 feet on each side of the centreline at a point 1,500 feet from the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane with the runway; thereafter, it extends laterally 500 feet on each side of the centreline.

(10) Takeoff decision point. The point used in determining takeoff performance of a Class 1 helicopter from which, an engine failure occurring at this point, either a rejected takeoff may be made or a takeoff safely continued.

17.010 ACRONYMS (a) The following acronyms are used in this Schedule:

(1) AFM — Aeroplane Flight Manual (2) AGL — Above Ground Level (3) AOC — Air Operator Certificate (4) AOM — Aircraft Operating Manual (5) MEA — Minimum En Route Altitude (6) MOCA — Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (7) MSL — Mean Sea Level (8) RFM — Rotorcraft Flight Manual (9) PIC — Pilot In Command (10) SIC — Second In Command (11) SM — Statute Miles (12) V1. Takeoff decision speed (13) Vmo. Maximum operating speed (14) Vso. Stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in the landing

configuration 17.015 MINIMUM REQUIREMENTS (a) Each person operating an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport shall

comply with the minimum performance approved or accepted by the Authority under the provisions of this Schedule.

(b) The Authority may authorise deviations from the requirements of this Schedule if special circumstances make a literal observance of a requirement unnecessary for safety.

(c) Where full compliance with the requirements of the Schedule cannot be shown due to specific design characteristics (e.g., seaplanes, airships, or supersonic aircraft), the operator shall apply approved performance standards that ensure a level of safety not less restrictive than those of relevant requirements of this Schedule that are acceptable to the Authority.

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SUBPART B APPLICABLE CODE OF PERFORMANCE

17.020 APPROVAL OF CODE OF PERFORMANCE (a) For aircraft of Bahamas registry, the operators of such aircraft must comply

with the comprehensive and detailed code of performance approved for their aircraft during the process of certification by the Authority.

(b) For aircraft of other States of Registry to be operated under a Bahamas registry, the operators of such aircraft must comply with the comprehensive and detailed code of performance accepted for their aircraft during the process of certification by the Authority, provided that such codes are found to meet the minimum requirements of this Schedule.

17.025 ACCEPTABLE CODES OF PERFORMANCE (a) The following comprehensive and detailed codes of performance will be

available to and may be required by the Authority for commercial air transport operations of the category and class of aircraft — (1) United States Federal Aviation Administration; (2) European Joint Aviation Authorities; and (3) Canadian Ministry of Transport.

17.030 CONSIDERATION OF OTHER CODES OF PERFORMANCE (a) To be eligible for approval or acceptance by the Authority, the comprehensive

and detailed code of performance issued by an ICAO Contracting State for commercial air transport may be considered provided — (1) The Code is in conformance with the applicable Standards of ICAO

Annex 6 and 8; (2) The use of this Code will result in performance that meets the

minimum requirements contained in this Schedule; (3) This Code is in English or certified translation to English; (4) A copy of this Code is provided with the application for including the

aircraft on the AOC; and (5) There is a satisfactory method of updating the Authority’s copy of this

Code throughout the period of time the aircraft is registered in The Bahamas.

SUBPART C MASS AND BALANCE

17.035 SUPERVISION OF LOADING (a) Each AOC holder shall designate in writing the person(s) that is to

(1) Supervise the proper loading of the aircraft; (2) Make the computation of the Load manifest for aircraft loading and

centre of gravity; and (3) Determine that the aircraft will be capable of meeting the applicable

performance requirements.

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(b) This person(s) will be trained to competence for these tasks on each aircraft type and variant before being allowed to sign the load manifest.

(c) The person(s) supervising the loading and computing the aircraft load, centre of gravity and performance shall be provided the relevant current weights and aircraft limitations that will effect the performance of that aircraft.

17.040 APPROVED METHOD REQUIRED (a) No person shall compute the load manifest using any method, policy or

information other that specifically approved by the Authority for the aircraft type, supplemental loading documents, seasonal issues, non- standard passen-gers, and type of operation to be conducted.

17.045 SIGNATURE REQUIRED (a) The person preparing the load manifest shall be named on the document. (b) The person supervising the loading of the aircraft shall confirm by signature

that the load and its distribution is in accordance with the load manifest. 17.050 LAST MINUTE CHANGES (a) Last minute changes to aircraft loading will be provided to the PIC and the

person(s) responsible for computation of the aircraft loading and C.G. (b) Unless there is an approved methodology for considering last minute changes

to passenger or cargo weights, the person responsible for the computation will recompute all factors.

(c) The effect of the last minute changes will be provided to the PIC and the person(s) responsible for the computation of the aircraft loading and C.G.

(d) This information shall be noted on the load manifest that is retained at the airport of departure.

17.055 DETERMINATION OF AIRCRAFT EMPTY OPERATING WEIGHT (a) The aircraft’s empty or dry operating weight must be determined through a

weighing of the aircraft every 36 months. (b) This information shall be provided to the person who is responsible for the

computation of the mass and balance and centre of gravity 17.060 DETERMINATION OF ACTUAL PASSENGER WEIGHTS (a) When making the determination of actual weights, the passengers’ personal

belongings and carry on baggage must be included. (b) The weighing of the passengers and their items shall be conducted immediately

prior to boarding and at a adjacent location. 17.065 DETERMINATION OF AVERAGE PASSENGER WEIGHTS (a) No person may use average passenger weights in the computation of

aircraft loading and C.G., unless there has been a determination of the relationship between the actual weights being carried and the selected average weights to determine their validity.

(b) The method for the determination of the relationships shall be determined through the method prescribed by the Authority.

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SUBPART D COMPUTATIONS OF APPLICABLE WEIGHTS AND PERFORMANCE 17.070 AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE CALCULATIONS (a) No person may commence a flight in commercial air transport without

ensuring that the applicable operating and performance limitations required for this Schedule can be accurately computed based on the AFM, RFM, or other data source approved by the Authority.

(b) Each person calculating performance and operating limitations for aircraft used in commercial air transport shall ensure that performance data used to determine compliance with this Schedule can, during any phase of flight, accurately account for —

(i) Any reasonably expected adverse operating conditions that may affect aircraft performance;

(ii) One engine failure for aircraft having two engines, if applicable; and

(iii) Two engine failure for aircraft having three or more engines, if applicable.

(c) When calculating the performance and limitation requirements, each person performing the calculation shall, for all engines operating and for inoperative engines, accurately account for — (1) In all phases of flight —

(i) The effect of fuel and oil consumption on aircraft weight; (ii) The effect of fuel consumption on fuel reserves resulting from

changes in flight paths, winds, and aircraft configuration; (iii) The effect of fuel jettisoning on aircraft weight and fuel reserves, if

applicable and approved; (iv) The effect of any ice protection system, if applicable and

weather conditions require its use; (v) Ambient temperatures and winds along intended route and any

planned diversion; (vi) Flight paths and minimum altitudes required to remain clear of

obstacles. (2) During takeoff and landing —

(i) The condition of the takeoff runway or area to be used, including any contaminates (e.g., water, slush, snow, ice);

(ii) The gradient of runway to be used; (iii) The runway length including clearways and stopways, if

applicable; (iv) Pressure altitudes at takeoff and landing sites; (v) Current ambient temperatures and winds at takeoff; (vi) Forecast ambient temperatures and winds at each destination

and planned alternate landing site;

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(vii) The ground handling characteristics (e.g., braking action) of the type of aircraft; and

(viii) Landing aids and terrain that may affect the takeoff path, landing path, and landing roll.

(d) Where conditions are different from those on which the performance is based, compliance may be determined by interpolation or by computing the effects of changes in the specific variables, if the results of the interpolation or computations are substantially as accurate as the results of direct tests.

(e) To allow for wind effect, takeoff data based on still air may be corrected by taking into account not more than 50 percent of any reported headwind component and not less than 150 percent of any reported tailwind component.

SUBPART E RESTRICTED PERFORMANCE AIRCRAFT

17.075 SINGLE ENGINE AIRCRAFT (a) No person may operate a single-engine aircraft used for passenger carrying

operations in commercial air transport unless that aircraft is continually operated: (1) In daylight; (2) VMC, excluding over the top of any cloud layer; and (3) Over such routes and diversions therefrom that permit a safe forced

landing to be executed in the event of engine failure. 17.080 RESTRICTED PERFORMANCE MULTI-ENGINE AIRCRAFT (a) No person may operate a restricted performance multi-engine aircraft with a

passenger capacity of 9 passengers or less in commercial air transport carrying passengers that will be unable to comply with the performance limitations of this Schedule, unless that aircraft is continually operated at a weight that will allow it to climb, with the critical engine inoperative —

(i) at least 200 feet per minute immediately after takeoff; (ii) at least 50 feet a minute when operating at the MEAs of the intended route

or any planned diversion, or at 5,000 feet MSL, whichever is higher; and

(iii) at least 200 feet per minute in the climbout following a balked landing. (b) If the aircraft’s performance capability is computed to be less than specified in

paragraph (a), the person(s) operating that aircraft shall comply with the performance restrictions applicable to single-engine aircraft.

SUBPART F TAKEOFF LIMITATIONS

17.085 AEROPLANES (a) No person may takeoff an aeroplane used in commercial air transport unless

the following requirements are met when determining the maximum permitted take-off mass:

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(1) The takeoff run shall not be greater than the length of the runway. (2) For turbine engine powered aeroplanes —

(i) The takeoff distance shall not exceed the length of the runway plus the length of any clearway, except that the length of any clearway included in the calculation shall not be greater than 1/2 the length of the runway; and

(ii) The accelerate-stop distance shall not exceed the length of the runway, plus the length of any stopway, at any time during takeoff until reaching V1.

(3) For reciprocating engine powered aeroplanes — (i) The accelerate-stop distance shall not exceed the length of the

runway at any time during takeoff until reaching V1. (4) If the critical engine fails at any time after the aeroplane reaches V1, to

continue the takeoff flight path and clear all obstacles either — (i) By a height of at least 9.1 m (35 ft) vertically for turbine engine

powered aeroplanes or 15.2 m (50 ft) for reciprocating engine powered aeroplanes; and

(ii) By at least 60 m (200 ft) horizontally within the aerodrome boundaries and by at least 90 meters (300 feet) horizontally after passing the boundaries, without banking more than 15 degrees at any point on the takeoff flight path.

17.090 HELICOPTERS (a) No person may takeoff a helicopter used in commercial air transport that, in the

event of a critical engine failure, cannot — (1) For Class 1 helicopters —

(i) At or before the takeoff decision point, discontinue the takeoff and stop within the rejected takeoff area; or

(ii) After the takeoff decision point, continue the takeoff and then climb, clearing all obstacles along the flight path, until a suitable landing site is found.

(2) For Class 2 helicopters — (i) Before reaching a defined point after take-off, safely execute a

forced landing within the rejected takeoff area; or (ii) At any point after reaching a defined point after take-off,

continue the takeoff and then climb, clearing all obstacles along the flight path, until a suitable landing site is found.

SUBPART G EN ROUTE LIMITATIONS

17.095 EN ROUTE LIMITATIONS — ALL ENGINES OPERATING (a) No person may take off a reciprocating engine powered aeroplane used in

commercial air transport at a weight that does not allow a rate of climb of at least 6.9 Vso (that is, the number of feet per minute obtained by multiplying the

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aircraft’s minimum steady flight speed by 6.9) with all engines operating, at an altitude of at least 300 m (1,000 ft) above all terrain and obstructions within ten miles of each side of the intended track.

17.100 AEROPLANES — ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE (a) No person may take off an aeroplane used in commercial air transport having

two engines unless that aeroplane can, in the event of a power failure at the most critical point en route, continue the flight to a suitable aerodrome where a landing can be made while allowing — (1) For reciprocating engine powered aeroplanes —

(i) At least a rate of climb of 0.079 — (0,106/number of engines installed) Vso2 (when Vso is expressed in knots) at an altitude of 300 m (1,000 ft) above all terrain and obstructions within 9.3 km (5 sm), on each side of the intended track; and

(ii) A positive slope at an altitude of at least 450 m (1,500 ft) above the aerodrome where the aeroplane is assumed to land.

(2) For turbine engine powered transport category aeroplanes — (i) A positive slope at an altitude of at least 300 m (1,000 ft) above all

terrain and obstructions within 9.3 km (5 sm), on each side of the intended track;

(ii) A net flight path from cruising altitude to the intended landing aerodrome that allows at least 600 m (2,000 ft) clearance above all terrain and obstructions within 9.3 km (5 sm), on each side of the intended track; and

(iii) A positive slope at an altitude of at least 450 m (1,500 ft) above the aerodrome where the aeroplane is assumed to land.

Note: The climb rate specified in paragraph (a)(1)(i) may be amended to 0.026 Vso2 for large transport category aircraft issued a type certificate prior to 1953. Note: The 9.3 km (5 sm) clearance margin stated in paragraph (a) shall be increased to 18.5 km (10 sm) if navigational accuracy does not meet the 95% containment level.

17.105 HELICOPTERS — ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE (a) No person shall takeoff a helicopter used in commercial air transport having

two engines unless that helicopter can, in the event of the critical engine failing and any point in the en route phase, continue the flight to the destination or alternate landing site without flying below the minimum flight altitude at any point and clearing all obstacles in the approach path by a safe margin.

17.110 AEROPLANES — TWO ENGINES INOPERATIVE (a) No person may takeoff an aeroplane used in commercial air transport having three or more engines at such a weight where there is no suitable landing aerodrome within 90 minutes at any point along the intended route (with all engines operating at cruising power), unless that aircraft can, in the event of simultaneous power failure of two critical engines at the most critical point along that route, continue to a suitable landing aerodrome while allowing —

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(1) For turbine engine powered aeroplanes — (i) A net flight path (considering the ambient temperatures anticipated

along the track) clearing vertically by at least 2,000 feet all terrain and obstructions within five statute miles (4.34 nautical miles) on each side of the intended track;

(ii) A positive slope at 1,500 feet above the aerodrome of intended landing; and

(iii) Enough fuel to continue to the aerodrome of intended landing, to arrive at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet directly over the aerodrome, and thereafter to fly for 15 minutes at cruise power.

Note: The consumption of fuel and oil after the engine failure is the same as the consumption that is allowed for in the net flight path data in the AFM. (2) For reciprocating engine powered aeroplanes —

(i) A rate of climb at 0.013 Vso2 feet per minute (that is, the number of feet per minute is obtained by multiplying the number of knots squared by 0.013) at an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest ground or obstruction within 10 miles on each side of the intended track, or at an altitude of 5,000 feet, which ever is higher; and

(ii) Enough fuel to continue to the aerodrome of intended landing and to arrive at an altitude of at least 300 m (1,000 ft) directly over that aerodrome.

Note: When the two engines of the reciprocating aeroplane are predicted to fail at an altitude above the prescribed minimum altitude, compliance with the prescribed rate of climb need not be shown during the descent from the cruising altitude to the prescribed minimum altitude, if those requirements can be met once the prescribed minimum altitude is reached, and assuming descent to be along a net flight path and the rate of descent to be 0.013 Vso2 greater than the rate in the approved performance data. Note: If fuel jettisoning is authorised (or planned), the aeroplane’s weight at the point where the two engines fail is considered to be not less than that which would include enough fuel to proceed to an aerodrome and to arrive at an altitude of at least 300 m (1,000 ft) directly over that aerodrome.

17.115 HELICOPTERS — TWO ENGINES INOPERATIVE (a) No person shall take off a Class 1 or Class 2 helicopter used in commercial air

transport having three or more engines unless that helicopter can, in the event of two critical engines failing simultaneously at any point in the en route phase, continue the flight to a suitable landing site.

SUBPART H LANDING LIMITATIONS

17.120 AEROPLANES (a) No person may take off an aeroplane used in commercial operations unless its

weight on arrival at either the intended destination aerodrome or any planned alternate aerodrome would allow a full stop landing from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway, and within —

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(1) For turbine engine powered aeroplanes, 60 percent of the effective length of each runway.

(2) For reciprocating engine powered aeroplanes, 70 percent of the effective length of each runway.

(b) For the purpose of determining the allowable landing weight at the destination aerodrome, each person determining the landing limit shall ensure that — (1) The aeroplane is landed on the most favourable runway and in the

most favourable direction, in still air; or (2) The aeroplane is landed on the most suitable runway considering the

probable wind velocity and direction, runway conditions, the ground handling characteristics of the aeroplane, and considering other conditions such as landing aids and terrain.

Note: If the runway at the landing destination is reported or forecast to be wet or slippery, the landing distance available shall be at least 115 percent of the required landing distance unless, based on a showing of actual operating landing techniques on wet or slippery runways, a shorter landing distance (but not less than that required by paragraph (a)) has been approved for a specific type and model aeroplane and this information is included in the AFM.

(c) A turbine powered transport category aeroplane that would be prohibited from taking off because it could not meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(1), may take off if an alternate aerodrome is specified that meets all the requirements of paragraph (a).

17.125 HELICOPTERS (a) No person may take off a helicopter used in commercial air transport unless,

with all engines operating on arrival at the intended destination landing site or any planned alternate landing, it can clear all obstacles on the approach path and can land and stop within the landing distance available.

(b) No person may take off a helicopter used in commercial air transport unless, in the event of any engine becoming inoperative in the approach and landing phase on arrival at the intended destination landing site or any planned alternate landing, can — (1) For Class 1 helicopters —

(i) Before the landing decision point, clear all obstacles on the approach path and be able to land and stop within the landing distance available or to perform a balked landing and clear all obstacles in the flight path by an adequate margin: or

(ii) After the landing decision point, land and stop within the landing distance available.

(2) For Class 2 and Class 3 helicopters — (i) Before reaching a defined point before landing, safely execute a forced

landing within the landing distance available.

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SCHEDULE 18

CARRIAGE OF DANGEROUS GOODS BY AIR SUBPART A: GENERAL 18.001 Applicability 18.005 Definitions 18.010 Any Location on Aircraft 18.015 General Prohibition 18.020 Authorization Required SUBPART B: DOCUMENTATION 18.035 Shipper’s Document Required 18.040 Document Completion and Contents 18.045 Acceptance Inspection Required 18.050 Acceptance Checklist Required 18.055 Retention of Documents SUBPART C: SHIPPER’S RESPONSIBILITIES 18.060 Shipper’s Responsibilities SUBPART D: OPERATOR REQUIREMENTS AND RESPONSIBILITIES 18.070 Approval to Transport Dangerous Goods 18.075 Scope 18.080 Limitations on The Transport of Dangerous Goods 18.085 Classification 18.090 Packing 18.095 Labelling and Marking 18.100 Dangerous Goods Transport Document 18.105 Acceptance of Dangerous Goods 18.110 Inspection for Damage, Leakage or Contamination 18.115 Removal of Contamination 18.120 Loading Restrictions 18.125 Provision of Information 18.130 Training programmes 18.135 Dangerous Goods Incident and Accident Reports APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 18.130: Dangerous Goods Training Programme Content

SUBPART A GENERAL

18.001 APPLICABILITY (a) The requirements of this Schedule shall apply to the carriage of dangerous

goods by air as specified in the ICAO manual, Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air, whether that transport relates to an operation under general aviation, aerial work or commercial air transport requirements.

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(b) These requirements shall not apply to dangerous goods of the classifications specified in Chapter 2.5 or Part I for the Technical Instructions provided that — (1) The dangerous goods do not exceed the appropriate quantity

limitations specified therein; and (2) Such other conditions as are specified therein are complied with.

(c) These requirements shall not apply to dangerous goods which are carried, loaded or suspended from the aircraft — (1) For the purpose of ensuring the proper navigation or safety of the aircraft,

or (2) Solely from the personal use of the passengers and crew members of the

aircraft. 18.005 DEFINITIONS (a) As used in this Schedule, these words or phrases are defined as follows —

(1) Acceptance checklist. A document used to assist in carrying out a check on the external appearance of packages of dangerous goods and their associated documents to determine that all appropriate requirements have been met.

(2) “Consignment” means one or more packages of dangerous goods accepted by an operator from one shipper at one time and at one address for delivery to one consignee at one destination address and in respect of which there is not more than one air waybill;

(3) “Dangerous goods” means any article or substance which is capable of posing a significant risk to health, safety or property when carried by air and which is classified in Part 2 of the Technical Instructions;

(4) Dangerous goods accident. An occurrence associated with and related to the transport of dangerous goods which results in fatal or serious injury to a person or major property damage.

(5) Dangerous goods incident. An occurrence, other than a dangerous goods accident, associated with and related to the transport of dangerous goods, not necessarily occurring on board an aircraft, which results in injury to a person, property damage, fire, breakage, spillage, leakage of fluid or radiation or other evidence that the integrity of the packaging has not been maintained. Any occurrence relating to the transport of dangerous goods which seriously jeopardises an aircraft or its occupants is deemed to constitute a dangerous goods incident.

(6) Dangerous goods transport document. A document specified by the ICAO Technical Instructions for the Safe Transportation of Dangerous Goods by Air (See definition, below). It is completed by the person who offers dangerous goods for air transport and contains information about those dangerous goods. The document bears a signed declaration indicating that the dangerous goods are fully and accurately described by their proper shipping names and UN numbers (if assigned) and that they are correctly classified, packed, marked, labelled and in a proper condition for transport.

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(7) Freight container. A freight container is an article of transport equipment for radioactive materials, designed to facilitate the transport of such materials, either packaged or unpackaged, by one or more modes of transport.

(8) Handling agent. An agency which performs on behalf of the operator some or all of the latter’s functions including receiving, loading, unloading, transferring or other processing of passengers or cargo.

(9) Package. The complete product of the packing operation consisting of the packaging and its contents prepared for transport.

(10) Packaging. Receptacles and any other components or materials necessary for the receptacle to perform its containment function and to ensure compliance with the packing requirements.

(11) Proper shipping name. The name to be used to describe a particular article or substance in all shipping documents and notifications and, where appropriate, on packaging.

(12) Overpack. An enclosure used by a single shipper to contain one or more packages and to form one handling unit for convenience of handling and stowage.

(13) State of Origin. The State in which dangerous goods were first loaded on an aircraft.

(14) Technical instructions. The latest effective edition of the Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air (Doc. 9284-AN/905), including the supplement and any addendum, approved and published by decision of the Council of the ICAO. The term “Technical Instructions” is used in this Schedule.

(15) UN number. The four-digit number assigned by the United Nations Committee of Experts on the Transport of Dangerous Goods to identify a substance or a particular group of substances.

(16) Unit load device. Any type of aircraft container, aircraft pallet with a net, or aircraft pallet with a net over an igloo.

18.010 ANY LOCATION ON AIRCRAFT (a) Any instructions or limitations contained in the Technical Instructions for the

carriage of dangerous goods on passenger or cargo aircraft, as therein defined shall for the purpose of this Schedule be interpreted as applying also to the carriage of such goods beneath passenger or cargo aircraft.

18.015 GENERAL PROHIBITION (a) With respect to any goods which a person knows or ought to know or suspect

to be dangerous goods, that person shall not, without determining and complying with the restrictions regarding carriage by air — (1) take or cause it to be taken on board; (2) suspend or cause it to be suspended beneath; or (3) deliver or cause it to be delivered for load or suspend beneath an aircraft.

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18.020 AUTHORIZATION REQUIRED (a) An aircraft shall not carry or have loaded therein or suspended thereunder any

dangerous goods, unless such goods are carried, loaded or suspended — (1) With the written authorization of the Authority and in accordance with

any conditions to which such approvals may be subject; and (2) In accordance with the Technical Instructions and any conditions

specified therein. SUBPART B

DOCUMENTATION 18.035 SHIPPER’S DOCUMENT REQUIRED (a) No person may allow or cause an aircraft to carry dangerous goods as cargo

unless the shipper of the goods has furnished the operator of the aircraft with a dangerous goods transport document;

(b) Except that such a document shall not be required in respect of such categories of dangerous goods as may be specified in the Technical Instructions as being goods in respect of which a dangerous goods transport document is not required.

18.040 DOCUMENT COMPLETION AND CONTENTS (a) The dangerous goods transport document shall be completed in duplicate and

shall — (1) Describe the dangerous goods in accordance with and contain such

information as is required by the provisions of Chapter 4.1 of Part 4 of the Technical Instructions;

(2) Contain a signed declaration that the Technical Instructions have been complied with in that the dangerous goods — (i) Are fully and accurately described; and

(ii) Are correctly classified, packed, marked and labelled; and (iii) Are in a proper condition for carriage by air.

18.045 ACCEPTANCE INSPECTION REQUIRED (a) The operator of the aircraft, upon acceptance of dangerous goods will conduct

an inspection of the consignment. 18.050 ACCEPTANCE CHECKLIST REQUIRED (a) The person conducting the inspection on behalf of the operator shall complete

a checklist specifically designed for this purpose. 18.055 RETENTION OF DOCUMENTS (a) The operator of an aircraft shall retain for not less than 6 months —

(1) any dangerous goods transport document which has been furnished to him in accordance with these requirements; and

(2) any checklist used in the acceptance of the dangerous goods consignment.

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SUBPART C SHIPPER’S RESPONSIBILITIES

18.060 SHIPPER’S RESPONSIBILITIES (a) Before consigning any packages containing dangerous goods for carriage by

air the shipper shall ensure that — (1) The goods are not of a category whose carriage by air is prohibited by the

provisions of Chapters 2.1 and 2.2 of the Technical Instructions; (2) The goods are classified and packed in accordance with Parts 2 and 3 of

the Technical Instructions and the packagings used are in accordance with such provisions of Part 7 of the Technical Instructions as apply to the goods;

(3) The package is marked and labelled in accordance with such provisions of Chapter 11 or Part 2 and Part 3 as related to marking and labelling and in accordance with Chapters 2 and 3 of Part 4 of the Technical Instructions;

(4) The package is in a fit condition for carriage by air; and (5) The dangerous goods transport documents required by 18.035 has

been completed and that the declaration therein has been made. SUBPART D

OPERATOR REQUIREMENTS AND RESPONSIBILITIES 18.070 APPROVAL TO TRANSPORT DANGEROUS GOODS (a) No operator may transport dangerous goods unless approved to do so by

the Authority. 18.075 SCOPE (a) Each operator shall comply with the provisions contained in the ICAO

Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods By Air, ICAO Doc. 9284 (Technical Instructions) on all occasions when dangerous goods are carried, irrespective of whether the flight is wholly or partly within or wholly outside the territory of The Bahamas. Where dangerous goods are to be transported outside the territory of The Bahamas, the Operator shall review and comply with the appropriate variations noted by contracting states contained in Attachment 3 to the Technical Instructions.

(b) Articles and substances which would otherwise be classed as dangerous goods are excluded from the provisions of this Schedule to the extent specified in the Technical Instructions, provided they are — (1) Required to be aboard the aircraft for operating reasons; (2) Carried as catering or cabin service supplies; (3) Carried for use in flight as veterinary aid or as a humane killer for an

animal; or (4) Carried for use in flight for medical aid for a patient, provided that —

(i) Gas cylinders have been manufactured specifically for the purpose of containing and transporting that particular gas;

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(ii) Drugs, medicines and other medical matter are under the control of trained personnel during the time when they are in use in the aircraft;

(iii) Equipment containing wet cell batteries is kept and, when necessary secured, in an upright position to prevent spillage of the electrolyte; and

(iv) Proper provision is made to stow and secure all the equipment during take-off and landing and at all other times when deemed necessary by the PIC in the interests of safety; or

(v) They are carried by passengers or crew members. (c) Articles and substances intended as replacements for those in paragraph (b)(1)

may be transported on an aircraft as specified in the Technical Instructions. 18.080 LIMITATIONS ON THE TRANSPORT OF DANGEROUS GOODS (a) Each Operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that articles and

substances that are specifically identified by name or generic description in the Technical Instructions as being forbidden for transport under any circumstances are not carried on any aircraft.

(b) Each operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that articles and substances or other goods that are identified in the Technical Instructions as being forbidden for transport in normal circumstances are transported only when — (1) They are exempted by the States concerned under the provisions of the

Technical Instructions; or (2) The Technical Instructions indicate they may be transported under an

approval issued by the State of Origin. 18.085 CLASSIFICATION (a) Each operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that articles and

substances are classified as dangerous goods as specified in the Technical Instructions.

18.090 PACKING (a) Each operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that dangerous

goods are packed as specified in the Technical Instructions. 18.095 LABELLING AND MARKING (a) Each operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that packages,

overpacks and freight containers are labelled and marked as specified in the Technical Instructions.

(b) Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of The Bahamas, the operator shall ensure that labelling and marking are in the English language in addition to any other language requirements.

18.100 DANGEROUS GOODS TRANSPORT DOCUMENT (a) Each operator shall ensure that, except when otherwise specified in the Technical

Instructions, dangerous goods are accompanied by a dangerous goods transport document.

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(b) Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of a State, the operator shall ensure that the English language is used for the dangerous goods transport document in addition to any other language requirements.

18.105 ACCEPTANCE OF DANGEROUS GOODS (a) No operator may accept dangerous goods for transport until the package,

overpack or freight container has been inspected in accordance with the acceptance procedures in the Technical Instructions.

(b) Each operator, or its handling agent, shall use an acceptance check list which — (1) Shall allow for all relevant details to be checked; and (2) Shall be in such form as will allow for the recording of the results of

the acceptance check by manual, mechanical or computerised means. 18.110 INSPECTION FOR DAMAGE, LEAKAGE OR CONTAMINATION (a) Each operator shall ensure that:

(1) Packages, overpacks and freight containers are inspected for evidence of leakage or damage immediately prior to loading on an aircraft or into a unit load device, as specified in the Technical Instructions;

(2) A unit load device is not loaded on an aircraft unless it has been inspected as required by the Technical Instructions and found free from any evidence of leakage from, or damage to, the dangerous goods contained therein;

(3) Leaking or damaged packages, overpacks or freight containers are not loaded on an aircraft;

(4) Any package of dangerous goods found on an aircraft and which appears to be damaged or leaking is removed or arrangements made for its removal by an appropriate authority or organisation.

(5) After removal of any leaking or damaged goods, the remainder of the consignment is inspected to ensure it is in a proper condition for transport and that no damage or contamination has occurred to the aircraft or its load; and

(6) Packages, overpacks and freight containers are inspected for signs of damage or leakage upon unloading from an aircraft or from a unit load device and, if there is evidence of damage or leakage, the area where the dangerous goods were stowed is inspected for damage or contamination.

18.115 REMOVAL OF CONTAMINATION (a) Each operator shall ensure that —

(1) Any contamination found as a result of the leakage or damage of dangerous goods is removed without delay; and

(2) An aircraft which has been contaminated by radioactive materials is immediately taken out of service and not returned until the radiation level at any accessible surface and the non-fixed contamination are not more than the values specified in the Technical Instructions.

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18.120 LOADING RESTRICTIONS (a) Passenger Cabin and Flight Deck. Each operator shall ensure that dangerous

goods are not carried in an aircraft cabin occupied by passengers or on the flight deck, unless otherwise specified in the Technical Instructions.

(b) Cargo Compartments. Each operator shall ensure that dangerous goods are loaded, segregated, stowed and secured on an aircraft as specified in the Technical Instructions.

(c) Dangerous Goods Designated for Carriage only on Cargo Aircraft. Each operator shall ensure that packages of dangerous goods bearing the “Cargo Aircraft Only” label are carried on a cargo aircraft and loaded as specified in the Technical Instructions.

18.125 PROVISION OF INFORMATION (a) Information to Ground Staff. Each operator shall ensure that:

(1) Information is provided to enable ground staff to carry out their duties with regard to the transport of dangerous goods, including the actions to be taken in the event of incidents and accidents involving dangerous goods; and

(2) Where applicable, the information referred to in paragraph (a)(1) is also provided to the handling agent.

(b) Information to Passengers. Each operator shall ensure that information is promulgated as required by the Technical Instructions so that passengers are warned as to the types of goods which they are forbidden from transporting aboard an aircraft.

(c) Information to Acceptance Points Personnel. Each operator and, where applicable, the handling agent shall ensure that notices are provided at acceptance points for cargo giving information about the transport of dangerous goods.

(d) Information to Crew Members. Each operator shall ensure that information is provided in the Operations Manual to enable crew members to carry out their responsibilities in regard to the transport of dangerous goods, including the actions to be taken in the event of emergencies arising involving dangerous goods.

(e) Information to the PIC. Each operator shall ensure that the PIC is provided with written information, as specified in the Technical Instructions.

(f) Information in the Event of an Aircraft Incident or Accident. Each operator which is involved in an aircraft incident shall — (1) As soon as possible, inform the appropriate authority of the State in

which the aircraft accident occurred of any dangerous goods carried; and (2) On request, provide any information required to minimise the hazards

created by any dangerous goods carried. 18.130 TRAINING PROGRAMMES (a) Each operator shall establish, maintain, and have approved by the

Authority, staff training programmes, as required by the Technical Instructions See Appendix 1 to 18.130 for the requirements for training programme curricula according to type of employee.

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18.135 DANGEROUS GOODS INCIDENT AND ACCIDENT REPORTS (a) Each operator shall report dangerous goods incidents and accidents to the

Authority within 72 hours of the event, unless exceptional circumstances prevent this.

APPENDICES APPENDIX 1 TO 18.130

DANGEROUS GOODS TRAINING PROGRAMME CONTENT Each operator not holding a permanent approval to carry dangerous goods shall ensure that —

(1) Staff who are engaged in general cargo handling have received training to carry out their duties in respect of dangerous goods which covers as a minimum, the areas identified in Column 1 of Table 1 to a depth sufficient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods and how to identify such goods.

(2) Crew members, passenger handling staff, and security staff employed by the Operator who deal with the screening of a passengers and their baggage, have received training which covers as a minimum, the areas identified in Column 2 of Table 1 to a depth sufficient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods, how to identify them and what requirements apply to the carriage of such goods by passengers.

TABLE 1

Areas of Training 1 2 General philosophy X X Limitations on dangerous goods in air transport

X X

Package marking and labelling X X Dangerous goods in passengers baggage X Emergency procedures X X

Note: “X” indicates an area to be covered. (b) Each Operator holding a permanent approval to carry dangerous goods

shall ensure that: (1) Staff who are engaged in the acceptance of dangerous goods have

received training and are qualified to carry out their duties which covers as a minimum, the areas identified in Column 1 of Table 2 to a depth sufficient to ensure the staff can take decisions on the acceptance or refusal of dangerous goods offered for carriage by air.

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(2) Staff who are engaged in ground handling, storage and loading of dangerous goods have received training to enable them to carry out their duties in respect of dangerous goods which covers as a minimum, the areas identified in Column 2 of Table 2 to a depth sufficient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods, how to identify such goods and how to handle and load them.

(3) Staff who are engaged in general cargo handling have received training to enable them to carry out their duties in respect of dangerous goods which covers as a minimum, the areas identified in Column 3 of Table 2 to a depth sufficient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods, how to identify such goods and how to handle and load them.

(4) Flight crew members have received training which covers as a minimum, the areas identified in Column 4 of Table 2 to a depth sufficient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods and how they should be carried on an aircraft.

(5) Passenger handling staff; security staff employed by the operator who deal with the screening of passengers and their baggage; and crew members other than flight crew members, have received training which covers as a minimum, the areas identified in Column 5 of Table 2 to a depth sufficient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods and what requirements apply to the carriage of such goods by passengers or, more generally, their carriage on an aircraft.

(c) Each Operator shall ensure that all staff who require dangerous goods training receive recurrent training at intervals of not longer than 2 years.

(d) Each Operator shall ensure that records of dangerous goods training are maintained for all staff trained in accordance with paragraph (d).

(e) Each Operator shall ensure that its handling agent’s staff are trained in accordance with the applicable column of Table 1 or Table 2.

Table 2

Areas Of Training 1 2 3 4 5 General philosophy X X X X X Limitations on dangerous goods in the air transport

X X X X X

Classification and list of dangerous goods

X X X

General packing requirements and packing instructions

X

Packaging specifications marking X Package marking and labelling X X X X X Documentation from the shipper X

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Areas Of Training 1 2 3 4 5 Acceptance of dangerous good, including the use of a checklist

X

Loading, restrictions on loading and segregation

X X X X

Inspections for damage or leakage and decontamination procedures

X X

Provision of information to the PIC X X X Dangerous goods in passengers’ baggage

X X X

Emergency procedures X X X X

Note: x indicates an area to be covered.

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SCHEDULE 19

AIRCRAFT ACCIDENT REPORTING AND INVESTIGATION REQUIREMENTS

SUBPART A: GENERAL 19.001 Applicability 19.005 Definitions SUBPART B: INITIAL NOTIFICATION 19.015 Immediate notification 19.020 Information to be given in Notification. SUBPART C: PRESERVATION OF WRECKAGE AND RECORDS 19.035 Operator Responsibilities 19.040 Moving the Wreckage SUBPART D: REPORTING REQUIREMENTS 19.050 Reports and Statements to be Filed SUBPART E: INVESTIGATIONS 19.060 Responsibility for Investigation 19.065 Nature of investigation 19.070 Right to Representation 19.075 Investigator-in-charge. 19.080 Representatives of the Authority 19.085 Autopsies 19.090 Parties to the investigation 19.095 Access to and release of wreckage, records, mail, and cargo 19.100 Flow and dissemination of accident or incident information 19.105 Proposed findings.

SUBPART A GENERAL

19.001 APPLICABILITY (a) This Schedule contains requirements pertaining to:

(1) Initial notification and later reporting of aircraft incidents and accidents and certain other occurrences in the operation of aircraft, wherever they occur, when they involve civil aircraft of The Bahamas; when they involve certain public aircraft, as specified in this part, wherever they occur; and when they involve foreign civil aircraft where the events occur in The Bahamas.

(2) Preservation of aircraft wreckage, mail, cargo, and records involving all civil and certain public aircraft accidents, as specified in this Schedule, in The Bahamas.

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19.005 DEFINITIONS (a) As used in this part the following words or phrases are defined as follows:

(1) “Aircraft accident” means an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.

(2) “Civil aircraft” means any aircraft other than a public aircraft. (3) “Fatal injury” means any injury which results in death within 30 days of

the accident. (4) “Incident” means an occurrence other than an accident, associated with the

operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations.

(5) “Operator” means any person who causes or authorizes the operation of an aircraft, such as the owner, lessee, or bailee of an aircraft.

(6) “Public aircraft” means an aircraft used only on behalf of the Government of The Bahamas (except for commercial purposes) or exclusively leased for at least 90 continuous days.

(7) “Serious injury” means any injury which: (i) Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing

within 7 days from the date the injury was received; (ii) Results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of

fingers, toes, or nose); (iii) Causes severe haemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage; (iv) Involves any internal organ; or (v) Involves second or third degree burns, or any burns affecting

more than 5 percent of the body surface. (8) “Substantial damage” means damage or failure which adversely affects

the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft, and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component. Engine failure or damage limited to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged, bent failings or cowling, dented skin, small punctured holes in the skin or fabric, ground damage to rotor or propeller blades, and damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes, or wingtips are not considered “substantial damage” for the purpose of this Schedule.

SUBPART B INITIAL NOTIFICATION

19.015 IMMEDIATE NOTIFICATION (a) The operator of any civil aircraft, or any public aircraft not operated by the

Armed Forces, or any foreign aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify The Bahamas Department of Civil Aviation when an aircraft accident or any of the following listed incidents occur:

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(1) Flight control system malfunction or failure; (2) Inability of any required flight crew member to perform normal flight

duties as a result of injury or illness; (3) Failure of structural components of a turbine engine excluding

compressor and turbine blades and vanes; (4) In-flight fire; or (5) Aircraft collide in flight; (6) Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000

for repair (including materials and labour) or fair market value in the event of total loss, whichever is less;

(7) For large multi-engine aircraft (more than 12,500 pounds maximum takeoff weight):

(i) In-flight failure of electrical systems which requires the sustained use of an emergency bus powered by a backup source such as a battery, auxiliary power unit, or air driven generator to retain flight control of essential instruments;

(ii) In-flight failure of hydraulic systems that results in sustained reliance on the sole remaining hydraulic or mechanical system for movement of flight control surfaces;

(iii) Sustained loss of the power or thrust produced by two or more engines; and

(iv) An evacuation of an aircraft in which an emergency egress system is utilized.

(b) This initial notification requirement also applies when an aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident. Note: The initial report may be made to the nearest air traffic service unit or flight information unit of The Bahamas Department of Civil Aviation, or directly to the Flight Standard Inspectorate in Nassau.

19.020 INFORMATION TO BE GIVEN IN NOTIFICATION (a) The required notification shall contain the following information, if available:

(1) Type, nationality, and registration marks of the aircraft; (2) Name of owner, and operator of the aircraft; (3) Name of the pilot in command; (4) Date and time of the accident; (5) Last point of departure and point of intended landing of the aircraft; (6) Position of the aircraft with reference to some easily defined geographical

point; (7) Number of persons aboard, number killed, and number seriously injured; (8) Nature of the accident, the weather and the extent of damage to the

aircraft, so far as is known; and (9) A description of any explosives, radioactive materials, or other dangerous

articles carried.

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SUBPART C PRESERVATION OF WRECKAGE AND RECORDS

19.035 OPERATOR RESPONSIBILITIES (a) The operator of an aircraft involved in an accident or incident for which

notification must be given is responsible for preserving to the extent possible any aircraft wreckage, cargo, and mail aboard the aircraft, and all records, including all recording mediums of flight, maintenance, and voice recorders, pertaining to the operation and maintenance of the aircraft and to the airmen until the Authority takes custody thereof or a release is granted.

(b) The operator of an aircraft involved in an accident or incident shall retain all records, reports, internal documents, and memoranda dealing with the accident or incident, until authorized by the Authority to the contrary.

19.040 MOVING THE WRECKAGE (a) Prior to the time the Authority or its authorized representative takes custody of

aircraft wreckage, mail, or cargo, such wreckage, mail, or cargo may not be disturbed or moved except to the extent necessary: (1) To remove persons injured or trapped; (2) To protect the wreckage from further damage; or (3) To protect the public from injury.

(b) Where it is necessary to move aircraft wreckage, mail, or cargo, sketches, descriptive notes, and photographs shall be made, if possible, of the original positions and condition of the wreckage and any significant impact marks.

SUBPART D REPORTING REQUIREMENTS

19.050 REPORTS AND STATEMENTS TO BE FILED (a) Reports. The operator of a civil, public or foreign aircraft shall file a report in

the form and manner prescribed by the Authority within 10 days after an accident, or after 7 days if an overdue aircraft is still missing. A formal report on an incident for which immediate notification is required shall be filed only as requested by an authorized representative of the Authority.

(b) Crew Member statement. Each crew member, if physically able at the time the report is submitted, shall attach a statement setting forth the facts, conditions, and circumstances relating to the accident or incident as they appear to him. If the crew member is incapacitated, he shall submit the statement as soon as he is physically able.

(c) Where to file the reports. The operator of an aircraft shall file any report with the Authority in Nassau.

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SUBPART E INVESTIGATIONS

19.060 RESPONSIBILITY FOR INVESTIGATION (a) The Authority is charged with fulfilling the obligations of The Bahamas under

Annex 13 to the Chicago Convention on International Civil Aviation and does so consistent with the requirements of the other departments of the Government of The Bahamas. Annex 13 contains specific requirements for the notification, investigation, and reporting of certain incidents and accidents involving international civil aviation.

(b) In the case of an accident or incident in a foreign state involving civil aircraft of Bahamian registry, where the foreign state is a signatory to Annex 13 to the Chicago Convention of the International Civil Aviation Organization, the state of occurrence is responsible for the investigation.

(c) If the accident or incident occurs in a foreign state not bound by the provisions of Annex 13 to the Chicago Convention, or if the accident or incident involves a public aircraft (Annex 13 applies only to civil aircraft), the conduct of the investigation shall be in consonance with any agreement entered into between the Government of The Bahamas and the foreign state.

19.065 NATURE OF INVESTIGATION (a) Accident and incident investigations are conducted by the Authority to

determine the facts, conditions, and circumstances relating to an accident or incident and the probable cause(s) thereof. These results are then used to ascertain measures that would best tend to prevent similar accidents or incidents in the future.

(b) The investigation includes the field investigation (on-scene at the accident, testing, teardown, etc.), report preparation, and, where ordered, a public hearing.

(c) The investigation results in Authority conclusions issued in the form of a report or “brief” of the incident or accident. Accident/incident investigations are fact- finding proceedings with no formal issues and no adverse parties. They are not conducted for the purpose of determining the rights or liabilities of any person.

19.070 RIGHT TO REPRESENTATION (a) Any person interviewed by an authorized representative of the Authority

during the investigation, regardless of the form of the interview (sworn, unsworn, transcribed, not transcribed, etc.), has the right to be accompanied, represented, or advised by an attorney or non-attorney representative.

19.075 INVESTIGATOR-IN-CHARGE (a) The designated investigator-in-charge (IIC) organizes, conducts, controls, and

manages the field phase of the investigation, regardless of what other representatives of the Government of The Bahamas are also on-scene at the accident or incident site.

(b) The IIC has the responsibility and authority to supervise and coordinate all resources and activities of all personnel, both government and civilians, involved in the on-site investigation.

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(c) The IIC continues to have considerable organizational and management responsibilities throughout later phases of the investigation, up to and including the Authority’s consideration and adoption of a report or brief of probable cause(s).

19.080 REPRESENTATIVES OF THE AUTHORITY (a) Upon presentation of appropriate credentials, an aviation safety inspector is

authorized to enter any property where an accident/incident subject to the Authority’s jurisdiction has occurred, or wreckage from any such accident/incident is located, and do all things considered necessary for proper investigation.

(b) Further, upon demand of an aviation safety inspector and presentation of credentials, any Government agency, or person having possession or control of any transportation vehicle or component thereof, any facility, equipment, process or controls relevant to the investigation, or any pertinent records or memoranda, including all files, hospital records, and correspondence then or thereafter existing, and kept or required to be kept, shall forthwith permit inspection, photographing, or copying thereof by such authorized person for the purpose of investigating an accident or incident, or preparing a study, or related to any special investigation pertaining to safety or the prevention of accidents.

(c) The representative of the Authority may issue a subpoena, enforceable in court, to obtain testimony or other evidence.

(d) A representative of the Authority may question any person having knowledge relevant to an accident/incident, study, or special investigation.

(e) The representatives of the Authority also have exclusive authority, on behalf of the Authority, to decide the way in which any testing will be conducted, including decisions on the person that will conduct the test, the type of test that will be conducted, and any individual who will witness the test.

(f) The representative of the Authority, upon presenting appropriate credentials, is authorized to examine and test to the extent necessary any civil or public aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or property aboard such aircraft involved in an accident in commercial air transport.

19.085 AUTOPSIES (a) The representative of the Authority is authorized to obtain, with or without

reimbursement, a copy of the report of autopsy performed on any person who dies as a result of having been involved in a aircraft accident within the jurisdiction of the Authority.

(b) The investigator in-charge, on behalf of the Authority, may order an autopsy or seek other tests of such persons as may be necessary to the investigation, provided that to the extent consistent with the needs of the accident investigation, provisions of local law protecting religious beliefs with respect to autopsies shall be observed.

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19.090 PARTIES TO THE INVESTIGATION (a) The investigator-in-charge designates parties to participate in the investigation.

Parties shall be limited to those persons, government agencies, companies, and associations whose employees, functions, activities, or products were involved in the accident or incident and who can provide suitable qualified technical personnel actively to assist in the investigation. No other entity is afforded the right to participate in accident investigations by the Authority.

(b) Participate in the investigation (i.e., party representatives, party co-ordinators, and/or the larger party organization shall be responsive to the direction of representatives of the Authority and may lose party status if they do not comply with their assigned duties, active proscriptions or instructions, or if they conduct themselves in a manner prejudical to the investigation).

(c) No party to the investigation shall be represented in any aspect of the Authority’s investigation by any person who also represents claimants or insurers. No party representative may occupy a legal position. Failure to comply with these provisions may result in sanctions, including loss of status as a party.

(d) In addition to compliance with the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, and to assist in ensuring complete understanding of the requirements and limitations of party status, all party representatives in aviation investigations shall sign a statement containing these requirements and limitations immediately upon attaining party representative status. Failure timely to sign that statement may result in sanctions, including loss of status as a party.

19.095 ACCESS TO AND RELEASE OF WRECKAGE, RECORDS, MAIL, AND CARGO

(a) Only the Authority’s accident investigation personnel, and persons authorized by the investigator-in-charge to participate in any particular investigation, examination or testing shall be permitted access to wreckage, records, mail, or cargo in the Authority’s custody.

(b) Wreckage, records, mail, and cargo in the Authority’s custody shall be released when it is determined that the Authority has no further need of such wreckage, mail, cargo, or records.

19.100 FLOW AND DISSEMINATION OF ACCIDENT OR INCIDENT INFORMATION

(a) Release of information during the field investigation, particularly at the accident scene, shall be limited to factual developments, and shall be made only through the designated representative of the Government of The Bahamas.

(b) All information concerning the accident or incident obtained by any person or organization participating in the investigation shall be passed to the IIC through appropriate channels before being provided to any individual outside the investigation.

(c) Parties to the investigation may relay to their respective organizations information necessary for purposes of the prevention or remedial action.

(d) However, no information concerning the accident or incident may be released to any person not a party representative to the investigation (including non- party representative employees of the party organization) before initial release by the Authority without prior consultation and approval of the IIC.

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19.105 PROPOSED FINDINGS (a) General. Any person, government agency, company, or

association whose employees, functions, activities, or products were involved in an accident or incident under investigation may submit to the Authority written proposed findings to be drawn from the evidence produced during the course of the investigation, a proposed probable cause, and/or proposed safely recommendations designed to prevent future accidents.

(b) Timing of submissions. To be considered, these submissions must be received before the matter is calendared for considera-tion at a meeting chaired by the Authority. All written submissions are expected to have been presented to staff in advance of the formal scheduling of the meeting. This procedure ensures orderly and thorough consideration of all views.

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(ii) to vehicles owned, operated and maintained by the Department of Civil Aviation, and used by that Department to render assis- tance in cases of accident, fire or rescue or in other emergencies;

(iii) to fire brigade vehicles; (iv) to ambulances; or (v) to vehicles used for the conveyance of

public mail, when any such vehicles are parked as a matter of urgent necessity in any parking meter area; or

(b) to anything done with the permission of the Director, or a police officer acting in the execution of his duty.

19. (1) Any motor vehicle found parked within the Airport —

(a) elsewhere than in a pay car park, a parking meter area or a free parking area; or

(b) in a pay car park or a parking meter area in contravention of these Rules,

may be removed therefrom by a police officer or an attendant or any person authorised by the Director for the purpose, at the expense and risk of the owner thereof.

(2) Any motor vehicle removed in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (1) of this rule may be taken to and deposited at such place as the Minister may direct, and the Minister shall have a lien on any such vehicle for any expenses incurred by any such police officer, attendant or person as aforesaid by virtue of the said provisions.

20. No action shall lie against the Crown, the Minister, the Director, a police officer, an attendant or any person acting under the authority of the Minister, or the Director for any act or omission bona fide done or omitted to be done in the administration of these Rules.

21. The Minister shall not be liable in respect of the loss of or damage to any motor vehicle or the fittings or contents of any motor vehicle parked in a pay car park, in a parking meter area or in a free parking area.

Power to remove vehicles.

S.I. 67/1995.

S.I. 67/1995.

Indemnity.

Minister not liable for loss or damage to vehicle. S.I. 67/1995.

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22. The Director shall keep posted at all times in a conspicuous place in every pay car park and in every parking meter area a copy of the Schedule.

23. Nothing in these Rules shall operate to prejudice anything contained in rule 14 of the Windsor Field Airport Rules.

SCHEDULE

(Rules 5, 6, 8, 9, 11, 13, 15, 16 and 22) PART I

FEES PAYABLE FOR PARKING MOTOR VEHICLES IN PAY CAR PARKS

1. Fee payable for the first hour or part thereof of the parking of a motor vehicle in a Long Term Parking Lot.......................................................................... $2.00

2. Fee payable for each hour or part thereof after the first hour of the parking of a motor vehicle in a Long Term Parking Lot, but not exceeding four hours on the first day of parking................................. $1.00

3. Fee payable for one day of continuous parking of a motor vehicle or parking in excess of four hours on the first day of parking in a Long Term Parking Lot............................................................. $5.00

4. Fee payable for each day or part thereof after the first day of continuous parking of a motor vehicle in a Long Term Parking Lot................................... $2.00

5. Fee payable for each hour or part thereof of the parking of a motor vehicle in a Short Term Parking Lot............................................................. $2.25

6. Fee payable for a permit for the parking of a motor vehicle owned by or in charge of a public officer...................................................................... $75.00

7. Fee payable for a permit for the parking of a motor vehicle owned or in the charge of a person employed at the Airport other than those mentioned in paragraph 6 above............................. $125.00

8. Fee payable for a substitute permit card or windscreen-sticker lost, destroyed, mutilated or for any other good reason not available.................. $6.50

Fees to be kept posted. S.I. 67/1995. Schedule.

Saving for rule 14 of the Windsor Field Airport Rules.

S.I. 63/1988; 16 of 1990, s. 13; S.I. 67/1995.

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PART II FEES PAYABLE FOR PARKING MOTOR VEHICLES IN

PARKING METER AREAS

1. Fee payable for the first ten minutes, or part thereof, of the parking of a motor vehicle.................................. $0.50

2. Fee payable for the parking of a motor vehicle for each period of ten minutes, or part thereof, after the first ten minutes of the parking of the motor vehicle........................................................................... $0.50

WINDSOR FIELD AIRPORT RULES

(SECTION 13) [Commencement 20th March, 1965]

1. These Rules may be cited as the Windsor Field Airport Rules.

2. The purpose of these Rules is to provide for the safety of life and property on the Windsor Field Airport and to provide for the protection of public and private property within the boundaries of the airport and for the general administration of the airport.

3. In these Rules, unless the context otherwise requires —

“airport” means the Windsor Field Airport, New Providence under the control of the Minister;

“authority” means the Minister or a person duly appointed by him;

“Minister” means the Minister appointed under section 3 of the Civil Aviation Act, or any public officer authorised by him to discharge any of the functions of the Minister under the provisions of these Rules.

4. (1) These Rules shall apply to all persons on any part of the airport.

(2) It shall be unlawful for any person to enter upon any restricted area of the airport except with the written permission of the Minister or his duly authorised

S.I. 66/1965 S.I. 155/1972

Short title.

Purpose.

Interpretation.

Application of Rules.

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representative. Restricted areas of the airport are those areas so designated by notice boards erected by authority.

(3) It shall be unlawful for any person to enter any area set aside for the use of The Bahamas Government, private offices in the terminal building, the landing field, runways, taxiways, apron areas or the loading aprons of the airport, except —

(a) persons assigned to duty or having official business therein and wearing identification badges of such type as may be approved by the authority;

(b) passengers under appropriate supervision cross- ing the apron area when entering or leaving aircraft; and

(c) persons authorised by the Minister and being in possession of a pass issued by the Minister or by his authorised agent:

Provided that any such pass must be endorsed by the Comptroller of Customs in order to authorise the holder to enter any such area for the purpose of meeting an aircraft arriving from outside The Bahamas or any person aboard any such aircraft.

(4) No person shall be permitted upon aircraft or upon taxiways or runways or any portion of the airport contained therein, except with the authorisation of the Minister and subject to prior clearance from the Airport Control Tower.

(5) Aircraft operators or their agents are responsible for the supervision of the loading of their passengers and freight and they must ensure that customs and immigration requirements are strictly complied with. They must also request passengers not to smoke when on the ramp.

(6) No person shall enter the covered area immedi- ately north of the customs inspection room during the time passengers are leaving or are about to leave that part of the building, except such passengers and any other persons who may be authorised in writing by the Minister. No person shall obstruct passengers leaving the customs inspection room by standing in or near any of the three exit doors.

S.I. 155/1972.

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5. (1) Aircraft on the apron area shall be loaded or unloaded as soon as practicable, and in no case shall occupy space on the apron longer than one hour, except by permission from the Minister or his authorised represen- tative.

(2) No person shall park any aircraft in any area on the airport other than that prescribed by the Minister or his authorised representative.

6. (1) Aircraft operators or their agents and the respective pilots thereof shall be responsible for the prompt disposal of disabled aircraft.

(2) When a disabled aircraft is blocking any portion of the movement area on the airport, the pilots or other persons responsible for the aircraft shall make immediate arrangements to have the aircraft moved. In the event the aircraft is not moved as soon as is reasonably possible, the Minister may initiate action to have the aircraft moved at the expense of the owner.

7. The pilot in command of an aircraft landing at the airport must file an arrival report with Air Traffic Control unless authorised not to do so by the Minister.

8. The Minister or his authorised representative may delay or restrict any flight at the airport and may refuse take-off clearance to any aircraft for any justifiable reason.

9. No aircraft shall be operated on the airport unless it is equipped with radio equipment capable both of transmitting and receiving messages.

10. No aircraft, aircraft engines and propellers shall be repaired at the parking gates which are used for loading and off-loading passengers. Repairs may take place only in areas specified by the Minister.

11. (1) No person shall taxi or tow an aircraft to or from the hangar, or to or from an approved parking area unless he has been authorised to do so by the Airport Control Tower.

(2) No aircraft shall be taxied except at a safe and reasonable speed.

(3) No person shall start or run any engine in an aircraft unless a competent person is in the aircraft attending the engine controls.

Aircraft parking on apron.

Disabled aircraft.

Aircraft arrivals.

Departing aircraft.

Radio equipped.

Repairs to aircraft.

Taxing rules for aircraft.

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(4) Aircraft engines may be warmed up only in places approved for such purposes by the Minister. Test runs by an aircraft on an engine at any time are forbidden except in an area approved by the Minister.

12. (1) No person shall solicit business for any purpose on the airport without the permission of the Minister.

(2) No person shall engage in any business activity on the airport except with the written permission of the Minister, and under such terms and conditions as may be prescribed by him.

13. (1) No person shall, within the boundary of the airport, solicit or invite or attempt to solicit or invite, or induce persons to ride in any taxi-cabs, or any other vehicle used for the purpose of carrying passengers or baggage or both for hire.

(2) No person shall operate any taxi-cab or other vehicle carrying passengers, baggage or both for hire from the airport unless that person is the holder of a permit issued by the Minister.

(3) No vehicle owned by or operated by or on behalf of an hotel or club or any establishment providing accommodation for guests shall be used for the purpose of picking up or setting down passengers at the airport unless the owners or operators of the vehicle, first obtain the written permission of the Minister.

(4) No person shall use a vehicle for the purpose of delivering food, beverages or any other consumable items for sale on the airport unless that person is the holder of a permit issued by the Minister. Sale of food or beverages on the airport is forbidden except by the holder of a permit issued by the Minister.

(5) No person shall drive any vehicle on the ramp or airport marshalling area without a written permit issued by the Minister. No vehicle shall be driven on the aircraft taxiways or runways without prior clearance from the Airport Control Tower and such vehicles must be equipped with functioning two-way radio.

(6) All vehicles used on the aircraft parking ramps shall be fitted with flame arresters.

Soliciting or carrying on business.

Taxi-cabs and other vehicles.

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(7) No vehicle shall be driven in excess of fifteen miles per hour on the ramp or aircraft parking area.

14. (1) No person shall park a motor vehicle on the airport other than in the areas provided for parking. Loading and unloading shall take place only in the areas designated for those purposes.

(2) Drivers of taxi-cabs waiting in line shall be responsible for moving such vehicles if required to do so by authority and shall be available at all times when the taxi-cabs for which they arc responsible are required for service.

(3) Drivers of all vehicles within the airport boundary shall obey the instructions of the airport police.

(4) No person shall abandon or park for more than seven days at a time any motor vehicle on the airport. Any vehicle which has been abandoned on the airport may be moved by authority at the expense of the owner.

(5) All mobile ramp equipment such as baggage trucks, tugs, airconditioning units, service trucks and power units shall be parked in a neat and orderly fashion at such places as are designated by the Minister.

15. Any person involved in an accident on the airport shall make a full report to the airport police as soon us possible after the accident has occurred.

16. No person shall clean or make any repairs to motor vehicles on the roadways or in the parking areas of the airport except such minor repairs as are necessary to permit removal of such motor vehicles from the airport or except as authorised by the Minister.

17. No person shall solicit rental car business or transact rental car business on the airport unless he has been authorised in writing to do so by the Minister. This rule shall not be construed so as to prevent delivery of rental cars for arriving passengers previously reserved by the customer. Evidence as to such prior reservation may be requested by a member of the airport police or by an authorised representative of the Minister.

Parking.

Accident reports.

Repairs of motor vehicles.

Rental cars.

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18. (1) No person shall disturb, tamper with or attempt to destroy, injure or deface any building, sign, equipment, fixture, mark or any other structure, trees, flowers, shrubs or other vegation on the airport.

(2) No person shall trespass on lawn or seeded areas. 19. (1) No person shall dispose of garbage, paper,

trash, refuse or other material on the airport except in the area designated by the Minister.

(2) All rubbish removed from aircraft must be placed in receptacles provided. Ground equipment is to be removed from the ramps after use, and stowed neatly in the space allocated for this purpose by the Minister.

(3) The ramp and aircraft marshalling area are to be kept clean and tidy; any oil, grease or rubbish deposited upon the ground shall be removed and the area cleaned by the person responsible for having made such deposit.

20. No person shall engage in or conduct gambling in any form, or operate gambling devices anywhere within the airport boundary.

21. No person shall conduct any open flame opera- tions within the airport boundary unless so authorised by the Minister. No person shall interfere in any way with airport fire appliances or equipment. Airport fire regula- tions are to be strictly observed by all persons employed upon the airport or utilising airport facilities.

22. No smoking shall be permitted on the ramps or aircraft marshalling area, or at any place on the airport within two hundred feet of any aircraft.

23. No person shall swear, use obscene language, commit any nuisance or be guilty of offensive behaviour or disorderly conduct within the airport boundary.

24. No person shall post, distribute or display any signs, advertisements, circulars, or printed or written matters at the airport except with the approval of the Minister and under such terms and conditions as may be prescribed by the Minister.

25. Any person contravening any of the provisions of these Rules, shall be liable on summary conviction to a penalty not exceeding seventy five dollars.

Preservation of property.

Sanitation.

Gambling.

Fire precautions.

Smoking.

Conduct.

Advertising.

Penalty.

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GRAND BAHAMA INTERNATIONAL AIRPORT RULES

(SECTION 13A) [Commencement 26th January, 1967]

1. These Rules may be cited as the Grand Bahama International Airport Rules.

2. The purpose of these Rules is to provide for the safety of life and property on the Grand Bahama International Airport, to provide for the protection of public and private property within the boundaries of the Airport and for the general administration of the Airport.

3. The following terms as used in these Rules shall have the following meanings:

“aircraft” means any named manned device capable of control by borne personnel, whether heavier- than-air or lighter-than-air, and navigable through air space, except an escape device;

“Airport” means the Grand Bahama International Airport;

“Airport Police” means Supernumerary Police Offi- cers who are also members of the Grand Baha- man Port Authority Security Division;

“Authority” or “Airport Authority” or “Airport Company” means the Grand Bahama Airport Company Limited, its President or his duly appointed representative;

“Manager” means the Airport Manager or other Airport Company official in charge of the air terminal or his duly authorised representative;

“Vehicle” means automobiles, trucks, buses motor cycles, bicycles, push carts and any other device in, upon or by which any person or property is or may be transported, carried or drawn upon land, except railroad rolling equipment or other devices running only on stationary rails or tracks, and except aircraft.

4. (1) These Rules shall apply to all persons on any part of the Airport Authority property.

S.I. 38/2000. S.I. 7/1967 S.I. 38/2000

Title. S.I. 38/2000.

Purpose.

S.I. 38/2000.

Interpretation.

S.I. 38/2000.

Application of Rules and restricted areas.

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(2) It shall be unlawful for any person to enter except with the written permission of the Airport Authority upon any of those areas of the Airport designed by Notice Boards erected by the Airport Authority and bearing wording “RESTRICTED AREA”.

(3) It shall be unlawful for any person to enter any area set aside for the use of the Airport Authority, Her Majesty’s Customs, Her Majesty’s Immigration, private offices in the Terminal Building, Landing Field, Runways, Taxiways, Apron Areas or the loading Aprons of the Airport except for —

(a) persons assigned to duty or having official business therein;

(b) passengers under appropriate supervision cross- ing the apron area when entering or leaving aircraft; and

(c) persons authorised by the Airport Authority and being in possession of a pass issued by the Airport Authority:

Provided that such pass must be endorsed by the Comptroller of Customs in order to authorise the holder to enter any such area for the purpose of meeting any aircraft arriving from outside The Bahamas or any persons aboard any such aircraft.

(4) No person shall obstruct passengers leaving the Customs inspection room by standing in or near any of the exit doors.

5. (1) No person shall solicit business for any purpose on the Airport without the prior written permission of the Airport Authority.

(2) No person shall engage in any business activity within the Airport boundary except with the written permission of the Airport Authority and under such terms and conditions as may be prescribed by the Airport Authority.

6. (1) No person shall within the boundary of the Airport solicit or attempt to solicit or invite or induce persons to ride in any taxi cab or any other vehicle used for the purpose of carrying passengers or baggage or both for hire.

Soliciting or carrying on business.

Taxi cabs and other vehicles.

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(2) No person shall operate any taxi cab or other vehicle carrying passengers, baggage or both for hire from within the Airport boundaries unless that person is the holder of a permit issued by the Airport Authority. This permit shall be in the form of a windshield sticker and shall be displayed on the windshield of the said vehicle. This permit may be withdrawn at any time.

(3) No vehicle owned or operated by or on behalf of any hotel or club or any establishment providing accommodation for guests shall be used for the purpose of picking up or setting down passengers at the Airport unless the owners or operators of the vehicle first obtain the written permission of the Airport Authority.

(4) All vehicles operating immediately adjacent to or on runways, taxiways and ramps shall obtain prior permission from the Control Tower and shall observe the Control Tower’s instructions given by either Aldis light or radio signals during the time that such vehicles are adjacent to or on runways and ramps. All vehicles being operated on aircraft runways, taxiways and ramps may be required to be equipped with functioning two-way radio.

(5) All vehicles used on aircraft parking ramps shall be fitted with flame arrestors.

(6) All vehicles shall be operated with the rights and safety of others in mind and in direct accordance with posted traffic signs or markers and in accordance with the Airport Police instructions.

(7) Drivers of all vehicles within the Airport boundaries shall obey the instructions of the Airport Police.

7. (1) All vehicles parked or abandoned on the Airport contrary to posted signs shall be subject to removal by the Airport Authority at the owners’ expense and with no liability for damage to the said vehicle incurred in moving the said vehicle against the Airport Authority.

(2) No vehicle shall be driven in excess of 15 miles per hour within the Airport boundaries.

(3) No person shall park a motor vehicle or any other contrivance on the Airport other than in the areas provided for parking. Loading and unloading shall take place only in areas designated for those purposes.

Parking and abandoned vehicles.

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(4) Drivers of taxi cabs waiting in line shall be responsible for the moving of such vehicles if required to do so by the Airport Authority and shall be available at all times when the taxi cabs for which they are responsible are required for service.

(5) All mobile ramp equipment such as baggage trucks, tugs, air conditioning units. service trucks and any other power units shall be parked in a neat and orderly fashion at such places as are designated by the Airport Authority.

8. Any person involved in an accident on the Airport shall make a full report to the Airport Police as soon as possible after the accident has occurred.

9. No person shall clean or make any repairs to motor vehicles on the roadways or in the parking areas of the Airport except such minor repairs as are necessary to permit removal of such vehicle or except as authorised by the Airport Authority.

10. (1) No person shall disturb, tamper with or attempt to destroy, injure or deface any structure, sign tree, flower, shrub or other vegetation on the Airport. No person shall trespass on lawns or seeded areas.

(2) No person shall dispose of garbage, paper, trash, refuse or other material on the Airport except in the areas designated by the Airport Authority.

11. (1) No person shall conduct any open flame operations within the Airport boundaries unless so authorised by the Airport Authority.

(2) No person shall interfere in anyway with the Airport fire appliances or equipment.

(3) Airport fire regulations are to be strictly observed by all persons employed upon the Airport or utilising the Airport facilities.

12. No smoking shall be permitted on the ramps or aircraft marshalling area or at any place on the Airport within two hundred feet of any aircraft.

13. No person shall post, distribute or display any signs, advertisement, circulars or printed matter within the Airport boundaries except with the prior approval of the Airport Authority and under such terms and conditions as may be prescribed by the Airport Authority.

Accident reports.

Repairs to motor vehicles.

Preservation of property.

Fire precautions.

Smoking.

Advertising.

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14. Any person or persons contravening any of the provisions of these Rules shall be guilty of an offence and liable on summary conviction to a penalty not exceeding one hundred dollars.

PART III Subsidiary Legislation under the Civil Aviation Act,

1949 (12, 13 and 14 Geo. 6 c. 67) of the United Kingdom, in force under section 20 of the Civil

Aviation Act. (Ch. 284)

AIR NAVIGATION (INVESTIGATION OF ACCIDENTS) REGULATIONS

(SECTION 10(1)) [Commencement 1st August, 1952]

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Air Navigation (Investigation of Accidents) Regulations.

2. (1) In these Regulations, unless the context other- wise requires —

“the Order” means the Colonial Civil Aviation (Application of Act) Order, 1952, and includes any Regulations made or having effect as if made under that Order;

“aircraft” includes all balloons (whether captive or free) gliders, airships and flying machines;

“accident” includes any fortuitous or unexpected event by which the safety of an aircraft or any person is threatened;

“owner” means where an aircraft is registered, registered owner;

“substantial damage” includes any damage which necessitates the replacement or extensive repair of any major component.

(2) References in these Regulations to any enactment shall, unless the context otherwise requires, be construed as references to that enactment as re-enacted in or as amended by or under any subsequent enactment.

Penalty.

G.N. 153/1952

Short title.

Interpretation.

S.I. 868/1952.

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(3) The Interpretation Act shall apply for the purpose of the interpretation of these Regulations as if these Regulations were rules made under an Act of Parliament.

3. These Regulations relate to civil aviation only and shall apply to accidents arising out of or in the course of air navigation which occur to any civil aircraft in or over The Bahamas or elsewhere to civil aircraft registered in The Bahamas.

4. An accident shall be notified in accordance with the provisions of regulation 5 if, between the time when any person boards an aircraft with the intention of flight and such time as all persons have disembarked therefrom —

(a) any person suffers death or serious injury while in or upon the aircraft or by direct contact with the aircraft or anything attached thereto; or

(b) the aircraft receives substantial damage. 5. (1) Where an accident occurs of which

notification is required to be given under regulation 4, the person in command of the aircraft involved at the time of the accident, or if he be killed or incapacitated, then the owner, operator, hirer, or other person on whose behalf he was in command of the aircraft, as the case may be, shall forthwith send notice thereof to the Director of Civil Aviation by the quickest means of communication avail- able and, in the case of an accident occurring in or over The Bahamas shall also notify forthwith the local police authorities of the accident and of the place where it occurred.

(2) The notice to the Director of Civil Aviation referred to in paragraph (1) of this regulation shall state as far as possible —

(a) the type, and nationality and registration marks of the aircraft;

(b) the name of the owner, operator and hirer if any, of the aircraft;

(c) the name of the person in command of the aircraft;

(d) the date and Greenwich mean time of the accident;

(e) the last point of departure and next point of intended landing of the aircraft;

Ch. 2.

Application.

Notification of accidents.

Contents of notification.

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(f) the position of the aircraft with reference to some easily defined geographical point;

(g) the number of persons (if any) — (i) killed; (ii) seriously injured, as the result of the

accident; (h) the nature of the accident as far as is known; (i) brief particulars of damage to the aircraft. (3) Where an accident to which these Regulations

apply occurs, whether in or over The Bahamas or elsewhere, the owner, operator or hirer of the aircraft shall, if so required by notice in writing from the Governor-General send to the Governor-General, within such time as may be specified in the notice, such information with respect thereto in such form as the Governor-General may require.

6. (1) Where an accident occurs in or over The Bahamas of which notification is required to be given under regulation 4, no person other than an authorized person shall have access to the aircraft involved in the accident and the aircraft shall not, except under the authority of the Director of Civil Aviation, be removed or otherwise interfered with:

Provided that — (a) the aircraft may be removed or interfered with

so far as may be necessary for the purpose of extricating persons or animals involved, removing any mails carried by the aircraft, preventing destruction by fire or other cause, or preventing any damage or obstruction to the public or to air navigation or to other transport;

(b) goods or passengers’ baggage may be removed from the aircraft under the supervision of an officer of the police, but if the aircraft has come from a place outside The Bahamas, shall not be removed from the vicinity of the aircraft except on clearance by or with the consent of an officer of customs;

(c) if an aircraft is wrecked on the water, the aircraft or any contents thereof may be removed to such extent as may be necessary for bringing it or them to a place of safety.

Removal of damaged aircraft.

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(2) In this regulation the expression “authorised person” means any person authorised by the Governor- General either generally or specially to have access to any aircraft involved in an accident and includes any officer of police or any officer of the Customs Department.

7. (1) For the purpose of carrying out investigations into the causes and circumstances of accidents to which these Regulations apply the Governor- General shall appoint a Chief Inspector of Accidents and at the request of the Chief Inspector of Accidents, may appoint an Inspector of Accidents for the purpose of carrying out any such investigation.

(2) The Chief Inspector of Accidents, if he thinks fit, may himself carry out an investigation or cause an investigation to be carried out by an Inspector of Accidents of any accident to which these Regulations apply, whether or not such accident is one whereof notification is required to be given under regulation 4.

(3) Public notice that such investigation is taking place shall be given in such manner as the Governor- General may think fit and shall state that any person who may desire to make representations concerning the circumstances or causes of the accident may do so in writing within a time to be specified in the notice.

8. With respect to any Inspector’s investigation, the following provisions of this regulation shall have effect —

(a) the Chief Inspector or the Inspector by whom the investigation is made (in this regulation referred to as “the Inspector”) shall have power —

(i) by summons under his hand to call before him and examine all such persons as he thinks fit, to require such persons to answer any questions or furnish any information or produce any books, papers, documents and articles which the Inspector may consider relevant, and to retain any such books, papers, documents and articles until the completion of the investigation;

(ii) to take statements from all such persons as he thinks fit and to require any such person to make and sign a declaration of the truth of the statement made by him;

Inspector’s investigation.

Powers of Inspector.

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(iii) to have access to and examine any aircraft involved in the accident and the place where the accident occurred, and for that purpose to require any such aircraft or any part or equipment thereof to be preserved unaltered pending examination;

(iv) to examine, remove, test, take measures for the preservation of, or otherwise deal with the aircraft or any part thereof or anything contained therein;

(v) to enter and inspect any place or building the entry or inspection whereof appears to the Inspector to be requisite for the purposes of the investigation;

(vi) to take measures for the preservation of evidence;

(b) where an accident has occurred in or over The Bahamas to an aircraft registered in any country other than The Bahamas the Governor-General may authorise an investigator appointed by the duly competent authority of that other country to carry out an investigation, and in that event the Governor-General shall, so far as he is able, facilitate inquiries by the investigator so ap- pointed;

(c) the investigation shall be held in private; (d) where it appears to the Inspector that in order to

resolve any conflict of evidence or that for any other reason it is expedient so to do, he may permit any person to appear before him and call evidence and examine witnesses;

(e) where it appears to the Inspector that any degree of responsibility for the accident may be attributed to any person, and if it appears to the Inspector to be practicable so to do, that person or, if he be deceased, his legal personal representatives shall be given notice that blame may be attributed to him and be permitted to make a statement or give evidence and to produce witnesses and to examine any witnesses from whose evidence it appears that he may be blameworthy;

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(f) the Attorney-General may intervene at any stage of an investigation in order to make representa- tions or to examine witnesses, if it appears to him expedient so to do in the public interest;

(g) every person summoned by the Inspector as a witness in accordance with this regulation shall be allowed such sum of money as seems just, as well for defraying his reasonable expenses as for affording him reasonable compensation for his trouble and loss of time.

9. Upon the completion of an investigation, the Chief Inspector of Accidents, or the Inspector of Accidents as the case may be, who conducted the investigation shall make a report to the Governor-General. He shall state the circumstances of the case and his conclusions as to the cause of the accident, adding any observations and recommendations which he thinks fit to make with a view to the preservation of life and the avoidance of similar accidents in the future. He shall also state to what extent effect has been given to the provisions of paragraph (e) of regulation 8. The Governor-General may cause the whole or any part of such report to be made public in such manner as he thinks fit.

10. (1) Where it appears to the Governor-General that it is expedient to hold a public inquiry into the causes and circumstances of an accident to which these Regula- tions apply, he may direct that a public inquiry be held by a commissioner appointed by the Chief Justice; and in such case any Inspector’s investigation relating to the accident shall be discontinued.

(2) The commissioner (hereinafter called “the court”) shall be assisted by not less than two assessors possessing aeronautical, engineering or other special skill or knowl- edge. one of whom may be the Chief Inspector of Accidents, or an Inspector of Accidents. The assessors shall be appointed by the Chief Justice.

(3) Where the Chief Justice has directed a public inquiry to be held, he shall remit the case to the Attorney- General, and thereafter the preparation and presentation of the case shall be conducted by the Attorney-General: the Chief Inspector of Accidents shall render such assistance to the court and to the Attorney-General as is in his power

Report on investigation.

Public inquiries.

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and for that purpose shall have the powers conferred by paragraph (a) of regulation 8 on an Inspector of Accidents with respect to an Inspector’s investigation.

(4) Every public inquiry held under these Regulations shall be conducted in such manner that, if a charge is made against any person, that person shall have an opportunity of making a defence.

(5) When a public inquiry has been ordered, the Attorney-General may cause a notice, to be called a notice of inquiry, to be served upon the owner, operator, hirer and person in command of any aircraft involved in the accident, as well as upon any person who in his opinion ought to be served with such notice. The notice shall contain a statement of the questions which on the information then in the possession of the Attorney-General he intends to raise on the hearing of the inquiry, and the Attorney General may, at any time before the hearing of the inquiry, by a subsequent notice amend, add to, or omit any of the questions specified in the notice of inquiry.

(6) The Attorney-General, the owner, the operator, the hirer, the person in command and any other person upon whom a notice of inquiry has been served, shall be deemed to be parties to the proceedings.

(7) Any other person may, by leave of the court, appear, and any person who so appears shall thereupon become a party to the proceedings.

(8) (a) The Court may — (i) enter and inspect, or authorise any person to

enter and inspect, any place or building entry or inspection whereof appears to the court requisite for the purposes of the inquiry;

(ii) by summons require the attendance as witnesses of all such persons as the court thinks fit to call and examine, and require such persons to answer any questions or furnish any information or produce any books, papers, documents and articles which the court may consider relevant;

(iii) administer the oath to any such witness, or require any witness to make and sign.

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(b) The assessors shall have the same power of entry and inspection as the court.

(9) Affidavits and statutory declarations may, by permission of the court and saving all just exceptions, be used as evidence at the hearing.

(10) At the time and place appointed for holding the inquiry the court may proceed with the inquiry whether the parties, upon whom a notice of inquiry has been served, or any of them, are present or not.

(11) The court shall hold the inquiry in open court save to the extent to which the court is of opinion that in the interest of justice or in the public interest any part of evidence, or any argument relating thereto, should be heard in camera.

(12) The proceedings on the inquiry shall commence with the production and examination of witnesses on behalf of the Attorney-General. These witnesses, after being examined on behalf of the Attorney-General, may be cross-examined by the parties in such order as the court may direct, and may then be re-examined on behalf of the Attorney-General. Questions asked and documents ten- dered as evidence in the course of the examination of these witnesses shall not be open to objection merely on the ground that they do or may raise questions which are not contained in or which vary from the questions specified in the notice of inquiry or subsequent notices referred to in paragraph (5) of this regulation.

(13) When the examination of the witnesses produced on behalf of the Attorney-General has been concluded, the Attorney-General shall state the questions in reference to the accident and the conduct of persons connected with the accident upon which the opinion of the court is desired. In framing the questions for the opinion of the court, the Attorney-General shall make such modifications in, additions to or omissions from the questions in the notice of inquiry or subsequent notices referred to in paragraph (5) of this regulation, as, having regard to the evidence which has been given, the Attorney- General or the court may think fit.

(14) After the questions for the opinion of the court have been stated, the court shall proceed to hear the parties to the proceedings upon and determine the questions so stated. Each party to the proceedings shall be entitled to

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address the court and produce witnesses to recall any of the witnesses who have already been examined for further examination and generally adduce evidence. The parties shall be heard and their witnesses examined, cross- examined and re-examined in such order as the court shall direct. Further witnesses may also be produced and examined on behalf of the Attorney-General and may be cross-examined by the parties and re-examined on behalf of the Attorney General.

(15) When the whole of the evidence in relation to the questions for the opinion of the court has been concluded, any of the parties who desires so to do may address the court upon the evidence and the court may be addressed in reply upon the whole case on behalf of the Attorney-General.

(16) The court may adjourn the inquiry from time to time and from place to place, and where an adjournment is asked for by any party to the inquiry, the court may impose such terms as to payment of costs or otherwise as it may think just as a condition of granting the adjournment.

(17) The court shall make a report to the Governor- General stating fully the circumstances of the case and the opinion of the court touching the causes of the accident and adding any observations and recommendations which the court thinks fit to make with a view to the preservation of life and the avoidance of similar accidents in future, including a recommendation for the cancellation, suspen- sion or endorsement of any licence, certificate or other document.

(18) Each assessor shall either sign the report with or without reservations, or state in writing his dissent therefrom and his reasons for such dissent, and such reservations or dissent and reasons (if any) shall be forwarded to the Governor-General with the report. The Governor-General shall, unless there are good reasons to the contrary, cause any such report and reservations or dissent and reasons (if any) to be made public wholly or in part in such manner as he thinks fit.

(19) Every persons attending as a witness before the court shall be allowed such sum of money as seems just, as well for defraying his reasonable expenses as for affording him reasonable compensation for his trouble and loss of

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time, provided that in the case of any party to the proceedings or of any person in the employment of any such part, any such expenses may be disallowed if the court in its discretion so directs.

(20) The court may order the costs and expenses of the inquiry or any part thereof, to be paid by any party, if it finds that the accident was due to the act or default or negligence of that party or of any person in the employ- ment of that party; and any such order shall, on the application of any person entitled to the benefit thereof, be enforced by a magistrate by distress as if the costs and expenses were a penalty imposed by him sitting as a court of summary criminal jurisdiction, but subject to any such order, such costs and expenses shall be deemed to be part of the expenses of the Governor-General in exercise of his powers under the order.

(21) Any notice, summons or other document issued under this regulation may be served by sending the same by registered post to the last known address of the person to be served.

(22) The service of any notice, summons or other document may be proved by the oath or affidavit of the person by whom it was served.

11. (1) The Governor-General may, in the case where a public inquiry has been held, direct a rehearing of the inquiry either generally or as to any part thereof and shall do so —

(a) if new and important evidence which could not be produced at the inquiry has been discovered; or

(b) if for any other reason there is in his opinion ground for suspecting that a miscarriage of justice has occurred.

(2) If the Governor-General directs any inquiry to be reheard, the Chief Justice may order that the inquiry shall be reheard either by the court by whom the inquiry was heard in the first instance or by some other person appointed by him to hold the rehearing.

(3) Any rehearing shall be subject to and conducted in accordance with the provisions of these Regulations relating to the holding of public inquiries.

Rehearing of public inquiries.

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12. Where an Inspector’s investigation or a public inquiry relates to an accident which has occurred in or over The Bahamas to an aircraft registered in any country other than The Bahamas, an accredited representative of the country in which the aircraft is registered or of any country which has, on request, furnished information in connection with the accident, may take part in the investigation or in the inquiry as the case may be; he may be accompanied by such technical and other advisers as may be considered necessary by the authorities of the country by which he is appointed.

13. (1) A person shall not obstruct or impede the court, the Chief Inspector of Accidents or an Inspector of Accidents or an assessor or any person acting under the authority of the Governor-General in the exercise of any powers or duties under these Regulations.

(2) A person shall not without reasonable excuse (proof whereof shall lie on him) fail after having had the expenses (if any) to which he is entitled tendered to him, to comply with any summons or requisition of the court holding a public inquiry or the Chief Inspector of Accidents or an Inspector of Accidents, holding an Inspector’s investigation under these Regulations.

14. (1) Nothing in these Regulations shall limit the powers of any authority under sections 241 to 248 inclusive of the Merchant Shipping Act.

(2) Nothing in these Regulations shall limit the power of the Governor-General under the order of cancelling, suspending or endorsing any licence, certificate or other document.

Attendance of representative where aircraft is registered in another country.

Summons must be complied with.

No limitation of powers.

Ch. 268.

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AIRCRAFT (EXEMPTION FROM SEIZURE ON PATENT CLAIMS) ORDER, 1966

1966 No. 188.

Made............................................... 24th February, 1966 Laid before Parliament........................ 2nd March, 1966 Coming into Operation......................... 9th March, 1966

At the Court of Saint James, the 24th day of February, 1966

Present, Her Majesty Queen Elizabeth The Queen Mother

Her Royal Highness The Princess Margaret, Countess of Snowdon

Lord President Mr. Secretary Griffiths Mr. Secretary Healy Sir Elwyn Jones

Whereas Her Majesty, in pursuance of the Regency Acts 1937 to 1953, was pleased, by Letters Patent dated the twenty-fifth day of January, 1966, to delegate to the following Counsellors of State (subject to the exceptions hereinafter mentioned) or any two or more of them, that is to say, His Royal Highness The Prince Philip, Duke of Edinburgh, Her Majesty Queen Elizabeth The Queen Mother, Her Royal Highness The Princess Margaret, Countess of Snowdon, His Royal Highness The Duke of Gloucester, His Royal Highness Prince William of Gloucester and His Royal Highness Prince Richard of Gloucester, full power and authority during the period of Her Majesty’s absence from the United Kingdom to summon and hold on Her Majesty’s behalf Her Privy Council and to signify thereat Her Majesty’s approval for anything for which Her Majesty’s approval in Council is required:

And whereas Her Majesty was further pleased to except from the number of the said Counsellors of State His Royal Highness The Prince Philip, Duke of Edin- burgh, Her Royal Highness The Princess Margaret, Countess of Snowdon, His Royal Highness The Duke of Gloucester and His Royal Highness Prince William of Gloucester while absent from the United Kingdom:

S.I. 69/1966

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Now, therefore, Her Majesty Queen Elizabeth The Queen Mother and Her Royal Highness The Princess Margaret, Countess of Snowdon, being authorised thereto by the said Letters Patent, and in pursuance of the powers conferred on Her Majesty by section 53 of the Civil Aviation Act, 1949 1 (hereinafter referred to as “the Act”) and of all other powers in that behalf, do hereby, by and with the advice of Her Majesty’s Privy Council, on Her Majesty’s behalf order, and it is hereby ordered, as follows —

1. (1) This Order may be cited as the Aircraft (Exemption from Seizure on Patent Claims) Order, 1966 and shall come into operation on 9th March, 1966.

(2) The Interpretation Act, 1889 2 shall apply for the interpretation of this Order as it applies for the interpretation of an Act of Parliament.

(3) Section 38(2) of the Interpretation Act, 1889 (which relates to the effect of repeals) shall apply to this Order as if this Order were an Act of Parliament and as if the Order revoked by Article 4 of this Order were an Act of Parliament thereby repealed.

2. It is hereby declared for the purpose of section 53(3) (a) of the Act that the benefits of those provisions of the Convention on International Civil Aviation signed at Chicago on 7th December, 1944 to which the said section 53 relates apply to the countries or territories named in the Schedule to this Order.

3. Aircraft registered in the Hungarian People’s Republic are hereby specified for the purposes of section 53(3)(b) of the Act as other aircraft to which the said section 53 applies.

4. The Aircraft (Exemption from Seizure on Patent Claims) Order 1964 3 is hereby revoked.

W. G. Agnew.

1 12, 13, & 14 Geo. 6. c. 67. 2 52 & 53 Vict. c. 63 3 S.I. 1964/56 (1964 I, p. 87)

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SCHEDULE Argentina Liberia Australia Libya Austria Luxembourg Belgium Malagasy Republic Bolivia Malaysia Brazil Malta, G.C. Burma Mauritania Cambodia Mexico Cameroon Morocco Canada Nepal Central African Republic Netherlands Ceylon New Zealand Chad Nicaragua Chile Niger Colombia Nigeria Congo (Brazzaville) Norway Costa Rica Pakistan Cuba Panama Czechoslovakia Paraguay Dahomey Peru Denmark Philippine Republic Dominican Republic Poland Ecuador Portugal El Salvador Republic of Cyprus Federal Republic of Germany Republic of Ireland Finland Republic of Korea France Republic of Vietnam Gabon Rumania Ghana Senegal Greece Sierra Leone Guatemala South Africa Guinea Spain Haiti Sweden Honduras Switzerland Iceland Syrian Arab Republic India Thailand Indonesia Trinidad and Tobago Iran Tunisia Iraq Turkey Israel United Arab Republic Italy United Republic of Tanzania Ivory Coast United States of America

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Jamaica Upper Volta Japan Uruguay Jordan Venezuela Kenya Yugoslavia Laos Zambia Lebanon

EXPLANATORY NOTE

(This Note is not part of the Order.) Section 53 of the Civil Aviation Act, 1949 exempts aircraft

to which the section applies, and parts of such aircraft, from seizure on patent claims by reason of the lawful entry into, or lawful transit across, the United Kingdom, and provides that the section applies to aircraft registered in any country or territory in the case of which there is in force a declaration made by Order in Council that the benefits of those provisions of the Chicago Convention of 1944 to which the section relates apply to that country or territory, and to such other aircraft as may be specified by Order in Council.

This Order revokes the Aircraft (Exemption from Seizure on Patent Claims) Order, 1964 and re-enacts it, with the addition of the following to the list of countries entitled to the benefits of those provisions: Cameroun Malta, G.C. Central African Republic Mauritania Chad Nepal Dahomey Niger Gabon Rumania Guinea Senegal Ivory Coast Tanzania Kenya Upper Volta Malagasy Republic Zambia

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PART IV Subsidiary Legislation under the Colonial Air Navigation

Order, 1961 (S.I. 1961/2316)

AIR NAVIGATION (CLOSURE OF AERODROMES) REGULATIONS

(ARTICLE 57) [Commencement 23rd November, 1963]

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Air Navigation (Closure of Aerodromes) Regulations.

2. In these Regulations “closed aerodrome” means an aerodrome closed for the taking off or landing of aircraft during the night under the provisions of these Regulations.

3. (1) No aircraft shall take off or land at any aerodrome in The Bahamas during the night except such aerodromes as have been notified as being available for the take off or landing of aircraft during the night.

(2) The Director of Civil Aviation may, if he thinks fit, grant special permission in writing for the use of any closed aerodrome for the taking off or landing of a particular aircraft on a particular occasion during the night.

(3) In the event of an emergency the pilot of any aircraft may land at a closed aerodrome during the night:

Provided that in any such case the pilot of such aircraft shall within forty-eight hours make a report in writing to the Director of Civil Aviation setting out the full reasons for the landing.

4. It shall be the duty of the owners or operators of all aerodromes in The Bahamas to take such steps as may be necessary to prohibit taking off or landing at any closed aerodrome by aircraft during the night.

5. (1) The Governor-General may, whenever he deems it necessary, for any reason affecting the public interest order that any aerodrome in The Bahamas shall, for such period as may be stated in the order, be a closed aerodrome.

G.N. 260/1963

Short title.

Interpretation.

Taking off or landing during the night.

Duty of owners.

Closed aerodromes.

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(2) No aircraft shall take off or land during the night at any aerodrome declared to be a closed aerodrome by order made under the provisions of paragraph (1) of this regulation while such order remains in force and notwith- standing that such aerodrome may previously have been notified as available for the take off or landing of aircraft during the night.

6. Any person authorised by the Director of Civil Aviation may take such steps including the placing of lighted obstructions on any closed aerodrome as may be necessary to secure compliance with the provisions of these Regulations.

AIR NAVIGATION (CUSTOMS AIRPORTS) ORDER

(ARTICLE 59(1)) [Commencement 28th April, 1956]

1. This Order may be cited as the Air Navigation (Customs Airports) Order.

2. The places set out in the Schedule to this Order are hereby designated as customs airports for the types of aircraft specified.

SCHEDULE

Abaco Airstrip, Marsh Harbour: Landplane (G.N. 29/1959).

Green Turtle Cay: Seaplane. Hope Town: Seaplane (G.N. 119/1961). Marsh Harbour: Seaplane (G.N. 293/1959). North Abaco Airstrip (Green Turtle Cay):

Landplane (G.N. 38/1963). Snake Cay: Seaplane (G.N. 293/1959.) Walker’s Cay: Seaplane. Andros Fresh Creek: Seaplane and landplane (G.N.

24/1957). San Andros Airport, Mastic Point, Andros:

Landplane (S.I. 166/1965). Berry Islands Chub Cay: Seaplane and landplane (G.N. 212/

1960).

Measures to secure compliance.

G.N. 54/1965 G.N. 63/1956 G.N. 24/1957 G.N. 58/1957 G.N. 97/1957 G.N. 201/1957 G.N. 157/1958 G.N. 29/1959 G.N. 91/1959 G.N. 227/1959 G.N. 293/1959 G.N. 212/1960 G.N. 119/1961 G.N. 38/1963 S.I. 97/1965 S.I. 166/1965

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Bimini Airport, South Bimini: Landplane (G.N. 97/ 1957).

Bimini: Seaplane Cat Cay: Seaplane Eleuthera Governor’s H Rock Sound: Seaplane and landplane. Grand Bahama Freeport: Seaplane and landplane (G.N. 227/

1959). Gold Rock Creek: Seaplane and landplane. Riding Point: Seaplane (G.N. 58/1957). West End: Seaplane and landplane. Harbour Island Harbour Island: Seaplane. Inagua Matthew Town: Seaplane and land-

plane. Mayaguana Abraham’s Bay: Seaplane and landplane. New Providence Lynden Pindling International Airport situate

at Wind-sor Field: Landplane. (G.N. 201/1957).

Port of Nassau: Seaplane. San Salvador Cockburn Town: Seaplane and landplane.

ARTHUR’S TOWN, CAT ISLAND, NOTICE

(ARTICLE 60) [Commencement 24th December, 1980]

The Governor-General has given notice that that portion of Arthur’s Town, situate in Cat Island, in the Commonwealth of The Bahamas and known as Arthur’s Town Airport is a Government aerodrome available for take-off and landing by aircraft engaged on flights for the purpose of the public transport of passengers or for instruction in flying.

S.I. 79/1980

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LANDING AND PARKING FEES (WEST END AIRPORT) REGULATIONS

(ARTICLE 62(1)) [Commencement 4th September, 1965]

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Landing and Parking Fees (West End Airport) Regulations and shall apply to the West End Airport only.

2. Subject to the provisions of regulation 3 of these Regulations it shall be lawful for the owner or lessee as the case may be of the West End Airport (hereinafter called the “airport”) to charge demand and receive landing fees for the operation of aircraft at the airport according to the rates set out in Schedules I and II to these Regulations.

3. No landing fee shall be charged in respect of — (a) a flight originating at the airport of not more

than 10 miles radius of the airport if such flight is undertaken solely for the purpose of testing the aircraft, its engines, equipment or instruments and if reasonable notice of the intended test flight is given;

(b) privately owned aircraft; (c) aircraft of the armed forces of the British

Commonwealth of Nations or the United States of America;

(d) aircraft operated by the Nassau Flying Club; (e) aircraft chartered for search or rescue purposes. 4. It shall be lawful for the owner or lessee as the

case may be of the airport to charge demand and receive tie down fees for aircraft using the airport according to the rates set out in Schedule III to these Regulations.

S.I. 163/1965 5 of 1987

Citation.

Landing fees.

Where landing fee not to be charged.

Tie down fees.

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SCHEDULE III

TIE DOWN FEES

Daily Fee Monthly Fee For single Engine Aircraft $2.10 $21.00 Light Twin Engine Aircraft $2.80 $35.00 Heavy Twin Engine Aircraft

(i.e. Over 12,500 lbs.) (and less than 30,000 lbs.) $4.20 $49.00

Aircraft of 30,000 and over 19c. per 1,000 of maximum gross weight.

Not exceeding 20 times the daily rate.

5 of 1987. s. 2.

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LANDING FEES (GRAND BAHAMA INTERNATIONAL AIRPORT) REGULATIONS

(ARTICLE 62(1)) [Commencement 17th November, 1966]

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Landing Fees (Grand Bahama International Airport) Regulations, and shall apply only to Grand Bahama International Airport.

2. In these Regulations unless the context otherwise requires —

“Airport” means the Grand Bahama International Airport;

“Airport Company” means the Grand Bahama Air- port Company Limited or any other authority which is for the time being the owner or lessee of the Airport;

“private aircraft” means an aircraft registered in the name of an individual as the owner and which is not used for commercial purposes.

3. Subject to the provisions of regulation 4 of these Regulations, the Airport Company may charge, demand and receive landing fees for the operation of aircraft at the Airport according to the rates set out in the First and Second Schedules to these Regulations:

Provided that landing fees may be remitted in particular cases when the Airport Company considers that such remission is in the public interest.

4. (1) No fee shall be charged in respect of — (a) aircraft engaged in search or rescue operations; (b) private aircraft of an all up weight less than six

thousand pounds; (c) training flights carried out within a radius of

twenty miles of the Airport; (d) aircraft belong to the Armed Forces or Govern-

ments of any country of the British Common- wealth or of the United States of America; and

S.I. 87/1966 S.I. 37/2000

Title and application. S.I. 37/2000.

Interpretation.

S.I. 37/2000.

Landing fees authorised to be charged.

Exemptions and reductions.

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(e) flights from the Airport, undertaken solely for the purpose of testing the aircraft or aircraft equipment and carried out within a radius of ten miles of the airport, and of which prior notice is given to the Control Tower.

(2) Private aircraft of an all up weight of six thousand pounds and over shall be charged landing fees at one half of the rate otherwise applicable under the First or Second Schedule, as the case may be.

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AIR NAVIGATION (MAINTENANCE ENGINEERS’ LICENCES) REGULATIONS

(ARTICLE 64) [Commencement 31st December, 1950]

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Air Navigation (Maintenance Engineers’ Licences) Regula- tions.

2. Application for the grant or renewal of a licence to act in the capacity of aircraft maintenance engineer, or for the extension of a rating included in such a licence, should be made to the Director of Civil Aviation on a form which will be supplied by him on request.

3. (1) An applicant for the grant of an aircraft maintenance engineer’s licence must not be less than twenty-one years of age.

(2) The period for which a licence may remain in force, following either the grant or any renewal thereof, shall not exceed twelve months.

4. The requirements to be satisfied for the grant or renewal of a licence or for the extension of a rating are specified in “Section L1 — licensing” of “British Civil Airworthiness Requirements” published by the Air Regis- tration Board.

5. The categories of certification and duties of certification in respect of which licences may be granted shall be as follows: CATEGORY A (applicable to aircraft, excluding en- gines) — (i) certification as to fitness for flight of an aircraft

for which a certificate of airworthiness is about to be issued;

(ii) certification as to the safety for flight of public transport aircraft;

(iii) certification of work done under approved maintenance schedules;

(iv) certification of repairs approved as minor repairs;

G.N. 124/1950 G.N. 215/1950

Title.

Application for licence.

Age of applicant and period of licence.

Requirements for grant, etc., of licence.

Privileges attaching to licence.

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(v) certification of modifications approved as minor modifications;

(vi) certification of replacement of approved components and parts.

CATEGORY B (applicable to aircraft, excluding en- gines) — (i) certification of aircraft after overhaul, including

the engine installation, except that the overhaul, repair or modification of the instruments, auto- matic pilots, variable-pitch propellers, or elec- trical equipment shall have been previously certified by a firm approved for the purpose or by an aircraft maintenance engineer licensed for the purpose in Category X;

(ii) certification of approved repairs; (iii) certification of approved modifications; (iv) certification of the replacement of approved

components and parts; (v) certification of the construction of components

and parts and the materials used therefor, unless it is stated in the licence that this duty is excluded.

CATEGORY C (applicable to engines) — (i) certification as to fitness for flight of the engines

in an aircraft for which a certificate of air- worthiness is about to be issued;

(ii) certification as to the safety for flight of engines in public transport aircraft;

(iii) certification of work done under approved maintenance schedules;

(iv) certification of the embodiment of approved modifications and the replacement of approved components and parts, provided that the work has not involved dismantling the engine other than to obtain access to the pistons, cylinders and valve operating gear.

CATEGORY D (applicable to engines only) — (i) certification of engines after overhaul, except

that the overhaul, repair or modification of magnetos and other ignition equipment shall have been previously certified by a firm ap- proved for the purpose or by an aircraft maintenance engineer licensed for the purpose in Category X;

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(ii) certification of approved repairs; (iii) certification of approved modifications; (iv) certification of the replacement of approved

components and parts; (v) certification of the construction of components

and parts and the materials used therefor, unless it is stated in the licence that this duty is excluded.

CATEGORY X — (i) certification of the installation and the compen-

sation of compasses; (ii) certification of overhauls, repairs, modifications

or replacements to magnetos and other ignition equipment;

(iii) certification of overhauls, repairs, modifications or replacements to and installation of — (a) variable-pitch propellers; (b) aircraft instruments and engine instru-

ments; (c) electrical equipment; (d) automatic pilots.

AIR NAVIGATION (CUSTOMS SUFFERANCE AIRPORTS) ORDER

(ARTICLE 67(1)) [Commencement 25 May, 1963.]

1. This Order may be cited as the Air Navigation (Customs Sufferance Airports) Order.

2. The place set out in the Schedule to this Order is hereby designated a customs airport for the type of aircraft specified subject to such restrictions as are specified thereunder in the said Schedule.

G.N. 116/1963

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SCHEDULE

SPANISH CAY, ABACO RESTRICTIONS

(a) Only landplanes chartered by the owner of Spanish Cay shall use the airport.

(b) The number of landings shall be limited to twelve per year. (c) One week’s notice shall be given to the Customs Department. (d) Transportation of the Commissioner, Green Turtle Cay,

Abaco, shall be provided by the said owner of Spanish Cay.

AIR NAVIGATION (MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS) REGULATIONS

(ARTICLE 77) [Commencement 19th June, 1965]

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Air Navigation (Miscellaneous Provisions) Regulations.

2. In these Regulations, unless the context otherwise requires —

“foreign port” means any airport or point of departure outside the Bahama Islands;

“public transport aircraft” means a public transport aircraft as defined by the Air Navigation (General) Regulations;

“radio” means radio as defined by the Air Navigation (General) Regulations;

“seaplane” means an aircraft which is capable of landing on or taking off from water only.

3. Save as hereinafter provided by regulations 8 of these Regulations all aircraft arriving at the Island of New Providence for the purpose of landing on that Island shall land at the Lynden Pindling International Airport.

4. (1) Except in the event of an emergency, an aircraft shall be flown into the traffic circuit of the Lynden Pindling International Airport only for the purpose of landing at the Lynden Pindling International Airport; and such aircraft shall be flown into the traffic circuit of the Lynden Pindling International Airport only in accordance with instructions communicated to such aircraft by radio

S.I. 120/1965 S.I. 71/1976 S.I. 58/1981 S.I. 28/2006

Title.

Interpretation.

Flights in New Providence.

Traffic circuit.

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from the control tower at the Lynden Pindling International Airport.

(2) Immediately after taking off from the Lynden Pindling International Airport an aircraft must be flown out of the traffic circuit of the Lynden Pindling International Airport in accordance with the instructions communicated to the aircraft by radio from the control tower at the Lynden Pindling International Airport.

5. (1) Before a public transport aircraft takes off from the Lynden Pindling International Airport, the pilot in charge of such aircraft, or a member of the flight crew, shall submit a flight plan to the Air Traffic Control at the Lynden Pindling International Airport for approval by that Control.

(2) Before an aircraft, which is not a public transport aircraft, takes off from the Lynden Pindling International Airport, the pilot in charge of such aircraft shall submit, cause to be submitted, communicate or cause to be communicated, a flight plan to the Air Traffic Control at the Lynden Pindling International Airport for approval by that Control.

6. The pilot in charge of every seaplane intending to begin a flight for a distance of more than twenty nautical miles from water in or surrounding the Island of New Providence shall submit, cause to be submitted, commu- nicate or cause to be communicated, a flight plan to the Air Traffic Control at the Lynden Pindling International Airport for approval by that Control:

Provided that if such seaplane makes an intermediate landing or intermediate landings upon water in or surrounding the Island of New Providence in the course of such flight, a new flight shall not be deemed to begin when the seaplane takes off after any such intermediate landing.

7. (1) Before an aircraft takes off from Oakes Field for a flight exceeding twenty nautical miles the pilot in charge of such aircraft shall submit a flight plan to the Air Traffic Control at the Lynden Pindling International Airport for approval by that Control.

(2) On arrival at his destination the pilot shall close the flight plan if communication between his destination and New Providence is possible and available to him.

Flight plan to be submitted for public transport aircraft.

Flight plan to be submitted for a seaplane.

Flight plans to be submitted.

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AIR NAVIGATION (GENERAL) REGULATIONS (ARTICLE 77) [Commencement 1st January, 1965]

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Air Navigation (General) Regulations.

2. (1) In these Regulations “the Order” means the Colonial Air Navigation Order, 1961.

(2) Expressions used in these Regulations shall, unless the context otherwise requires, have the same respective meanings as in the Order.

(3) The Interpretation Act shall apply to these Regulations as it applies to an Act of Parliament.

3. (1) Every load sheet required by Article 23(4) of the Order shall contain the following particulars —

(a) the nationality mark of the aircraft to which the load sheet relates, and the registration mark assigned to that aircraft by the Governor- General;

(b) particulars of the flight to which the load sheet relates;

(c) the total weight of the aircraft as loaded for that flight;

(d) the weights of the several items from which the total weight of the aircraft, as so loaded, has been calculated including in particular the weight of the aircraft prepared for service and the respective total weights of the passengers, crew, baggage and cargo intended to be carded on the flight;

(e) the manner in which the load is distributed and the resulting position of the centre of gravity of the aircraft which may be given approximately if and to the extent that the relevant certificate of airworthiness so permits,

and shall include at the foot or end of the load sheet a certificate, signed by the person referred to in Article 23(1) of the Order as responsible for the loading of the aircraft, that the aircraft has been loaded in accordance with the written instructions furnished to him by the operator of the aircraft pursuant to the said Article 23.

G.N. 21/1965

Citation.

Interpretation.

Ch. 2.

Load sheets.

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(2) For the purpose of calculating the total weight of the aircraft the respective total weights of the passengers and crew entered in the load sheet shall be computed from the actual weight of each person and for that purpose each person shall be separately weighed:

Provided that in the case of an aircraft with a total seating capacity of twelve or more persons and subject to the provisions of paragraph (3) of this regulation the said weights may be calculated according to the following table, and the load sheet shall bear a notation to that effect.

TABLE Males over 12 years of age .................................... 165 lbs. Females over 12 years of age .......................... 143 lbs. Children aged 2 years or more, but not over 12 years of age .................................................

85 lbs.

Infants under 2 years of age ............................ 17 lbs. (3) The commander of the aircraft shall, if in his

opinion it is necessary to do so in the interests of the safety of the aircraft, require any or all of the passengers and crew to be actually weighed for the purpose of the entry to be made in the load sheet.

4. (1) In this regulation, unless the context otherwise requires —

“approach to landing” means that portion of the flight of the aircraft in which it is descending below a height of 1,000 feet above the critical height of the relevant minimum for landing;

“cloud ceiling” in relation to an aerodrome means the vertical distance from the elevation of the aerodrome to the lowest part of any cloud visible from the aerodrome which is sufficient to obscure more than one-half of the sky so visible;

“critical height” means the minimum height above the elevation of the aerodrome to which an approach to landing can safely be continued without visual reference to the ground;

Minimum weather conditions for take-off, etc., by public transport aircraft.

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“minimum weather conditions” in relation to an aerodrome means the cloud ceiling and runway visual range for take-off and the critical height and runway visual range for landing below which the aircraft cannot safely take-off or land (as the case may be) at that aerodrome, and the expression “relevant minimum” shall be con- strued accordingly;

“runway visual range” in relation to a runway or landing strip means the maximum distance in the direction of take-off or landing, as the case may be, at which the runway or landing strip or the markers or lights delineating it can be seen from a point fifteen feet above its centre line; and in the case of an aerodrome in The Bahamas the distance, if any, communicated to the comman- der of the aircraft by or on behalf of the person in charge of the aerodrome as being the runway visual range shall be taken to be the runway visual range for the time being;

“specified” in relation to an aircraft means specified in or ascertainable by reference to the operations manual relating to that aircraft.

(2) In compliance with Article 21(2) of the Order and paragraph (xii) of Part A of the Tenth Schedule thereto, the operator of every aircraft to which that Article applies shall establish and include in the operations manual relating to the aircraft, particulars of minimum weather conditions appropriate to every aerodrome of intended departure or landing and every alternate aerodrome:

Provided that, in respect of aerodromes to be used only on a flight which is not a scheduled journey or any part thereof it shall be sufficient to include in the operations manual data and instructions by means of which the appropriate minimum weather conditions can be calculated by the commander of the aircraft.

(3) The minimum weather conditions specified shall not, in respect of any aerodrome, be less favourable than any declared in respect of that aerodrome by the competent authority, unless that authority otherwise permits in writing.

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(4) In establishing minimum weather conditions for the purpose of this regulation the operator of the aircraft shall take into account the following matters —

(a) the type and performance and handling char- acteristics of the aircraft and any relevant conditions in its certificate of airworthiness;

(b) the composition of its crew; (c) the physical characteristics of the relevant aero-

drome and its surroundings; (d) the dimensions of the runways which may be

selected for use; (e) whether or not there are in use at the relevant

aerodrome any aids, visual or otherwise, to assist aircraft in approach, landing or take-off, being aids which the crew of the aircraft are trained and equipped to use; the nature of any such aids that are in use; and the procedures for approach, landing and take-off which may be adopted according to the existence or absence of such aids,

and shall establish in relation to each runway which may be selected for use minimum weather conditions appro- priate to each set of circumstances which can reasonably be expected.

(5) With reference to Article 24(2) of the Order, an aircraft shall not commence a flight at a time when —

(a) the cloud ceiling or the runway visual range at the aerodrome of departure is less than the minimum respectively specified for take-off; or

(b) according to the information available to the commander of the aircraft it would not be able, without contravening paragraph (6) of this regulation, to commence or continue an ap- proach to landing at the aerodrome of intended destination at the estimated time of arrival there and at any alternate aerodrome at any time at which according to a reasonable estimate the aircraft would arrive there.

(6) With reference to Article 24(3) of the Order, an aircraft shall not —

(a) commence or continue an approach to landing at any aerodrome if the runway visual range at that

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aerodrome, established or determined as afore- said, is at the time less than the relevant minimum for landing; or

(b) continue an approach to landing at any aero- drome by flying below the critical height of the relevant minimum for landing if from that height the approach to landing cannot be completed entirely by visual reference to the ground.

(7) If according to the information available an aircraft would as regards any flight be required by the Rules of the Air and Air Traffic Control to be flown in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules at the aerodrome of intended landing, the commander of the aircraft shall select prior to take-off an alternate aero- drome unless no aerodrome suitable for that purpose is available.

5. (1) The assessment of the ability of an aeroplane to comply with the requirements of regulations 6 to 9 inclusive (relating to weight and performance) shall be based on the specified information as to its performance:

Provided that, if, in the case of an aeroplane in respect of which there is in force under the Order a certificate of airworthiness which does not include a performance group classification, the assessment may be based on the best information available to the commander of the aircraft in so far as the relevant information is not specified.

(2) In assessing the ability of an aeroplane to comply with condition (7) in the Schedule hereto, conditions (d) and (e) of regulation 7, and conditions (b)(i)(b) and (b)(ii) of regulation 9, account may be taken of any reduction of the weight of the aeroplane which may be achieved after the failure of a power unit by such jettisoning of fuel as is feasible and prudent in the circumstances of the flight and in accordance with the flight manual included in the certificate of airworthiness relating to the aircraft.

(3) In regulations 5 to 9 inclusive, and in the Schedule hereto, unless the context otherwise requires —

“specified” in relation to an aircraft means specified in, or ascertainable by reference to — (a) the certificate of airworthiness in force

under the Order in respect of that aircraft; or

Weight and performance: general provisions.

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(b) the flight manual or performance schedule included in that certificate;

“the emergency distance available” means the dis- tance from the point on the surface of the aerodrome at which the aeroplane can com- mence its take-off run to the nearest point in the direction of take-off at which the aeroplane cannot roll over the surface of the aerodrome and be brought to rest in an emergency without risk of accident;

“the landing distance available” means the distance from the point on the surface of the aerodrome above which the aeroplane can commence its landing, having regard to the obstructions in its approach path, to the nearest point in the direction of landing at which the surface of the aerodrome is incapable of bearing the weight of the aeroplane under normal operating conditions or at which there is an obstacle capable of affecting the safety of the aeroplane;

“the take-off distance available” means either the distance from the point on the surface of the aerodrome at which the aeroplane can com- mence its take-off run to the nearest obstacle in the direction of take-off projecting above the surface of the aerodrome and capable of affect- ing the safety of the aeroplane or one and one- half times the take-off run available, whichever is the less;

“the take-off run available” means the distance from the point on the surface of the aerodrome at which the aeroplane can commence its take-off run to the nearest point in the direction of take- off at which the surface of the aerodrome is incapable of bearing the weight of the aeroplane under normal operating conditions.

(4) For the purposes of regulations 5 to 9 inclusive. and of the Schedule hereto —

(a) the weight of the aeroplane at the commence- ment of the take-off run shall be taken to be its gross weight including everything and everyone carried in or on it at the commencement of the take-off run;

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(b) the landing weight of the aeroplane shall be taken to be the weight of the aeroplane at the estimated time of landing allowing for the weight of the fuel and oil expected to be used on the flight to the aerodrome at which it is intended to land or alternate aerodrome, as the case may be;

(c) where any distance referred to in paragraph (3) of this regulation has been declared in respect of any aerodrome by the authority responsible for regulating air navigation over the territory of the Contracting State in which the aerodrome is situate, and in the case of an aerodrome in The Bahamas, notified, that distance shall be deemed to be the relevant distance.

(5) Nothing in regulations 5 to 9 inclusive shall apply to any aircraft flying solely for the purpose of training persons to perform duties in aircraft.

6. With reference to Article 24(1) of the Order, an aeroplane registered in The Bahamas in respect of which there is in force under the Order a certificate of air- worthiness which does not include a performance group classification shall not fly for the purpose of public transport, except for the sole purpose of training persons to perform duties in aircraft, unless the weight of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take-off run is such that the conditions in the Schedule hereto as apply to that aircraft are satisfied.

7. With reference to Article 24(1) of the Order an aeroplane registered in The Bahamas in respect of which there is in force under the Order a certificate of air- worthiness in which the aeroplane is designated as being of performance group A shall not fly for the purpose of public transport, except for the sole purpose of training persons to perform duties in aircraft, unless the weight of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take-off run is such that the following conditions are satisfied:

(a) That weight does not exceed the maximum take- off weight for altitude and temperature specified for the altitude and the air temperature at the aerodrome at which the take-off is to be made.

Public transport aeroplanes of no performance group.

Schedule.

Public transport aeroplanes in performance group A.

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(b) The take-off run, take-off distance and the emergency distance respectively required for take-off, specified as being appropriate to —

(i) the weight of the aeroplane at the com- mencement of the take-off run;

(ii) the attitude at the aerodrome; (iii) the air temperature at the aerodrome; (iv) the slope of the surface of the aerodrome in

the direction of take-off over the take-off run available, the take-off distance available and the emergency distance available, re- spectively; and

(v) not more than 50 per centum of the reported wind component opposite to the direction of take-off or not less than 150 per centum of the reported wind component in the direction of take-off,

do not exceed the take-off run, the take-off distance and the emergency distance available, respectively, at the aerodrome at which the take- off is to be made; in ascertaining the emergency distance required, the point at which the pilot is assumed to decide to discontinue the take-off shall not be nearer to the start of the take-off run than the point at which, in ascertaining the take- off run required and the take-off distance required, he is assumed to decide to continue the take-off, in the event of power unit failure.

(c) (i) The net take-off flight path with one power unit inoperative, specified as being appropriate to — (a) the weight of the aeroplane at the

commencement of the take-off run; (b) the altitude at the aerodrome; (c) the air temperature at the aerodrome;

and (d) not more than 50 per centum of the

reported wind component opposite to the direction of take-off or not less than 150 per centum of the reported wind component in the direction of take-off,

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and plotted from a point 35 feet or 50 feet, as appropriate, above the end of the take-off distance required at the aerodrome at which the take-off is to be made to a height of 1,500 feet above the aerodrome, shows that the aeroplane will clear any obstacle in its path by a vertical interval of at least 35 feet, except that if it is intended that the aeroplane shall change its direction of flight by more than 15 degrees the vertical interval shall not be less than 50 feet during the change of direction.

(ii) For the purpose of subparagraph (i) hereof an obstacle shall be deemed to be in the path of the aeroplane if the distance from the obstacle to the nearest point on the ground below the intended line of flight of the aeroplane does not exceed — (a) a distance of 200 feet plus half the

wind span of the aeroplane plus one- eighth of the distance from such point to the end of the take-off distance available measured along the intended line of flight of the aeroplane; or

(b) 5,000 feet, whichever is less.

(iii) In assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this condition, it shall not be assumed to make a change of direction of a radius less than the radius of steady turn specified.

(d) The aeroplane will, in the meteorological condi- tions expected for the flights, in the event of any one power unit becoming inoperative at any point on its route or on any planned diversion therefrom and with the other power units or unit operating within the maximum continuous power con- ditions specified, be capable of continuing the flight, clearing by a vertical interval of at least 2,000 feet obstacles within 5 nautical miles either side of the intended track, to an aerodrome at which it can comply with condition (g) in this regulation relating to an alternate aerodrome, and on arrival over such aerodrome

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the gradient of the specified net flight path with one power unit inoperative shall not be less than zero at 1,500 feet above the aerodrome; and in assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this condition it shall not be assumed to be capable of flying at an altitude exceeding the specified maximum permissible altitude for power unit restarting.

(e) The aeroplane will, in the meteorological condi- tions expected for the flight, in the event of any two power units becoming inoperative at any point along the route or on any planned diversion therefrom more than 90 minutes flying time in still air (assuming all power units operating at economical cruising speed) from the nearest aerodrome at which it can comply with condition (g) in this regulation, relating to an alternate aerodrome, be capable of continuing the flight with all other units operating within the specified maximum continuous power condi- tions, clearing by a vertical interval of at least 2,000 feet obstacles within 5 nautical miles either side of the intended track to such an aerodrome, and on arrival over such aerodrome the gradient of the specified net flight path with two power units inoperative shall not be less than zero at 1,500 feet above the aerodrome; and in assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this condition it shall not be assumed to be capable of flying at an altitude exceeding the specified maximum permissible altitude for power unit restarting.

(f) The landing weight of the aeroplane will not exceed the maximum landing weight specified for the altitude and the expected air temperature for the estimated time of landing at the aerodrome at which it is intended to land and at any alternate aerodrome.

(g) (i) The landing distances required, respectively specified as being appropriate to aero- dromes of destination and alternate aero- dromes, do not exceed at the aerodrome at which it is intended to land or at any alternate aerodrome, as the case may be, the landing distance available on —

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(a) the most suitable runway for a landing in still air conditions; and

(b) the runway that may be required for landing because of the forecast wind conditions: Provided that if an alternate aero-

drome is designated in the flight plan, the specified landing distance required may be that appropriate to an alternate aerodrome when assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this condition at the aerodrome of destination in respect of the runway that may be required for landing because of the forecast wind conditions.

(ii) For the purposes of subparagraph (i) hereof the landing distance required shall be that specified as being appropriate to — (a) the landing weight; (b) the altitude of the aerodrome; (c) the temperature in the specified inter-

national standard atmosphere appro- priate to the altitude at the aerodrome;

(d) (i) a level surface in the case of run- ways usable in both directions;

(ii) the average slope of the runway in the case of runways usable in only one direction; and

(e) (i) still air conditions in the case of the most suitable runway for a landing in still air conditions;

(ii) not more than 50 per centum of the forecast wind component opposite to the direction of landing or not less than 150 per centum of the forecast wind component in the direction of landing in the case of the runway that may be required for landing because of the forecast wind conditions.

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8. (1) With reference to Article 24(1) of the Order an aeroplane registered in The Bahamas in respect of which there is in force under the Order a certificate of air- worthiness in which the aeroplane is designated as being of performance group C or of performance group D shall not fly for the purpose of public transport, except for the sole purpose of training persons to perform duties in aircraft, unless the weight of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take-off run is such that the following conditions are satisfied:

(a) That weight does not exceed the maximum take- off weight specified for the altitude and the air temperature at the aerodrome at which the take- off is to be made.

(b) The take-off run required and the take-off distance required, specified as being appropriate to —

(i) the weight of the aeroplane at the com- mencement of the take-off run;

(ii) the altitude at the aerodrome; (iii) the air temperature at the aerodrome; (iv) the average slope of the surface of the

aerodrome in the direction of take-off over the emergency distance available;

(v) not more than 50 per centum of the reported wind component opposite to the direction of take-off or not less than 150 per centum of the reported wind component in the direction of take-off,

do not exceed the take-off run available and the emergency distance available, respectively, at the aerodrome at which the take-off is to be made.

(c) The net take-off flight path with all power units operating, specified as being appropriate to —

(i) the weight of the aeroplane at the com- mencement of the take-off run;

(ii) the altitude at the aerodrome; (iii) the air temperature at the aerodrome; (iv) not more than 50 per centum of the reported

wind component opposite to the direction of take-off or not less than 150 per centum of the reported wind component in the direction of take-off,

Public transport aeroplanes in performance group C or D.

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and plotted from a point 50 feet above the end of the take-off distance required at the aerodrome at which the take-off is to be made to the point at which the aeroplane reaches the minimum altitude for safe flight on the first stage of the route to be flown stated in or calculated from the information contained in the operations manual relating to the aircraft, shows that the aeroplane will clear by a safe margin any obstacle the distance from which to the nearest point on the ground below the intended line of flight of the aeroplane does not exceed 200 feet plus half the wing span of the aeroplane. In assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this condition it shall not be assumed to make a change of direction of a radius less than the specified radius of steady turn.

(d) The aeroplane will, if it is designated in its certificate of airworthiness as an aeroplane of performance group C and if it is necessary for it to be flown solely by reference to instruments for any period before reaching the minimum altitude for safe flight on the first stage of the route to be flown, stated in, or calculated from the information contained in, the operations manual, during such period also satisfy condition (c) in regulation 7.

(e) The aeroplane will, in the meteorological condi- tions expected for the flight, in the event of any one power unit becoming inoperative at any point on its route or on any planned diversion therefrom, and with the other power units or power unit, if any, operating within the specified maximum continuous power conditions —

(i) in the case of an aeroplane designated as an aeroplane of performance group C, be capable of continuing the flight at altitudes not less than the relevant minimum altitudes for safe flight stated in, or calculated from the information contained in, the operations manual to a point 1,500 feet above an aerodrome at which a safe landing can be made and after arrival at that point be capable of maintaining that height;

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(ii) in the case of an aeroplane designated as an aeroplane of performance group D, be capable of continuing the flight to a point 1,000 feet above a place at which a safe landing can be made: Provided that in assessing the ability of the

aeroplane to satisfy this condition it shall not be assumed to be capable of flying at any point on its route at an altitude exceeding the perfor- mance ceiling with all power units operating specified as being appropriate to its estimated weight at that point.

(f) The landing weight of the aeroplane will not exceed the maximum landing weight specified for the altitude and the expected air temperature for the estimated time of landing at the aerodrome at which it is intended to land and at any alternate aerodrome.

(g) The distance required by the aeroplane to land from a height of 50 feet does not, at the aerodrome at which it is intended to land and at any alternate aerodrome, exceed 70 per centum of the landing distance available on the most suitable runway for a landing in still air conditions, or on the runway that may be required for the landing because of the forecast wind conditions, and for the purposes of this subparagraph the distance required to land from a height of 50 feet shall be taken to be that specified as being appropriate to —

(i) the landing weight; (ii) the altitude at the aerodrome; (iii) the expected air temperature for the esti-

mated time of landing at the aerodrome; (iv) (a) a level surface in the case of runways

usable in both directions; (b) the average slope of the runway in

the case of runways usable in only one direction; and

(v) (a) still air conditions in the case of the most suitable runway for a landing in still air conditions;

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(b) not more than 50 per centum of the forecast wind component opposite to the direction of landing or not less than 150 per centum of the forecast wind component in the direction of landing in the case of the runway that may be required for landing because of the forecast wind conditions.

(2) An aeroplane designated as aforesaid as an aeroplane of performance group D shall not fly for the purpose of public transport (except for the sole purpose of training persons to perform duties in aircraft) at night or when the cloud ceiling or visibility prevailing at the aerodrome of departure and forecast for the estimated time of landing at the aerodrome at which it is intended to land and at any alternate aerodrome are less than 1,000 feet and one mile respectively.

9. With reference to Article 24(1) of the Order an aeroplane in respect of which there is in force under the Order a certificate of airworthiness designating the aero- plane as being of performance group X shall not fly for the purpose of public transport, except for the sole purpose of training persons to perform duties in aircraft, unless the weight of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take- off run is such that the following conditions are satisfied —

(a) (i) That weight does not exceed the maximum take-off weight specified for the altitude at the aerodrome at which the take-off is to be made, or for the altitude and the air temperature at such aerodrome, as the case may be.

(ii) The minimum effective take-off runlength required, specified as being appropriate to — (a) the weight of the aeroplane at the

commencement of the take-off run; (b) the attitude at the aerodrome; (c) the air temperature at the time of

take-off; (d) the overall slope of the take-off run

available; and

Public transport aeroplanes in performance group X.

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(e) not more than 50 per centum of the reported wind component opposite to the direction of take-off or not less than 150 per centum of the reported wind component in the direction of take-off,

does not exceed the take-off run available at the aerodrome at which the take-off is to be made.

(iii) (a) The take-off flight path with one power unit inoperative, specified as being appropriate to — (i) the weight of the aeroplane at the

commencement of the take-off run; (ii) the altitude at the aerodrome; and

(iii) not more than 50 per centum of the reported wind component opposite to the direction of take-off or not less than 150 per centum of the reported wind component in the direction of take-off,

and plotted from a point 50 feet above the end of the minimum effective take- off runway length required at the aerodrome at which the take-off is to be made, shows that the aeroplane will thereafter clear any obstacle in its path by a vertical interval of not less than the greater of 50 feet or 35 feet plus one hundredth of the distance from the point on the ground below the intended line of flight of the aeroplane nearest to the obstacle to the end of the take-off distance available, measured along the intended line of flight of the aeroplane.

(b) For the purpose of subparagraph (a), an obstacle shall be deemed to be in the path of the aeroplane if the distance from the obstacle to the nearest point on the ground below the intended line of flight does not exceed —

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(i) a distance of 200 feet plus half the wing span of the aeroplane plus one- eighth of the distance from such point to the end of the take-off distance available measured along the intended line of flight; or

(ii) 5,000 feet, whichever is the less.

(c) In assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this condition, insofar as it relates to flight path, it shall not be assumed to make a change of direction of a radius less than the radius of steady turn corresponding to an angle of bank of 15 degrees.

(b) (i) (a) Subject to subparagraph (b), the weight of the aeroplane at any point on the route or any planned diversion therefrom, having regard to the fuel and oil expected to be consumed up to that point, shall be such that the aeroplane, with one power unit inoperative and the other power unit or units operating within the maximum continuous power conditions specified, will be capable of a rate of climb of at least K(Vso/100)2 feet per minute at an altitude not less than the minimum altitude for safe flight stated in or calculated from the information contained in the operations manual, where Vso is in knots and K has the value of 797-1060/N, N being the number of power units installed

(b) As an alternative to (a), the aeroplane may be flown at an altitude from which, in the event of failure of one power unit, it is capable of reaching an aerodrome where a landing can be made in accordance with condition (c) (ii) in this regulation relating to an alternate aero- drome. In that case, the weight of the aeroplane shall be such that, with the remaining power unit or units operating within the maximum continuous power

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conditions specified, it is capable of main- taining a minimum altitude on the route to such aerodrome of 2,000 feet above all obstacles within five nautical miles on either side of the intended track and —

(i) the rate of climb, specified for the appropriate weight and altitude, used in calculating the flight path shall be reduced by an amount equal to K(Vso/100) 2 feet per minute;

(ii) the aeroplane shall comply with the climb requirements of condition (b)(i)(a) at 1,000 feet above the chosen aero- drome;

(iii) account shall be taken of the effect of wind and temperature on the flight path; and

(iv) the weight of the aeroplane may be assumed to be progressively reduced by normal consumption of fuel and oil.

(ii) An aeroplane having four power units shall, if any two power units become inoperative at any point along the route or any planned diversion therefrom, being a point more than 90 minutes flying time (assuming all power units to be operating) from the nearest aerodrome at which a landing can be made in compliance with condition (c)(ii) of this regulation relating to an alternate aero- drome, be capable of continuing the flight at an altitude of not less than 1,000 feet above ground level to a point above that aerodrome. In assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this condition, it shall be assumed that the remaining power units will operate within the specified maximum continuous power conditions, and account shall be taken of the temperature and wind conditions expected for the flight.

(c) (i) The landing weight of the aeroplane will not exceed the maximum landing weight speci- fied for the altitude at the aerodrome at which it is intended to land and at any alternate aerodrome.

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(ii) The required landing runway lengths respec- tively specified as being appropriate to the aerodromes of intended destination and the alternate aerodromes do not exceed at the aerodrome at which it is intended to land or at any alternate aerodrome, as the case may be, the landing distance available on — (a) the most suitable runway for a

landing in still air conditions; and (b) the runway that may be required for

landing because of the forecast wind conditions,

the required landing runway lengths being taken to be those specified as being appropriate to —

(a) the landing weight; (b) the altitude at the aerodrome; (c) still air conditions in the case of the

most suitable runway for a landing in still air conditions; and

(d) not more than 50 per centum of the forecast wind component opposite to the direction of landing or not less than 150 per centum of the forecast wind component in the direction of landing in the case of the runway that may be required for landing because of the forecast wind conditions.

10. With reference to Article 64 of the Order, the conditions under which noise and vibration may be caused by aircraft (including military aircraft) on Government aerodromes, licensed aerodromes or on aerodromes at which the manufacture, repair or maintenance of aircraft is carried out by persons carrying on business as manufacturers or repairers of aircraft, shall be as follows, that is to say, that, whether in the course of the manufac- ture of the aircraft or otherwise —

(a) the aircraft is taking off or landing; or (b) the aircraft is moving on the ground or water; or (c) the engines are being operated in the aircraft —

(i) for the purpose of ensuring their satisfac- tory performance;

Noise and vibration caused by aircraft on aerodromes.

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(ii) for the purpose of bringing them to a proper temperature in preparation for, or at the end of, a flight; or

(iii) for the purpose of ensuring that the instru- ments, accessories or other components of the aircraft are in a satisfactory condition.

SCHEDULE (Regulation 6)

WEIGHT AND PERFORMANCE OF PUBLIC TRANSPORT AEROPLANES HAVING NO PERFORMANCE GROUP CLASSIFICATION IN THEIR CERTIFICATES OF AIR-

WORTHINESS. PART I

APPLICATION OF CONDITIONS (a) Conditions (1) and (2) apply to all aeroplanes to

which regulation 6 applies. (b) Conditions (3) and (9) inclusive apply to all

aeroplanes to which regulation 6 applies — (i) of which the specified maximum total

weight authorized exceeds 12,500lbs.; or (ii) of which the specified maximum total

weight authorized does not exceed 12,500lbs. and which comply with neither condition (1)(a) nor condition (1)(b).

(c) Conditions (10) to (17) inclusive apply to all aeroplanes to which regulation 6 applies, of which the specified maximum total weight authorized does not exceed 12,500lbs., and which comply with condition (1)(a) or condition (1)(b) or with both these conditions.

PART II CONDITIONS TO WHICH REGULATION 6 RELATES

All aeroplanes (1) Either — (a) the wing loading of the aeroplane does not exceed 20 lbs.

per square foot; or (b) the stalling speed of the aeroplane in the landing

configuration does not exceed 60 knots; or

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(c) the aeroplane, with any one of its power units inoperative and the remaining power unit or units operating within the maximum continuous power conditions specified, is capable of a gradient of climb of at least 1 in 200 at an altitude of 5,000 feet in the specified international standard atmosphere. (2) The weight of the aeroplane at the commencement of

the take-off run does not exceed the maximum take-off weight, if any, specified for the altitude and the air temperature at the aerodrome at which the take-off is to be made. Aeroplanes of a specified maximum total weight authorized exceeding 12,500lbs., and aeroplanes of a specified maximum total weight authorized not exceeding 12,500lbs. which comply with neither condition (1)(a) nor condition (1)(b).

(3) (a) The distance required by the aeroplane to attain a height of 50 feet, with all power units operating within the maximum take-off power conditions specified, does not exceed the take-off run available at the aerodrome at which the take-off is to be made.

(b) The distance required by the aeroplane to attain a height of 50 feet with all power units operating within the maximum take-off power conditions specified, when multiplied by a factor of either 1.33 for aeroplanes having two power units or by a factor of 1.18 for aeroplanes having four power units, does not exceed the emergency distance available at the aerodrome at which the take-off is to be made.

(c) For the purpose of sub-paragraphs (a) and (b) the distance required by the aeroplane to attain a height of 50 feet shall be that appropriate to — (i) the weight of the aeroplane at the commencement of the

take-off run; (ii) the altitude at the aerodrome; (iii) the air temperature at the aerodrome; (iv) the slope of the surface of the aerodrome in the direction of

take-off over the take-off run available and the emergency distance available, respectively; and

(v) not more than 50 per centum of the reported wind component opposite to the direction of take-off or not less than 150 per centum of the reported wind component in the direction of take-off. (4) (a) The take-off flight path with one power unit

inoperative and the remaining power unit or units operating within the maximum take-off power conditions specified, appropriate to — (i) the weight of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take-

off run; (ii) the altitude at the aerodrome;

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(iii) the air temperature at the aerodrome; and (iv) not more than 50 per centum of the reported wind

component opposite to the direction of take-off or not less than 150 per centum of the reported wind component in the direction of take-off,

and plotted from a point 50 feet above the end of the appropriate factored distance required for take-off under condition (3)(b) of this regulation at the aerodrome at which the take-off is to be made, shows that the aeroplane will clear any obstacle in its path by a vertical interval of at least 35 feet except that if it is intended that an aeroplane shall change its direction by more than 15 degrees the vertical interval shall be not less than 50 feet during the change of direction.

(b) For the purpose of subparagraph (4)(a) an obstacle shall be deemed to be in the path of the aeroplane if the distance from the obstacle to the nearest point on the ground below the intended line of flight does not exceed — (i) a distance of 200 feet plus half the wing span of the

aeroplane plus one-eighth of the distance from such point to the end of the take-off distance available, measured along the intended line of flight; or

(ii) 5,000 feet, whichever is the less.

(c) In assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this condition, it shall not be assumed to make a change of direction of a radius less than a radius of steady turn corresponding to an angle of bank of 15 degrees.

(5) The aeroplane will, in the meteorological conditions expected for the flight, in the event of any one power unit becoming inoperative at any point on its route or on any planned diversion therefrom and with the other power units or unit operating within the maximum continuous power conditions specified, be capable of continuing the flight clearing obstacles within 10 nautical miles either side of the intended track by a vertical interval of at least — (a) 1,000 feet when the gradient of the flight path is not less

than zero; or (b) 2,000 feet when the gradient of the flight path is less than

zero, to an aerodrome at which it can comply with condition (9), and on arrival over such aerodrome the flight path shall have a positive gradient of not less than 1 in 200 at 1,500 feet above the aerodrome. (6) The aeroplane will, in the meteorological conditions

expected for the flight, at any point on its route or on any planned diversion therefrom be capable of climbing at a gradient of at least 1 in 50, with all power units operating within the maximum continuous power conditions specified, at the following altitudes —

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(a) the minimum altitudes for safe flight on each stage of the route to be flown or of any planned diversion therefrom specified in, or calculated from the information contained in the operations manual relating to the aeroplane; and

(b) the minimum altitudes necessary for compliance with condi- tions (5) and (7), as appropriate. (7) If on the route to be flown or any planned diversion

therefrom, the aeroplane will be engaged in a flight over water during which at any point it may be more than 90 minutes flying time in still air from the nearest shore, it will in the event of two power units becoming inoperative during such time and with the other power units or unit operating within the maximum continuous power conditions specified be capable of continuing the flight having regard to the meteorological conditions expected for the flight, clearing all obstacles within 10 nautical miles either side of the intended track by a vertical interval of at least 1,000 feet, to an aerodrome at which a safe landing can be made.

(8) The landing weight of the aeroplane will not exceed the maximum landing weight, if any, specified for the altitude and the expected air temperature for the estimated time of landing at the aerodrome at which it is intended to land and at any alternate aerodrome.

(9) The distance required by the aeroplane to land from a height of 50 feet does not, at the aerodrome at which it is intended to land and at any alternate aerodrome, exceed 70 per centum of the landing distance available on — (i) the most suitable runway for a landing in still air

conditions; and (ii) the runway that may be required for landing because of the

forecast wind conditions, the distance required to land from a height of 50 feet being taken to be that appropriate to — (a) the landing weight; (b) the altitude at the aerodrome; (c) the temperature in the specified international standard

atmosphere appropriate to the altitude at the aerodrome; (d) (i) a level surface in the case of runways usable in both

directions; (ii) the average slope of the runway in the case of runways

usable in one direction; and (e) (i) still air conditions in the case of the most suitable

runways for a landing in still air conditions;

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(ii) not more than 50 per centum of the forecast wind component opposite to the direction of landing or not less than 150 per centum of the forecast wind component in the direction of landing in the case of the runway that may be required for landing because of the forecast wind conditions.

Aeroplanes of specified maximum total weight authorized not exceeding 12,500lbs. and which comply with either condition (1)(a) or condition (1)(b), or with both those conditions.

(10) If the aeroplane is engaged in flight at night or when the cloud ceiling or visibility prevailing at the aerodrome of departure and forecast for the estimated time of landing at the aerodrome of destination or at any alternate aerodrome, are less than 1,000 feet and 1 mile respectively, it will, with any one of its power units inoperative and the remaining power unit or units operating within the maximum continuous power conditions specified, be capable of climbing at a gradient of at least 1 in 200 at an altitude of 2,500 feet in the specified international standard atmosphere.

(11) (a) The distance required by the aeroplane to attain a height of 50 feet with all power units operating within the maximum take-off power conditions specified, does not exceed the take-off run available at the aerodrome at which the take-off is to be made.

(b) The distance required by the aeroplane to attain a height of 50 feet, with all power units operating within the maximum take-off power conditions specified, when multiplied by a factor of 1.33 does not exceed the emergency distance available at the aerodrome at which the take-off is to be made.

(c) For the purpose of sub-paragraphs (a) and (b) the distance required by the aeroplane to attain a height of 50 feet shall be that appropriate to — (i) the weight of the aeroplane at the commencement of the

take-off run; (ii) the altitude at the aerodrome; (iii) the temperature in the specified international standard

atmosphere appropriate to the altitude at the aerodrome, or if greater, the air temperature at the aerodrome less 15 degrees centigrade;

(iv) the slope of the surface of the aerodrome in the direction of take-off over the take-off run available and the emergency distance available, respectively; and

(v) not more than 50 per centum of the reported wind component opposite to the direction of take-off or not less than 150 per centum of the reported wind component in the direction of take-off.

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(12) The take-off flight path, with all power units operating within the maximum take-off power conditions specified, appro- priate to — (i) the weight of the aeroplane at the commencement of the

take-off run; (ii) the altitude at the aerodrome; (iii) the temperature in the specified international standard

atmosphere appropriate to the altitude at the aerodrome, or, if greater, the air temperature at the aerodrome less 15 degrees centigrade; and

(iv) not more than 50 per centum of the reported wind component opposite to the direction of take-off or not less than 150 per centum of the reported wind component in the direction of take-off,

and plotted from a point 50 feet above the end of the factored distance required for take-off under condition (11)(b), at the aerodrome at which the take-off is to be made, shows that the aeroplane will clear any obstacle lying within 200 feet plus half the wing span of the aeroplane on either side of its path by a vertical interval of at least 35 feet. In assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this condition it shall not be assumed to make a change of direction of a radius less than a radius of steady turn corresponding to an angle of bank of 15 degrees.

(13) The aeroplane will, in the meteorological conditions expected for the flight, in the event of any one power unit becoming inoperative at any point on its route or on any planned diversion therefrom and with the other power unit or units, if any, operating within the maximum continuous power conditions specified, be capable of continuing the flight so as to reach a point above a place at which a safe landing can be made at a suitable height for such landing.

(14) The aeroplane will, in the meteorological conditions expected for the flight, at any point on its route or any planned diversion therefrom, be capable of climbing at a gradient of at least 1 in 50, with all power units operating within the maximum continuous power conditions specified, at the following altitudes — (a) the minimum altitudes for safe flight on each stage of the

route to be flown or on any planned diversion therefrom specified in, or calculated from, the information contained in the operations manual relating to the aeroplane; and

(b) the minimum altitudes necessary for compliance with condition (13).

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(15) If on the route to be flown or any planned diversion therefrom the aeroplane will be engaged in a flight over water during which at any point it may be more than 30 minutes flying time in still air from the nearest shore, it will, in the event of one power unit becoming inoperative during such time and with the other power unit or units operating within the maximum continuous power conditions specified, be capable of climbing at a gradient of at least 1 in 200 at an altitude of 5,000 feet in the specified international standard atmosphere.

(16) The landing weight of the aeroplane will not exceed the maximum landing weight, if any, specified for the altitude and the expected air temperature for the estimated time of landing at the aerodrome at which it is intended to land and at any alternate aerodrome.

(17) The distance required by the aeroplane to land from a height of 50 feet does not, at the aerodrome at which it is intended to land and at any alternate aerodrome, exceed 70 per centum, or, if a visual approach and landing will be possible in the meteorological conditions forecast for the estimated time of landing, 80 per centum of the landing distance available on — (i) the most suitable runway for a landing in still air

conditions; and (ii) the runway that may be required for landing because of the

forecast wind conditions, the distance required to land from a height of 50 feet being taken to be that appropriate to — (a) the landing weight; (b) the altitude at the aerodrome; (c) the temperature in the specified international standard atmo-

sphere appropriate to the altitude at the aerodrome; (d) (i) a level surface in the case of runways usable in both

directions; (ii) the average slope of the runway in the case of runways

usable in only one direction; and (e) (i) still air conditions in the case of the most suitable

runway for a landing in still air conditions; (ii) not more than 50 per centum of the forecast wind

component opposite to the direction of landing or not less than 150 per centum of the forecast wind component in the direction of landing in the case of the runway that may be required for landing because of the forecast wind condi- tions.

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PART V Subsidiary Legislation under the Carriage by Air Act,

1932 (22 & 23 Geo. 5 c. 36) of the United Kingdom.

CARRIAGE BY AIR (COLONIES, PROTECTORATES AND TRUST TERRITORIES) ORDER, 1953

S.I. 1953/1474

Made............................................…..4th October 1953 Laid before Parliament...............…...6th October 1953 Coming into Operation...............……1st January 1954

At the Court at Balmoral, the 4th day of October, 1953 Present,

The Queen’s Most Excellent Majesty in Council Whereas a convention signed at Warsaw on the 12th

day of October, 1929, is in force as regards the territories mentioned in the Second Schedule to this Order:

And Whereas it is expedient to extend the provisions of Sections 1 and 2 of the Carriage by Air Act, 1931 (a) subject to certain adaptations and modifications to such territories:

Now, therefore, Her Majesty, by virtue of and in exercise of the powers in this behalf by the Carriage by Air Act, 1932, or otherwise in Her Majesty vested, is pleased, by and with the advice of Her Privy Council, to order, and it is hereby ordered, as follows:

1. (1) This Order may be cited as The Carriage by Air (Colonies, Protectorates and Trust Territories) Order, 1953.

(2) This Order shall come into operation on the first day of January, 1954.

2. (1) In this Order, unless the context otherwise requires —

“Colony” means any one of the colonies, protecto- rates or other territories mentioned in the Second Schedule hereto;

22 & 23 Geo. 5. c. 36.

Citation and commencement.

Interpretation.

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“the Act” means the Carriage by Air Act, 1932; “the Convention” means the Convention for the

unification of certain rules relating to interna- tional carriage by air which was signed on behalf of His late Majesty King George the Fifth at Warsaw on the 12th day of October, 1929, the provisions of which are set out in the first annex to the First Schedule hereto.

(2) The Interpretation Act, 1889 (b), shall apply for the purposes of the interpretation of this Order as it applies for the purposes of the interpretation of an Act of Parliament and as if this Order were an Act of Parliament.

3. The provisions of Sections 1 and 2 of the Act subject to the adaptations and modifications as set forth in the First Schedule hereto shall be and hereby are extended to the territories mentioned in the Second Schedule hereto.

FIRST SCHEDULE (Article 3) Section 1. — (1) The provisions of the Convention as set

out in the First Annex to this Schedule shall, so far as they relate to the rights and liabilities of carriers, passengers, consignors, consignees and other persons and subject to the provisions of this section, have the force of law in the Colony in relation to any carriage by air to which the Convention applies, irrespective of the nationality of the aircraft performing that carriage.

(2) Her Majesty may by Order in Council from time to time certify who are the High Contracting Parties to the Convention, in respect of what territories they are respectively parties and to what extent they have availed themselves of the provisions of the Additional Protocol to the Convention, and any such Order shall, except in so far as it has been superseded by a subsequent Order, be conclusive evidence of the matters so certified.

(3) Any reference in the said First Annex to the territory of any High Contracting Party to the Convention shall be construed as a reference to the territories subject to his sovereignty, suzerainty, mandate or authority, in respect of which he is a party.

(4) Any liability imposed by Article 17 of the said First Annex on a carrier in respect of the death of a passenger shall be in substitution for any liability of the carrier in respect of the death of that passenger either under any enactment or at common law and the provisions set out in the Second Annex to this Schedule shall have effect with respect to the persons by and for whose benefit the liability so imposed is enforceable and with respect to the manner in which it may be enforced.

52 & 53 Vict. c. 63.

Application of sections 1 and 2 of the Act.

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(5) Any sum in francs mentioned in Article 22 of the said First Annex shall, for the purposes of any action against a carrier, be converted into sterling, or its equivalent in the local currency, at the rate of exchange prevailing on the date on which the amount of any damages to be paid by the carrier is ascertained by the court.

Section 2. — Every High Contracting Party to the Convention who has not availed himself of the provisions of the additional Protocol thereto shall, for the purposes of any action brought in a court in the Colony in accordance with the provisions of Article 28 of the said First Annex to enforce a claim in respect of carriage undertaken by him, be deemed to have submitted to the jurisdiction of that Court, and accordingly rules of court may provide for the manner in which any action is to be commenced and carried on; but nothing in this section shall authorise the issue of execution against the property of any High Contracting Party.

FIRST ANNEX CONVENTION FOR THE UNIFICATION OF CERTAIN

RULES RELATING TO INTERNATIONAL CARRIAGE BY AIR

CHAPTER I SCOPE — DEFINITIONS

1. (1) This Convention applies to all international carriage of persons, luggage or goods performed by aircraft for reward. It applies equally to gratuitous carriage by aircraft performed by an air transport undertaking.

(2) For the purposes of this Convention the expression “international carriage” means any carriage in which, according to the contract made by the parties, the place of departure and the place of destination, whether or not there be a break in the carriage or a transhipment, are situated either within the territories of two High Contracting Parties, or within the territory of a single High Contracting Party, if there is an agreed stopping place within a territory subject to the sovereignty, suzerainty, mandate or authority of another Power, even though that Power is not a party to this Convention. A carriage without such an agreed stopping place between territories subject to the sovereignty, suzerainty, mandate or authority of the same High Contracting Party is not deemed to be international for the purposes of this Convention.

(3) A carriage to be performed by several successive air carriers is deemed, for the purposes of this Convention, to be one undivided carriage, if it has been regarded by the parties as a single operation, whether it had been agreed upon under the form of a single contract or of a series of contracts, and it does not lose its international

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character merely because one contract or a series of contracts is to be performed entirely within a territory subject to the sovereignty, suzerainty, mandate or authority of the same High Contracting Party.

2. (1) This Convention applies to carriage performed by the State or by legally constituted public bodies provided it falls within the conditions laid down in Article 1.

(2) This Convention does not apply to carriage performed under the terms of any international postal Convention.

CHAPTER II DOCUMENTS OF CARRIAGE

SECTION 1 Passenger Ticket

3. (1) For the carriage of passengers the carrier must deliver a passenger ticket which shall contain the following particulars — (a) the place and date of issue; (b) the place of departure and of destination; (c) the agreed stopping places, provided that the carrier may

reserve the right to alter the stopping places in case of necessity, and that if he exercises that right the alteration shall not have the effect of depriving the carriage of its international character;

(d) the name and address of the carrier or carriers; (e) a statement that the carriage is subject to the rules relating

to liability established by this Convention. (2) The absence, irregularity or loss of the passenger

ticket does not affect the existence or the validity of the contract of carriage, which shall none the less be subject to the rules of this Convention. Nevertheless, if the carrier accepts a passenger without a passenger ticket having been delivered he shall not be entitled to avail himself of those provisions of this Convention which exclude or limit his liability.

SECTION 2 Luggage Ticket

4. (1) For the carriage of luggage, other than small personal objects of which the passenger takes charge himself, the carrier must deliver a luggage ticket.

(2) The luggage ticket shall be made out in duplicate, one part for the passenger and the other part for the carrier.

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(3) The luggage ticket shall contain the following particulars — (a) the place and date of issue; (b) the place of departure and of destination; (c) the name and address of the carrier or carriers; (d) the number of the passenger ticket; (e) a statement that delivery of the luggage will be made to the

bearer of the luggage ticket; (f) the number and weight of the packages; (g) the amount of the value declared in accordance with Article

22(2); (h) a statement that the carriage is subject to the rules relating

to liability established by this Convention. (4) The absence, irregularity or loss of the luggage ticket

does not affect the existence or the validity of the contract of carriage, which shall none the less be subject to the rules of this Convention. Nevertheless, if the carrier accepts luggage without a luggage ticket having been delivered, or if the luggage ticket does not contain the particulars set out at (d), (f) and (h) above, the carrier shall not be entitled to avail himself of those provisions of the Convention which exclude or limit his liability.

SECTION 3 Air Consignment Note

5. (1) Every carrier of goods has the right to require the consignor to make out and hand over to him a document called an “air consignment note”; every consignor has the right to require the carrier to accept this document.

(2) The absence, irregularity or loss of this document does not affect the existence or the validity of the contract of carriage which shall, subject to the provisions of Article 9, be none the less governed by the rules of this Convention.

6. (1) The air consignment note shall be made out by the consignor in three original parts and be handed over with the goods.

(2) The first part shall be marked “for the carrier”, and shall be signed by the consignor. The second part shall be marked “for the consignee”; it shall be signed by the consignor and by the carrier and shall accompany the goods. The third part shall be signed by the carrier and handed by him to the consignor after the goods have been accepted.

(3) The carrier shall sign on acceptance of the goods. (4) The signature of the carrier may be stamped; that of

the consignor may be printed or stamped.

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(5) If, at the request of the consignor, the carrier makes out the air consignment note, he shall be deemed, subject to proof to the contrary, to have done so on behalf of the consignor.

7. The carrier of goods has the right to require the consignor to make out separate consignment notes when there is more than one package.

8. The air consignment note shall contain the following particulars — (a) the place and date of its execution; (b) the place of departure and of destination; (c) the agreed stopping places, provided that the carrier may

reserve the right to alter the stopping places in case of necessity, and that if he exercises that right the alteration shall not have the effect of depriving the carriage of its international character;

(d) the name and address of the consignor; (e) the name and address of the first carrier; (f) the name and address of the consignee, if the case so

requires; (g) the nature of the goods; (h) the number of the packages, the method of packing and the

particular marks or numbers upon them; (i) the weight, the quantity and the volume or dimensions of

the goods; (j) the apparent condition of the goods and of the packing; (k) the freight, if it has been agreed upon, the date and place of

payment, and the person who is to pay it; (l) if the goods are sent for payment on delivery, the price of

the goods, and, if the case so requires, the amount of the expenses incurred;

(m) the amount of the value declared in accordance with Article 22(2);

(n) the number of parts of the air consignment note; (o) the documents handed to the carrier to accompany the air

consignment note; (p) the time fixed for the completion of the carriage and a brief

note of the route to be followed, if these matters have been agreed upon;

(q) a statement that the carriage is subject to the rules relating to liability established by this Convention.

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9. If the carrier accepts goods without an air consignment note having been made out, or if the air consignment note does not contain all the particulars set out in Article 8(a) to (i) inclusive and (q), the carrier shall not be entitled to avail himself of the provisions of this Convention which exclude or limit his liability.

10. (1) The consignor is responsible for the correctness of the particulars and statements relating to the goods which he inserts in the air consignment note.

(2) The consignor will be liable for all damage suffered by the carrier or any other person by reason of the irregularity, incorrectness or incompleteness of the said particulars and statements.

11. (1) The air consignment note is prima facie evidence of the conclusion of the contract, of the receipt of the goods and of the conditions of carriage.

(2) The statements in the air consignment note relating to the weight, dimensions and packing of the goods, as well as those relating to the number of packages, are prima facie evidence of the facts stated; those relating to the quantity, volume and conditions of the goods do not constitute evidence against the carrier except so far as they both have been, and are stated in the air consignment note to have been, checked by him in the presence of the consignor, or relate to the apparent condition of the goods.

12. (1) Subject to his liability to carry out all his obligations under the contract of carriage, the consignor has the right to dispose of the goods by withdrawing them at the aerodrome of departure or destination, or by stopping them in the course of the journey on any landing, or by calling for them to be delivered at the place of destination or in the course of the journey to a person other than the consignee named in the air consignment note, or by requiring them to be returned to the aerodrome of departure. He must not exercise this right of disposition in such a way as to prejudice the carrier or other consignors and he must repay any expenses occasioned by the exercise of this right.

(2) If it is impossible to carry out the orders of the consignor the carrier must so inform him forthwith.

(3) If the carrier obeys the orders of the consignor for the disposition of the goods without requiring the production of the part of the air consignment note delivered to the latter, he will be liable, without prejudice to his right of recovery from the consignor, for any damage which may be caused thereby to any person who is lawfully in possession of that part of the air consignment note.

(4) The right conferred on the consignor ceases at the moment when that of the consignee begins in accordance with Article 13; Nevertheless, if the consignee declines to accept the consignment note or the goods or if he cannot be communicated with, the consignor resumes his right of disposition.

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13. (1) Except in the circumstances set out in the preceding Article, the consignee is entitled, on arrival of the goods at the place of destination, to require the carrier to hand over to him the air consignment note and to deliver the goods to him, on payment of the charges due and on complying with the conditions of carriage set out in the air consignment note.

(2) Unless it is otherwise agreed, it is the duty of the carrier to give notice to the consignee as soon as the goods arrive.

(3) If the carrier admits the loss of the goods, or if the goods have not arrived at the expiration of seven days after the date on which they ought to have arrived, the consignee is entitled to put into force against the carrier the rights which flow from the contract of carriage.

14. The consignor and the consignee can respectively enforce all the rights given them by Articles 12 and 13, each in his own name, whether he is acting in his own interest or in the interest of another, provided that he carries out the obligations imposed by the contract.

15. (1) Articles 12, 13 and 14 do not affect either the relations of the consignor or the consignee with each other or the mutual relations of third parties whose rights are derived either from the consignor or from the consignee.

(2) The provisions of Articles 12, 13 and 14 can only be varied by express provision in the air consignment note.

16. (1) The consignor must furnish such information and attach to the air consignment note such documents as are necessary to meet the formalities of customs, octroi or police before the goods can be delivered to the consignee. The consignor is liable to the carrier for any damage occasioned by the absence, insufficiency or irregularity of any such information or documents, unless the damage is due to the fault of the carrier or his agents.

(2) The carrier is under no obligation to enquire into the correctness or sufficiency of such information or documents.

CHAPTER III LIABILITY OF THE CARRIER

17. The carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of the death or wounding of a passenger or any other bodily injury suffered by a passenger, if the accident which caused the damage so sustained took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking or disembarking.

18. (1) The carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of the destruction or loss of, or of damage to, any registered luggage or any goods, if the occurrence which caused the damage so sustained took place during the carriage by air.

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(2) The carriage by air within the meaning of the preceding paragraph comprises the period during which the luggage or goods are in charge of the carrier, whether in an aerodrome or on board an aircraft, or, in the case of a landing outside an aerodrome, in any place whatsoever.

(3) The period of the carriage by air does not extend to any carriage by land, by sea or by river performed outside an aerodrome. If, however, such a carriage takes place in the performance of a contract for carriage by air, for the purpose of loading, delivery or transhipment, any damage is presumed, subject to proof to the contrary, to have been the result of an event which took place during the carriage by air.

19. The carrier is liable for damage occasioned by delay in the carriage by air of passengers, luggage or goods.

20. (1) The carrier is not liable if he proves that he and his agents have taken all necessary measures to avoid the damage or that it was impossible for him or them to take such measures.

(2) In the carriage of goods and luggage the carrier is not liable if he proves that the damage was occasioned by negligent pilotage or negligence in the handling of the aircraft or in navigation and that, in all other respects, he and his agents have taken all necessary measures to avoid the damage.

21. If the carrier proves that the damage was caused by or contributed to by the negligence of the injured person the Court may, in accordance with the provisions of its own law, exonerate the carrier wholly or partly from his liability.

22. (1) In the carriage of passengers the liability of the carrier for each passenger is limited to the sum of 125,000 francs. Where, in accordance with the law of the Courts wised of the case, damages may be awarded in the form of periodical payments, the equivalent capital value of the said payments shall not exceed 125,000 francs. Nevertheless, by special contract, the carrier and the passenger may agree to a higher limit of liability.

(2) In the carriage of registered luggage and of goods, the liability of the carrier is limited to a sum of 250 francs per kilogram, unless the consignor has made, at the time when the package was handed over to the carrier, a special declaration of the value at delivery and has paid a supplementary sum if the case so requires. In that case the carrier will be liable to pay a sum not exceeding the declared sum, unless he proves that that sum is greater than the actual value to the consignor at delivery.

(3) As regards objects of which the passenger takes charge himself the liability of the carrier is limited to 5,000 francs per passenger.

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(4) The sums mentioned above shall be deemed to refer to the French franc consisting of 65§ milligrams gold of millesimal fineness 900. These sums may be converted into any national currency in round figures.

23. Any provision tending to relieve the carrier of liability or to fix a lower limit than that which is laid down in this Convention shall be null and void, but the nullity of any such provision does not involve the nullity of the whole contract, which shall remain subject to the provisions of this Convention.

24. (1) In the cases covered by Articles 18 and 19 any action for damages, however founded, can only be brought subject to the conditions and limits set out in this Convention.

(2) In the cases covered by Article 17 the provisions of the preceding paragraph also apply, without prejudice to the questions as to who are the persons who have the right to bring suit and what are their respective rights.

25. (1) The carrier shall not be entitled to avail himself of the provisions of this Convention which exclude or limit his liability, if the damage is caused by his wilful misconduct or by such default on his part as, in accordance with the law of the Court wised of the case, is considered to be equivalent to wilful misconduct.

(2) Similarly the carrier shall not be entitled to avail himself of the said provisions, if the damage is caused as aforesaid by any agent of the carrier acting within the scope of his employment.

26. (1) Receipt by the person entitled to delivery of luggage or goods without complaint is prima facie evidence that the same have been delivered in good condition and in accordance with the document of carriage.

(2) In the case of damage, the person entitled to delivery must complain to the carrier forthwith after the discovery of the damage, and, at the latest, within three days from the date of receipt in the case of luggage and seven days from the date of receipt in the case of goods. In the case of delay the complaint must be made at the latest within fourteen days from the date on which the luggage or goods have been placed at his disposal.

(3) Every complaint must be made in writing upon the document of carriage or by separate notice in writing despatched within the times aforesaid.

(4) Failing complaint within the times aforesaid, no action shall lie against the carrier, save in the case of fraud on his part.

27. In the case of the death of the person liable, an action for damages lies in accordance with the terms of this Convention against those legally representing his estate.

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28. (1) An action for damages must be brought, at the option of the plaintiff, in the territory of one of the High Contracting Parties, either before the Court having jurisdiction where the carrier is ordinarily resident, or has his principal place of business, or has an establishment by which the contract has been made or before the Court having jurisdiction at the place of destination.

(2) Questions of procedure shall be governed by the law of the Court seised of the case.

29. (1) The right to damages shall be extinguished if an action is not brought within two years, reckoned from the date of arrival at the destination, or from the date on which the aircraft ought to have arrived, or from the date on which the carriage stopped.

(2) The method of calculating the period of limitation shall be determined by the law of the Court seised of the case.

30. (1) In the case of carriage to be performed by various successive carriers and falling within the definition set out in the third paragraph of Article 1, each carrier who accepts passengers, luggage or goods is subjected to the rules set out in this Convention, and is deemed to be one of the contracting parties to the contract of carriage in so far as the contract deals with that part of the carriage which is performed under his supervision.

(2) In the case of carriage of this nature, the passenger or his representative can take action only against the carrier who performed the carriage during which the accident or the delay occurred, save in the case where, by express agreement, the first carrier has assumed liability for the whole journey.

(3) As regards luggage or goods, the passenger or consignor will have a right of action against the first carrier, and the passenger or consignee who is entitled to delivery will have a right of action against the last carrier, and further, each may take action against the carrier who performed the carriage during which the destruction, loss, damage or delay took place. These carriers will be jointly and severally liable to the passenger or to the consignor or consignee.

CHAPTER IV PROVISIONS RELATING TO COMBINED CARRIAGE

31. (1) In the case of combined carriage performed partly by air and partly by any other mode of carriage, the provisions of this Convention apply only to the carriage by air, provided that the carriage by air falls within the terms of Article 1.

(2) Nothing in this Convention shall prevent the parties in the case of combined carriage from inserting in the document of air carriage conditions relating to other modes of carriage, provided that the provisions of this Convention are observed as regards the carriage by air.

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CHAPTER V GENERAL AND FINAL PROVISIONS

32. Any clause contained in the contract and all special agreements entered into before the damage occurred by which the parties purport to infringe the rules laid down by this Convention, whether by deciding the law to be applied, or by altering the rules as to jurisdiction, shall be null and void. Nevertheless for the carriage of goods arbitration clauses are allowed, subject to this Convention, if the arbitration is to take place within one of the jurisdictions referred to in the first paragraph of Article 28.

33. Nothing contained in this Convention shall prevent the carrier either from refusing to enter into any contract of carriage, or from making regulations which do not conflict with the provisions of this Convention.

34. This Convention does not apply to international carriage by air performed by way of experimental trial by air navigation undertakings with the view to the establishment of a regular line of air navigation, nor does it apply to carriage performed in extraordinary circumstances outside the normal scope of an air carrier’s business.

35. The expression “days” when used in this Convention means current days not working days.

36. The Convention is drawn up in French in a single copy which shall remain deposited in the archives of the Ministry for Foreign Affairs of Poland and of which one duly certified copy shall be sent by the Polish Government to the Government of each of the High Contracting Parties.

37. (1) This Convention shall be ratified. The instruments of ratification shall be deposited in the archives of the Ministry for Foreign Affairs of Poland, which will notify the deposit to the Government of each of the High Contracting Parties.

(2) As soon as this Convention shall have been ratified by five of the High Contracting Parties it shall come into force as between them on the ninetieth day after the deposit of the fifth ratification. Thereafter it shall come into force between the High Contracting Parties who shall have ratified and the High Contracting Party who deposits his instrument of ratification on the ninetieth day after the deposit.

(3) it shall be the duty of the Government of the Republic of Poland to notify to the Government of each of the High Contracting Parties the date on which this Convention comes into force as well as the date of the deposit of each ratification.

38. (1) This Convention shall, after it has come into force, remain open for accession by any State.

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(2) The accession shall be effected by a notification addressed to the Government of the Republic of Poland, which will inform the Government of each of the High Contracting Parties thereof.

(3) The accession shall take effect as from the ninetieth day after notification made to the Government of the Republic of Poland.

39. (1) Any one of the High Contracting Parties may denounce this Convention by a notification addressed to the Government of the Republic of Poland, which will at once inform the Government of each of the High Contracting Parties.

(2) Denunciation shall take effect six months after the notification of denunciation, and shall operate only as regards the Party who shall have proceeded to denunciation.

40. (1) Any High Contracting Party may, at the time of signature or of deposit of ratification or of accession declare that the acceptance which he gives to this Convention does not apply to all or any of his colonies, protectorates, territories under mandate, or any other territory subject to his sovereignty or his authority, or any territory under his suzerainty.

(2) Accordingly any High Contracting Party may subsequently accede separately in the name of all or any of his colonies, protectorates, territories under mandate or any other territory subject to his sovereignty or to his authority or any territory under his suzerainty which has been thus excluded by his original declaration.

(3) Any High Contracting Party may denounce this Convention, in accordance with its provisions, separately or for all or any of his colonies, protectorates, territories under mandate or any other territory subject to his sovereignty or to his authority, or any other territory under his suzerainty.

41. Any High Contracting Party shall be entitled not earlier than two years after the coming into force of this Convention to call for the assembling of a new international Conference in order to consider any improvements which may be made in this Convention. To this end he will communicate with the Government of the French Republic which will take the necessary measures to make preparations for such Conference.

This Convention done at Warsaw on the 12th October, 1929, shall remain open for signature until the 31st January, 1930.

[Here follow the signatures on behalf of the following countries: Germany, Austria, Belgium, Brazil, Denmark, Spain, France, Great Britain and Northern Ireland, the Commonwealth of Australia, the Union of South Africa, Greece, Italy, Japan, Latvia, Luxembourg, Norway, the Netherlands, Poland, Roumania, Switzerland, Czecho- Slovakia, the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics, and Yugoslavia.]

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ADDITIONAL PROTOCOL (With reference to Article 2)

The High Contracting Parties reserve to themselves the right to declare at the time of ratification or of accession that the first paragraph of Article 2 of this Convention shall not apply to international carriage by air performed directly by the State, its colonies, protectorates or mandated territories or by any other territory under its sovereignty, suzerainty or authority.

[This additional Protocol was signed on behalf of the same countries as those above mentioned.]

SECOND ANNEX

PROVISIONS AS TO LIABILITY OF CARRIER IN THE EVENT OF THE DEATH OF A PASSENGER

1. The liability shall be enforceable for the benefit of such of the members of the passenger’s family as sustained damage by reason of his death.

In this paragraph the expression “member of a family” means wife or husband, parent, step-parent, grandparent, brother, sister, half brother, half sister, child, step-child, grandchild:

Provided that, in deducing any such relationship as aforesaid, any illegitimate person and any adopted person shall be treated as being, or as having been, the legitimate child of his mother and reputed father or, as the case may be, of his adopters.

2. An action to enforce the liability may be brought by the personal representative of the passenger or by any person for whose benefit the liability is under the last preceding paragraph enforceable, but only one action shall be brought in the Colony in respect of the death of any one passenger, and every such action by whomsoever brought shall be for the benefit of all such persons so entitled as aforesaid as either are domiciled in the Colony or, not being domiciled there, express a desire to take the benefit of the action.

3. Subject to the provisions of the next suceeding paragraph, the amount recovered in any such action, after deducting any costs not recovered from the defendant, shall be divided between the persons entitled in such proportions as the Court (or, where the action is tried with a jury, the jury) direct.

4. The Court before which any such action is brought may at any stage of the proceedings make any such order as appears to the Court to be just and equitable in view of the provisions of the First

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Annex to this Schedule limiting the liability of a carrier and of any proceedings which have been, or are likely to be, commenced outside the Colony in respect of the death of the passenger in question.

SECOND SCHEDULE (Article 3)

The Bahamas

CARRIAGE BY AIR (NON-INTERNATIONAL CARRIAGE) (COLONIES, PROTECTORATES AND

TRUST TERRITORIES) ORDER, 1953

S.I. 1953 No. 1206 4 Made.......................................…….. 1st August 1953 Laid before Parliament...........……. 4th August 1953 Coming into Operation ..........…… 1st October 1953

At the Court at Buckingham Palace, the 1st day of August, 1953

Present, The Queen’s Most Excellent Majesty in Council Whereas it is expedient that the provisions of the

First Schedule to the Carriage by Air Act, 1932 (a), and the provisions of subsections (4) and (5) of section one of the Act, shall extend with certain exceptions, adaptations and modifications to the territories mentioned in the Fourth Schedule to this Order in respect of carriage by air, not being international carriage by air as defined in the said First Schedule:

Now, therefore, Her Majesty, in pursuance of the powers conferred upon Her by the said Act, is pleased, by and with the advice of Her Privy Council, to order, and it is hereby ordered, as follows:

1. This Order may be cited as the Carriage by Air (Non-International Carriage) (Colonies, Protectorates and Trust Territories) Orders, 1953.

4 As amended by S.I. 1955/710 and S.I. 1961/2318.

22 & 23 Geo. 5. c. 36.

Short title.

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2. (1) In this Order, unless the context otherwise requires —

“Governor of a territory” means the officer for the time being administering the Government of that territory;

* * * * * * “the Act” means the Carriage by Air Act, 1932;

* * * * * * “territory” means any of the territories to which this

Order applies in accordance with the provisions of Article 7 of this Order.

(2) The Interpretation Act, 1889 (b), shall apply for the purposes of the interpretation of this Order as it applies for the purposes of the interpretation of an Act of Parliament and as if this Order were an Act of Parliament.

3. Subject to the provisions of Article 5 of this Order, the provisions of the First Schedule to the Act, adapted and modified as set out in the Second Schedule to this Order, shall apply to all carriage by air, not being international carriage by air as defined in the First Schedule to the Act.

4. The provisions of subsections (4) and (5) of section one of the Act, adapted and modified as set out in the First Schedule to this Order, shall apply to the carriage by air specified in Article 3 of this Order.

5. The Governor of a territory may by writing direct that the provisions (in whole and not in part) of this Order, in relation to that territory, shall not apply to any carriage by air, or to any class of carriage by air, and any such direction may be expressed to be, and if so expressed shall take effect, subject to any conditions or limitations which in the circumstances of the case appear to the Governor to be required.

6. ......

Interpretation.

S.I. 1955/710.

52 & 53 Vict. c. 63.

Application of First Schedule to Carriage by Air Act, 1932, to non-international carriage.

Application of section 1(4) and (5) of Carriage by Air Act, 1932, to non-international carriage.

Power to restrict application of Order.

Application of Article 5 of the Order to the East African Territories.

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7. This Order shall apply to the territories mentioned in the Fourth Schedule to this Order.

FIRST SCHEDULE (Article 4) Section 1 — (4) Any liability imposed by Article 17 of

the First Schedule to the Act as applied by this Order on a carrier in respect of the death of a passenger shall be in substitution for any liability of the carrier in respect of the death of that passenger either under any enactment or at common law, and the provisions of the Second Schedule to the Act adapted and modified as set out in the Third Schedule to this Order shall have effect with respect to the persons by and for whose benefit the liability so imposed is enforceable and with respect to the manner in which it may be enforced.

(5) Any sum in francs mentioned in Article 22 of the First Schedule to the Act as applied by this Order shall, for the purposes of any action against a carrier, be converted into sterling, or its equivalent in the local currency, at the rate of exchange prevailing on the date on which the amount of any damages to be paid by the carrier is ascertained by the court.

SECOND SCHEDULE (Article 3)

CHAPTER I SCOPE

1. (1) This Schedule applies to all carriage of passengers, luggage or cargo performed by aircraft for reward. It applies equally to gratuitous carriage by aircraft performed by an air transport undertaking.

2. (2) This Schedule does not apply to the carriage of postal packets performed under the terms of any international postal convention nor to the carriage of postal packets as defined in the Post Office Acts, 1908 to 1840 5(d),

CHAPTER II DOCUMENTS OF CARRIAGE: AIR CONSIGNMENT NOTE

5. (1) Every carrier of cargo has the right to require the consignor to make out and hand over to him an air consignment note.

5 8 Edw. 7. c. 48; 5 & 6 Geo. 5. c. 82; 10 & 11 Geo. 5. c. 40; 25 & 26 Geo. 5. c. 15; 3

& 4 Geo. 6. c. 25.

Application of Order.

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(2) The absence or loss of this document does not affect the existence or the validity of the contract of carriage which shall be none the less governed by the provisions of this Schedule.

7. The carrier of cargo has the right to require the consignor to make out separate consignment notes when there is more than one package.

10. (1) The consignor is responsible for the correctness of the particulars and statements relating to the cargo which he inserts in the air consignment note, if any.

(2) The consignor will be liable for all damage suffered by the carrier or any other person by reason of the incorrectness or incompleteness of the said particulars and statements.

11. (1) The air consignment note, if any, is prima facie evidence of the conclusion of the contract, of the receipt of the cargo and of the conditions of carriage.

(2) Any statements in an air consignment note relating to the weight, dimensions and packing of the cargo, or relating to the number of packages, are prima facie evidence of the facts stated; any such statements relating to the quantity, volume and condition of the cargo do not constitute evidence against the carrier except so far as they both have been, and are stated in the air consignment notes to have been, checked by him in the presence of the consignor, or relate to the apparent condition of the cargo.

12. (1) Subject to his liability to carry out all his obligations under the contract of carriage, the consignor has the right to dispose of the cargo by withdrawing it at the aerodrome of departure or destination, or by stopping it in the course of the carriage on any landing, or by calling for it to be delivered at the place of destination or in the course of the carriage to a person other than the original consignee or by requiring it to be returned to the aerodrome of departure. He must not exercise this right of disposition in such a way as to prejudice the carrier or other consignors and he must repay any expenses occasioned by the exercise of this right.

(2) If it is not reasonably practicable to carry out the orders of the consignor the carrier must so inform him forthwith.

(3) The right conferred on the consignor ceases at the moment when that of the consignee begins in accordance with Article 13. Nevertheless, if the consignee declines to accept the air consignment note, if any, or the cargo, or if he cannot be communicated with, the consignor resumes his right of disposition.

13. (1) Except in the circumstances set out in the preceding Article, the consignee is entitled, on arrival of the cargo at the place of destination, to require the carrier to deliver the cargo to him, on payment of the charges due and on complying with the conditions of the contract of carriage.

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(2) Unless it is otherwise agreed, it is the duty of the carrier to give notice to the consignee as soon as the cargo arrives.

(3) If the carrier admits the loss of the cargo, or if the cargo has not arrived at the expiration of seven days after the date on which it ought to have arrived, the consignee is entitled to put into force against the carrier the rights which flow from the contract of carriage.

14. The consignor and the consignee can respectively enforce all the rights given them by Articles 12 and 13, each in his own name, whether he is acting in his own interest or in the interest of another, provided that he carries out the obligations imposed by the contract.

15. (1) Articles 12, 13 and 14 do not affect either the relations of the consignor and the consignee with each other or the mutual relations of third parties whose rights are derived either from the consignor or from the consignee.

(2) The provisions of Articles 12, 13 and 14 can only be varied by special contract in writing between the parties.

16. (1) The consignor must furnish such information and documents as are necessary to meet the formalities of customs, octroi or police, before the cargo can be delivered to the consignee. The consignor is liable to the carrier for any damage occasioned by the absence, insufficency or irregularity of any such information or documents, unless the damage is due to the fault of the carrier or his servants or agents.

(2) The carrier is under no obligation to enquire into the correctness or sufficiency of such information or documents.

CHAPTER III LIABILITY OF THE CARRIER

17. The carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of the death or wounding of a passenger or any other bodily injury suffered by a passenger, if the accident which caused the damage so sustained took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking or disembarking.

18. (1) The carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of the destruction or loss of, or of damage to, any luggage or any cargo, if the occurrence which caused the damage so sustained took place during the carriage by air.

(2) The carriage by air within the meaning of the preceding paragraph comprises the period during which the luggage or cargo is in charge of the carrier, whether in an aerodrome or on board an aircraft, or, in the case of a landing outside an aerodrome, in any place whatsoever.

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(3) The period of the carriage by air does not extend to any carriage by land, by sea or by river performed outside an aerodrome. If, however, such a carriage takes place in the performance of a contract for carriage by air, for the purpose of loading, delivery or trans-shipment, any damage is presumed, subject to proof to the contrary, to have been the result of an event which took place during the carriage by air.

19. The carrier is liable for damage occasioned by delay in the carriage by air of passengers, luggage or cargo to the extent of the amount of any such damage which may be proved to have been sustained by reason of such delay or of an amount representing double the sum paid for the carriage, whichever amount may be the smaller:

Provided that — (i) the carrier may by special contract in writing expressly

exclude, increase or decrease the limit of his liability as above provided; and

(ii) nothing in this Article shall be deemed to affect any rule of law relating to remoteness of damage. 20. (1) The carrier is not liable if he proves that he and

his servants or agents have taken all reasonable measures to avoid the damage or that it was not reasonably possible for him or them to take such measures.

21. If the carrier proves that the damage was caused by or contributed to by the negligence of the injured person, the court may, in accordance with the provisions of its own law, exonerate the carrier wholly or partly from his liability.

22. (1) Subject to the provisions of paragraph (4) of this Article, in the carriage of passengers the liability of the carrier in respect of injury to (including injury resulting in the death of) any passenger is limited to the sum of 125,000 francs. In a case where damages are awarded in the form of periodical payments, the equivalent capital value of the said payments shall not exceed 125,000 francs.

(2) Subject to the provisions of paragraph (4) of this Article, in the carriage of luggage of which the carrier takes charge and of cargo the liability of the carrier in respect of destruction, loss or damage is limited to a sum of 250 francs per kilogram.

(3) Subject to the provisions of paragraph (4) of this Article, as regards objects of which the passenger takes charge himself the liability of the carrier in respect of destruction, loss or damage is limited to 5,000 francs per passenger.

(4) With respect to the carriage referred to in paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) of this Article, the carrier and the passenger or the carrier and the consignor, as the case may be, may by special contract in writing agree to a limit of liability higher than that specified in those paragraphs.

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(5) The sums mentioned above shall be deemed to refer to the French franc consisting of 65½ milligrams of gold of millesimal fineness 900. These sums may be converted into any national currency in round figures.

23. Any provision in a contract of carriage tending to relieve the carrier of liability or to fix a lower limit than that which is laid down in this Schedule otherwise than in accordance with the provisions of this Schedule shall be null and void, but the nullity of any such provision does not involve the nullity of the whole contract, which shall remain subject to the provisions of this Schedule.

24. (1) In the cases covered by Articles 18 and 19 any action for damages, however founded, can only be brought subject to the conditions and limits set out in this Schedule.

(2) In the cases covered by Article 17 the provisions of the preceding paragraph also apply, without prejudice to any question as to who are the persons who have the right to bring such an action and what are their respective rights.

25. (1) The carrier shall not be entitled to avail himself of the provisions of this Schedule which exclude or limit his liability, if the damage is caused by his wilful misconduct.

(2) Similarly the carrier shall not be entitled to avail himself of the said provisions, if the damage is caused as aforesaid by any servant or agent of the carrier acting within the scope of his employment unless the carrier proves that the wilful misconduct of his servant or agent took place without his actual fault or privity.

26. (1) Receipt by the person entitled to delivery of luggage or cargo without complaint is prima facie evidence that the same has been delivered in good condition and in accordance with the contract of carriage.

(2) In the case of damage, the person entitled to delivery must complain to the carrier forthwith after the discovery of the damage, and, at the latest within three days from the date of receipt in the case of luggage and seven days from the date of receipt in the case of cargo. In the case of delay the complaint must be made at the latest within fourteen days from the date on which the luggage or cargo has been placed at his disposal.

(3) Every complaint must be made by notice in writing despatched within the times aforesaid.

(4) Failing complaint within the times aforesaid, no action shall lie against the carrier, save in the case of fraud on his part.

27. In the case of the death of the person liable, an action for damages lies in accordance with the terms of this Schedule against those legally representing his estate.

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29. (1) The right to damages shall be extinguished if an action is not brought within two years, reckoned from the date of arrival at the destination, or from the date on which the aircraft ought to have arrived, or from the date on which the carriage stopped.

(2) The method of calculating the period of limitation shall be determined by the law of the court seised of the case.

30. (1) In the case of carriage to be performed by various successive carriers, each carrier who accepts passengers, luggage or cargo shall be bound by the provisions of this Schedule, and is deemed to be one of the contracting parties to the contract of carriage in so far as the contract deals with that part of the carriage which is performed under his supervision.

(2) In the case of carriage of this nature, the passenger or his representative can take action only against the carrier who performed the carriage during which the accident or the delay occurred, save in the case where, by express agreement, the first carrier has assumed liability for the whole journey.

(3) As regards luggage or cargo, the passenger or consignor will have a right of action against the first carrier, and the passenger or consignee who is entitled to delivery will have a right of action against the last carrier, and further, each may take action against the carrier who performed the carriage during which the destruction, loss, damage or delay took place. These carriers will be jointly and severally liable to the passenger or to the consignor or consignee.

CHAPTER IV PROVISIONS RELATING TO COMBINED CARRIAGE

31. (1) In the case of combined carriage performed partly by air and partly by any other mode of carriage, the provisions of this Schedule apply only to the carriage by air.

(2) Nothing in this Schedule shall prevent the parties in the case of combined carriage from agreeing to special conditions parties purport to infringe the rules laid down by this Schedule by deciding the law to be applied shall be null and void. Nevertheless for the carriage of cargo arbitration clauses are allowed, subject to this Schedule.

33. Nothing contained in this Schedule shall prevent the carrier either from refusing to enter into any contract of carriage, or from making stipulations which do not conflict with the provisions of this Schedule.

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THIRD SCHEDULE

PROVISIONS AS TO LIABILITY OF CARRIER IN THE EVENT OF THE DEATH OF A PASSENGER

1. The liability shall be enforceable for the benefit of such of the members of the passenger’s family as sustained damage by reason of his death.

In this paragraph the expression “member of a family” means wife or husband, parent, step-parent, grandparent, brother, sister, half brother, half-sister, child, step-child, grandchild:

Provided that, in deducing any such relationship as aforesaid, any illegitimate person and any adopted person shall be treated as being or as having been, the legitimate child of his mother, and reputed father or, as the case may be, of his adopters.

2. An action to enforce the liability may be brought by the personal representative of the passenger or by any person for whose benefit the liability is under the last preceding paragraph enforce- able, but only one action shall be brought in respect of the death of any one passenger, and every such action by whomsoever brought shall be for the benefit of all such persons so entitled as aforesaid as either are domiciled in the territory or, not being domiciled there, express a desire to take the benefit of the action.

3. Subject to the provisions of the next succeeding paragraph, the amount recovered in any such action, after deducting any costs not recovered from the defendant, shall be divided between the persons entitled in such proportions as the court (or, where the action is tried with a jury, the jury) directs.

4. The court before which any such action is brought may at any stage of the proceedings make any such order as appears to the court to be just and equitable in view of the provisions of the First Schedule to the Act as applied by this Order limiting the liability of a carrier and of any proceedings which have been, or are likely to be, commenced outside the territory in respect of the death of the passenger in question.

FOURTH SCHEDULE (Article 7)

TERRITORIES TO WHICH THIS ORDER APPLIES

The Bahamas

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PART VI

Subsidiary Legislation under the Carriage by Air Act, 1961 (9 & 10 Eliz. II c. 27) of the United Kingdom

CARRIAGE BY AIR (OVERSEAS TERRITORIES)

ORDER IN COUNCIL 1967

(1967 No. 809)

CARRIAGE BY AIR (BAHAMIAN DOLLAR EQUIVALENTS) ORDER, 1968

In the exercise of the powers conferred upon the Governor by paragraph 4(4) of Schedule 1 to the Carriage by Air (Overseas Territories) Order, 1967 and all other powers thereunto enabling him, the following Order is hereby made:

1. This Order may be cited as the Carriage by Air (Bahamian Dollar Equivalents) Order, 1968.

2. The amounts shown in column 2 of the following Table are hereby specified as amounts to be taken for the purposes of Article 22 in the First Schedule to The Carriage by Air Act, 1961 and of that Article applied by The Carriage by Air Acts (Application of Provisions) (Overseas Territories) Order in Council, 1967 and by The Carriage by Air (Overseas Territories) Order in Council, 1967 as equivalent to the sums respectively expressed in francs on the same line in column 1 of that Table:

TABLE Amount of Francs Bahamian Dollar

Equivalent 250 16.92

5,000 338.45 125,000 8,461.09 250,000 16,922.18 875,000 59,227.60

S.I. 79/1968

Citation.

Specified equivalents.